Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Review Questions - 372 Verified Questions

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Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies

Review Questions

Course Introduction

This course explores the etiology, classification, diagnosis, and multidisciplinary management of cleft palate and a variety of craniofacial anomalies. Students will gain an understanding of embryology, genetic and environmental factors, and the impact of these conditions on speech, hearing, feeding, and psychological development. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based assessment techniques, intervention strategies, and the role of the interprofessional team including surgeons, speech-language pathologists, audiologists, and social workers in optimizing outcomes for individuals with these congenital anomalies.

Recommended Textbook Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Effects on Speech and Resonance 3rd Edition by Ann

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24 Chapters

372 Verified Questions

372 Flashcards

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2

Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) What separates the two plates of the palatine process of the maxilla?

A)Incisive suture lines

B)Median palatine suture

C)Transverse palatomaxillary suture lines

D)Nasal aspect of palatine suture

E)Incisive foramen

Answer: B

Q2) The philtrum runs between which two structures?

A)The nasal tip and the tubercle

B)The nasal tip and the columella

C)The columella and the tubercle

D)The columella and the upper lip

E)The cupid's bow and the tubercle

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Clefts of the Lip and Palate

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26 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true about the primary palate?

A)It is posterior to the incisive foramen.

B)It includes the hard and soft palate.

C)It includes the lip.

D)It includes the hard palate, but not the soft palate.

E)It includes the alveolus only.

Answer: C

Q2) In normal embryological development, where does fusion of the secondary palate begin?

A)Median raphe

B)Incisive foramen

C)Anterior nasal spine

D)Posterior nasal spine

E)Transverse palatine suture

Answer: B

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4

Chapter 3: The Genetics Evaluation and Common

Craniofacial

Syndromes

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2 Verified Questions

2 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cleft palate rather than cleft lip) is more likely to be associated with which of the following?

A)Deformations

B)Malformations

C)Disruptions

D)Associations

E)Other congenital anomalies

Answer: B

Q2) What is failure of the brain to divide into two separate hemispheres called?

A)Hydrocephaly

B)Macrocephaly

C)Holoprosencephaly

D)Microcephaly

E)Unicephaly

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Genetics and Patterns of Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which factors) produces) the greatest risk for cleft lip?

A)Carrying the rare polymorphism of the TGFA gene

B)Having a family history with two affected first-degree relatives with cleft lip

C)Heavy maternal smoking plus carrying the high-risk allele of TGF

D)Having a family history with one individual with cleft lip

E)Heavy maternal smoking

Q2) Which of the following describes traits that manifest only when mutations are present in both copies of a gene?

A)Dominant traits

B)Recessive traits

C)Heterogeneous traits

D)Homogenous traits

E)Autosomal dominant traits

Q3) What is the possibility that their offspring will be carriers of the condition?

A)0%

B)25%

C)50%

D)75%

E)100%

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Feeding Problems of Infantswith Clefts or

Craniofacial Anomalies

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the purpose of a nonnutritive stimulation?

A)To heighten sensory awareness

B)To facilitate oral motor action

C)To help prevent development of oral aversion

D)To elicit a sucking response

E)All of the above

Q2) When feeding an infant, a general rule of thumb to follow is that the infant should be burped after how many ounces of intake?

A)1/2 ounce

B)1 ounce

C)2 ounces

D)3 ounces

E)4 ounces

Q3) As the infant grows, which of the following structures does not descend?

A)Velum

B)Epiglottis

C)Hyoid

D)Larynx

E)Vocal cords

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Chapter 6: Developmental Aspects:speech, Language, and Cognition

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12 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) An infant with a cleft palate will tend to produce a predominance of what type of consonants?

A)Glottals and velars

B)Plosives

C)Fricatives and affricates

D)Liquids

E)Glides

Q2) Which of the following statements is true?

A)The infant's abnormal phonological development as a result of the open palate can persist into early speech, even after the palate is repaired.

B)Many children with VPI have reduced expressive language output due to difficulty with speech production.

