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Civics is the study of the rights and responsibilities of citizens, the structure and function of government, and the roles individuals play within a society. This course explores the foundations of democratic systems, the importance of active citizenship, and the ways in which laws and policies shape communities. Students will develop an understanding of how government operates at the local, national, and global levels, while also examining the significance of civic participation, public discourse, and informed decision-making in sustaining a healthy democracy. Through interactive lessons and real-world examples, the course aims to foster critical thinking, ethical reasoning, and a commitment to civic engagement.
Recommended Textbook
American Government and Politics Today The Essentials 17th Edition by Barbara A. Bardes
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Q1) Politics is
A) a process that resolves conflict within a society.
B) a struggle over power or influence within organizations or informal groups.
C) a type of anti-social behavior by individuals.
D) fundamentally irrelevant.
E) Options A and B are true.
Answer: E
Q2) Theorists describe pluralism as
A) the struggle between the poor and wealthy classes.
B) the struggle among groups to gain benefits for their members.
C) a theory of how democracy should not function.
D) a way to settle disputes by armed conflict.
E) a way for one group to dominate the political process.
Answer: B
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Q1) Describe the demographic make-up of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention. Did they represent a cross-section of American Society?
Answer: The delegates to the Constitutional Convention were predominantly white, male, and wealthy. They were often members of the elite social and political circles of their respective states. Many were well-educated and had significant political experience.
This demographic make-up does not represent a cross-section of American society at the time. For example, women, African Americans, Native Americans, and non-landowning men were not represented among the delegates. The interests and perspectives of these groups were not adequately represented in the discussions and decisions made at the Convention. Therefore, the delegates did not accurately reflect the diversity and complexity of American society at that time.
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Q1) After early rulings by the Supreme Court increased the power of the national government, states sought a shift back to states' rights due to
A) increasing divisions between the North and the South over the slavery issue.
B) conflict over Congressional passage of a tariff on trade in 1828.
C) concern over expanding power by the federal government in the regulation of commerce.
D) conflict over the role of the national government and that of the states.
E) All of the above are true.
Answer: E
Q2) The clause in the Constitution that grants Congress the power to do whatever is necessary to execute its enumerated or expressed powers is called
A) the elastic or necessary and proper clause.
B) the supremacy clause.
C) the concurrent clause.
D) the reserved powers clause.
E) due process clause.
Answer: A
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Q1) If the police appear at your door and ask to enter
A) ask to see a warrant before the police enter.
B) read the warrant for the details of the search and observe the police activities, once inside without hindering the search.
C) ask that the police to wait until your lawyer arrives.
D) suggest that the police search your roommate's room.
E) Options A and B are true.
Q2) The establishment clause in the First Amendment
A) has been applied to questions of the legality of state and local government aid to religious organizations and schools.
B) means that neither the federal government nor state governments can set up a church.
C) is different than the free exercise clause.
D) has been used to decide the actions of government allowing or prohibiting school prayer.
E) All the above are true.
Q3) Explain under what conditions the Supreme Court will consider a restriction on commercial speech.
Q4) What are the Miranda rights? What exceptions have been allowed to these rights?
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Q1) In the case of Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954), the U.S. Supreme Court held that
A) ethnic minorities have no rights to equal treatment by the government.
B) public school segregation of races violates the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
C) the national government does not have the power to force any type of action on local school boards.
D) separation of races for a reason such as education is not a violation of the Constitution.
E) African Americans could not be denied the right to a college education.
Q2) Feminism is
A) a movement supported by women but not men in the United States.
B) the movement that supports political, economic, and social equality for women.
C) supported by all women in the United States.
D) a movement that began with the founding of the National Organization for Women (NOW) in 1966.
E) Options B and D are true.
Q3) Contrast the approaches of Martin Luther King, Jr. and Malcolm X.
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Q1) Which institutions in the United States hold American's trust and which do not? Explain the reasons why some institutions are held in high esteem and others are not.
Q2) Explore the means by which political socialization occurs in the United States.
Q3) Public opinion affects the political process
A) because it is a source of power for elected officials who take positions supported by the people.
B) despite the fact that most candidates dismiss public opinion as an effective means of identifying issues of concern.
C) because it allows the media to control the government.
D) because it is more important than elections in bringing about change in the government.
E) despite the fact that public opinion polls hardly ever reflect public opinion accurately.
Q4) Describe the concept of a generational effect and provide examples of its impact on public opinion.
Q5) Explain how demographic influences shape voting behavior.
Q6) Discuss four things that influence one's public opinion.
Q7) Describe the significance and possible origins of the gender gap.
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Q1) Describe legislative efforts to regulate the activities of lobbyists.
Q2) Foreign governments
A) often contribute large sums of money to key members of Congress.
B) sometimes hire former members of Congress as lobbyists.
C) provide expensive gifts to members of Congress who travel to a country on official government business.
D) are rarely interested in the policy debates concerning trade issues.
E) are prohibited by law from attempting to influence U.S. policy.
Q3) Labor unions
A) are embraced by business-oriented conservatives.
B) are not popular in Southern states like Georgia and North Carolina.
C) are popular in states like New York and California.
D) Options B and C are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Q4) Single-issue interest groups
A) include the American Association of Retired Persons (AARP).
B) include the Common Cause, which lobbies for government reform.
C) are narrowly focused, usually on just one issue.