C)Children with a history of cleft lip only are just as likely to have speech sound errors as children with a history of cleft palate.

D)a and b

E)a and c

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Chapter 7: Resonance Disorders Andvelopharyngeal

Dysfunction Vpd

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which speech characteristics are most likely to occur with a very large velopharyngeal opening?

A)Significant audible nasal emission

B)Hypernasality and audible nasal emission

C)A loud and distorting nasal rustle

D)Hypernasality and inaudible nasal emission

E)Pharyngeal fricatives

Q2) Very large tonsils are most likely to cause which of the following?

A)Cul-de-sac resonance

B)Hypernasality

C)Hyponasality

D)Mixed resonance

E)Nasal emission

Q3) Maxillary advancement may improve which of the following?

A)Cul-de-sac resonance

B)Hypernasality

C)Hyponasality

D)Mixed resonance

E)Nasal emission

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Facial, Oral and Pharyngeal Anomalies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tonsillar hypertrophy is typically rated on which scale?

A)On a 3-point scale

B)On a 4-point scale

C)On a 5-point scale

D)On a 6-point scale

E)On a 7-point scale

Q2) When a neonate has bilateral choanal atresia, what is the biggest concern?

A)The infant can't breathe while crying

B)The infant is unable to swallow efficiently

C)The infant is unable to breathe at rest

D)The infant can't hear

E)a and b

Q3) A frenulectomy is most often indicated for which of the following?

A)Speech difficulties

B)Feeding difficulties

C)Dental difficulties

D)Cosmetic concerns

E)Medical concerns

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10

Chapter 9: Dental Anomalies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is most commonly seen in individuals with a history of cleft lip and palate?

A)Class I occlusion: normal relationship of the molars and line of occlusion

B)Class I malocclusion: normal relationship of the molars, but line of occlusion incorrect

C)Class II malocclusion: mandibular retrusion and/or maxillary protrusion

D)Class III malocclusion: mandibular protrusion and/or maxillary retrusion

E)Class II malocclusion: mandibular protrusion and/or maxillary retrusion

Q2) What is the term for the horizontal relationship of the upper to the lower incisors?

A)Labioversion

B)UnderJet

C)OverJet

D)Overbite

E)Diastema

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Chapter 10: Psychosocial Aspects Ofcleft Lippalate and

Craniofacial Anomalies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true about children and teens with cleft lip and palate, compared to their unaffected peers?

A)They have a characteristic personality type.

B)They are at greater risk of developing psychopathology.

C)They are more aggressive with peers.

D)They have more difficulty with peer relationships.

E)All of the above

Q2) What causes "stigma" for individuals with craniofacial anomalies?

A)The deviation from cultural standards of beauty

B)Deliberate negative intent by unaffected people

C)Compensatory activities of unaffected individuals, such as being unusually indulgent or helpful

D)Extra awareness of the affected individuals by those who are unaffected

E)All of the above

Q3) Which is not true about adults with clefts, compared to their unaffected peers?

A)They tend to marry later.

B)They have higher levels of depression.

C)They tend to end their education earlier.

D)They make less money in their jobs.

E)All of the above

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Speech and Resonance Assessment

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27 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) When evaluating nasal emission, the speech sample should have many of which type of phonemes?

A)High vowels

B)Back vowels

C)Voiceless consonants

D)Voice consonants

E)Plosives

Q2) Which of the following misarticulations can be co-articulated with the /b/ sound?

A)Pharyngeal plosive

B)Palatal-dorsal

C)Velar fricative

D)Glottal stop

E)Pharyngeal fricative

Q3) Which phoneme best to use when testing for nasal emission?

A)/p/

B)/s/

C)/g/

D)/l/

E)/z/

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Orofacial Examination

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following can often be viewed in young children during an oral examination, but cannot be seen in adults during this exam?

A)Bifid uvula

B)Epiglottis

C)Median palatine raphe

D)Velar dimple

E)Zona pellucida

Q2) A lobulated tongue is most indicative of which syndrome?

A)Crouzon's

B)Velocardiofacial

C)Orofaciodigital

D)Beckwith-Wiedemann

E)Trisomy 18

Q3) What is the most common cause of the spread of infection in healthcare settings?

A)Providers not wearing gloves, when appropriate

B)Providers not wearing a mask, when appropriate

C)Providers not following proper handwashing guidelines

D)Medical equipment that is not properly disinfected

E)Medical equipment that is not properly sterilized

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Chapter 14: Nasometry

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16 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What cannot be assessed through nasometry?

A)Resonance

B)Upper airway obstruction during speech

C)Changes in resonance following surgery

D)Phoneme-specific nasal emission

E)Intraoral air pressure

Q2) Which of the following is not true about nasometry?

A)It is an indirect measure.

B)It provides objective data regarding resonance.

C)It can be used with connected speech.

D)It provides a visual representation of resonance in real time.

E)It provides direct visualization of the velopharyngeal valve.

Q3) Which of the following was the first instrument developed to measure nasal and oral acoustic energy?

A)Nasometer

B)OroNasal System

C)TONAR

D)NasalView

E)Aerodynamic instrumentation

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Page 15

Chapter 15: Speech Aerodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does a pneumotachograph measure?

A)Volume of airflow

B)Rate of airflow

C)Air pressure

D)Nasal air resistance

E)Acoustics of airflow

Q2) What does the orifice equation use to calculate minimal cross-sectional area of the velopharyngeal port?

A)Simultaneous measures of the differential pressure across the orifice and rate of airflow

B)The correction factor h

C)Differential pressure across the orifice divided by the rate of airflow

D)The increase in airflow and increase in air pressure across the orifice

E)The pressure drop across the orifice and increase in oral airflow

Q3) Aerodynamic techniques do not provide information about which of the following?

A)Intraoral air pressure level

B)Rates of nasal air emission

C)Estimates of VP orifice size during consonant production

D)Estimates of VP orifice size during vowel production

E)Measurements of nasal airway resistance

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Chapter 16: Videofluoroscopy

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14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which view shows velar height during phonation?

A)Lateral view

B)Frontal view

C)Base view

D)Oblique view

E)Towne's view

Q2) Which view shows most of the port?

A)Lateral view

B)Frontal view

C)Base view

D)Oblique view

E)Towne's view

Q3) Which view used for videofluoroscopy is most similar to the orientation of nasopharyngoscopy?

A)Towne's view

B)Oblique view

C)AP view

D)Base view

E)Lateral view

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Chapter 17: Nasopharyngoscopy

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Sample Questions

Q1) For surgical planning, what is the most important finding through nasopharyngoscopy?

A)Size of the opening

B)Shape of the opening

C)Location of the opening

D)Timing of closure

E)Pattern of closure

Q2) Where should you insert the scope when evaluating velopharyngeal function?

A)Inferior meatus because it will come out on top of the velum

B)Inferior meatus because it is the largest and therefore causes the least discomfort

C)Superior meatus because it will allow visualization from the highest point of the nasopharynx

D)Middle meatus because it allows a view from above

E)Superior meatus because its smaller size will keep the scope from "wiggling" around too much

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18

Chapter 18: Surgical Management of Clefts and Velopharyngeal

Insufficiencyincompetence VPI

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Sample Questions

Q1) What procedure is used for aligning the maxillary segments prior to formal surgery for unilateral and bilateral clefts?

A)Taping the lip

B)Dental elastics

C)Latham appliance

D)Lip adhesion

E)All of the above

Q2) The earliest that a pharyngoplasty is usually done is at what age?

A)1 to 2 years

B)2 to 2½ years

C)2½ to 3 years

D)3½ to 4 years

E)5 to 6 years

Q3) What is a common surgical procedure for correction of velopharyngeal insufficiency?

A)Palatoplasty

B)Pharyngeal flap

C)Abbe flap

D)Palatal lift

E)Intravelar veloplasty

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Chapter 19: Orthognathic Surgery for Craniofacial

Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following describes the procedure where a partial cut is made in the middle of a bone and then the segments are slowly pulled apart to allow new bone to regenerate in the space?

A)Le Fort advancement

B)Distraction osteogenesis

C)Bone graft

D)Osteotomy

E)Gingivoperiosteoplasty

Q2) Children with clefts may initially have a fairly normal occlusal relationship, but they usually develop which type of occlusion with growth?

A)Class I

B)Class II

C)Class III

D)Open bite

E)Occlusal cant

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Page 20

Chapter 20: Prosthetic Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) When is it not appropriate to use prosthetic management?

A)For patients with a history of cleft who have a delay for surgery due to medical issues

B)For patients who have undergone a successful cleft repair without complications or residual effects

C)For patients with persistent velopharyngeal insufficiency or incompetence after unsuccessful surgeries

D)For patients with other structural disorders not related to cleft palate

E)For patients who have cancer affecting the maxilla or velum

Q2) When working directly with the prosthodontist to modify an appliance for best results, what procedure is most effective to use?

A)Perceptual assessment

B)Nasopharyngoscopy

C)Nasometry

D)Intraoral examination

E)Videofluoroscopy

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Chapter 21: Speech Therapy

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What speech sound should be inserted between the consonant and the vowel when trying to eliminate glottal stops?

A)/m/

B)/h/

C)/i/

D)/n/

E)/s/

Q2) Which of the following is often co-articulated with an oral placement?

A)Pharyngeal fricative

B)Pharyngeal plosive

C)Glottal stop

D)Palatal-dorsal production

E)Velar fricative

Q3) Which of the following can be corrected by starting with the yawn technique?

A)Pharyngeal fricative

B)Pharyngeal plosive

C)Glottal stop

D) /l

E)Velar plosive

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Chapter 22: The Team Approach

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4 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most of the managed care organizations exist as which of the following?

A)For-profit corporations

B)Not-for-profit organizations

C)Third-party administrators

D)Preferred providers PPOs.

E)Government-run providers

Q2) Based on ACPA recommendations, which professionals must be on a Cleft Palate Team as a very minimum?

A)Plastic surgeon, ENT, pedodontist

B)Surgeon, dental professional, speech-language pathologist

C)Plastic surgeon, ENT, speech-language pathologist

D)Plastic surgeon, oral surgeon, speech-language pathologist

E)Dental professional, orthodontist, plastic surgeon

Q3) The team's primary contact person for the family is usually which of the following?

A)Primary care physician

B)Pediatrician

C)Family doctor

D)Managing surgeon

E)Team coordinator

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Page 23

Chapter 23: Cleft Care in Developing Countries

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true?

A)The prevalence of clefts does not vary with geography.

B)Poverty is the only reason children in developing countries do not have access to care.

C)Interpreters should be given some written "scripts" prior to the evaluations.

D)The main mission of international organizations is to provide direct surgical care to affected children.

E)c and d

Q2) Which of the following statements is true?

A)The prevalence of clefts varies with ethnic background.

B)The prevalence of clefts varies with socioeconomic status.

C)The prevalence of clefts is not affected by malnutrition.

D)a and b

E)b and c

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24

Chapter 24: Velopharyngeal Dysfunction and Speech Disorders

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7 Verified Questions

7 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which syndrome is most likely to include hearing loss?

A)Apert syndrome

B)Treacher Collins syndrome

C)Velocardiofacial syndrome

D)Down syndrome

E)Beckwidth-Weidemann syndrome

Q2) A child presents for an evaluation with a complaint of "nasality." An evaluation reveals abnormal resonance on vowels and the following consonants: m, n, ng.Which condition is present?

A)Hypernasality

B)Hyponasality

C)Oral cul-de-sac resonance

D)Nasal cul-de-sac resonance

E)Assimilated resonance

Q3) Nasal emission is most audible on which of the following sounds?

A)Nasal sounds

B)Voiceless consonants

C)Vowels

D)Voiced continuents

E)Voiced plosives

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