D) have members who tend to care intensely about their issues.
E) Options C and D are true.

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Q1) Divided government
A) reflects a situation when a person votes for candidates of two parties for different offices.
B) exists when the presidency and Congress are controlled by different parties.
C) is another name for federalism.
D) increases the control of the winning party in an election.
E) is a strong indication of the emergence of a new third party.
Q2) Many political scientists contend that third parties
A) have consistently failed because they never reflect the political mood of the nation.
B) serve as a safety valve for dissident political groups, preventing major confrontations and political unrest.
C) can only come into existence if they are organized around a single charismatic leader.
D) can only come into existence if they split off from one of the major political parties. E) are incapable of being formed from scratch by individuals who are committed to a particular issue or ideology.
Q3) Analyze the role of cultural politics in recent elections.
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Q1) At the national convention,
A) upon arrival most delegates are undecided as to whom they would like to see as the party's candidate.
B) the delegates from those states that had early primaries and caucuses are seated closest to the front of the convention center.
C) the presidential candidate is chosen by the party delegates.
D) elites within the political parties are entrusted with making the determination of an appropriate candidate based upon electability.
E) it usually take three ballots for the party to choose the presidential candidate.
Q2) The concerns about concentrated media ownership include
A) concentration could lead to a decline in the democratic debate.
B) media owners might steer the debate.
C) cable news viewers will be lost to newspapers owned by the parent company.
D) Options A and B are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Q3) How has the advent of online fundraising changed the process of raising campaign funds? Which candidates have used the technique with great success?
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Q1) Explain the difference between reapportionment and redistricting.
Q2) Congressional caucuses are formed around
A) ideological points of view such as the Tea Party and the Progressive Caucus.
B) special agricultural interest such as potatoes and corn growers.
C) racial or ethnic interests.
D) Options A and B are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Q3) A temporary law that Congress passes when an appropriations bill has not been decided by the beginning of the fiscal year is a(n)
A) emergency resolution.
B) budget extension.
C) continuing resolution.
D) preview budget.
E) temporary budget.
Q4) Compare and contrast the trustee and instructed-delegate theories of representation.
Q5) Describe the enumerated or expressed power of Congress.
Q6) Explain the causes of the increase in the federal deficit during the presidencies of George W. Bush and Barack Obama.
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Q1) Which action(s) is (are) part of the president's role as commander in chief?
A) President Clinton meeting with heads of other countries
B) President Reagan signing a law allowing the United States to give aid to Egypt
C) President Ford pardoning President Nixon for his involvement in Watergate
D) President Bush ordering the invasion of Iraq and Afghanistan
E) All are part of the president's role as commander in chief.
Q2) The State of the Union message
A) helps the President transmit his legislative agenda to Congress and the American people.
B) is as much a message to the American people and the world as it is to Congress.
C) is required by the Constitution and is usually delivered in January.
D) has spawned many customs including the tradition that one cabinet member, a "designated survivor," not attend the ceremony in case of national emergency.
E) All of the above are true.
Q3) Describe the process by which the president has the power to say no to legislation.
Q4) Analyze the president's functions as party chief and superpolitician.
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Q1) Describe the pros and cons of India's biometric ID system.
Q2) Which of the following was the first cabinet department created?
A) The first cabinet department to be created was the Department of Justice and the most recently created was Energy.
B) The first cabinet department to be created was War and the most recently created was the Environmental Protection Agency.
C) The first cabinet department to be created was State and the most recently created was Homeland Security.
D) The first cabinet department to be created was State and the most recently created was The Federal Emergency Management Administration.
E) The first cabinet department to be created was Defense and the most recently created was Veterans Affairs.
Q3) Describe the different models of bureaucracy.
Q4) Describe the evolution of the civil service with particular emphasis on legislation that implemented reforms in government employment policies.
Q5) Describe the difference between whistleblowers and leaks. Provide examples of each.
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Q1) The Anti-Terrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act that created an alien removal court, was passed
A) in 1996 as a response to the bombing of a federal building in Oklahoma City.
B) in 2001 as a response to the 911 attacks in New York, Washington D.C., and Pennsylvania.
C) in 2010 as a solution to dealing with prisoners at the Guantanamo Bay detention center.
D) in 2000 as a response to the attack of the naval ship, the USS Cole.
E) in 1993 as a response to the first attack on the World Trade Center in New York.
Q2) The Supreme Court cases, Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission and McDonald v. Chicago, were victories for the
A) political left.
B) political right.
C) gun control advocates.
D) government reform advocates.
E) Options A and C are true.
Q3) Describe the sources of American law.
Q4) Describe the changes to the federal court system in an effort to fight terrorism
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Q1) Universal health insurance
A) is a new concept that developed within the last 20 years.
B) began in the United States.
C) is, by definition, insurance provided by the central government itself.
D) provides help from the government for businesses.
E) had been adopted by all advanced industrial countries by the twenty-first century except the United States.
Q2) Policy formulation is
A) the process of making the government aware that an issue requires action.
B) the discussion of proposals between governmental officials and the public.
C) the process of deciding on a specific proposal.
D) concerned with the implementation of policy by bureaucrats, the courts, police, and individual citizens.
E) the process of examining how a policy has worked in practice.
Q3) Which of the following is a step in the policymaking process?
A) Policy implementation
B) Policy adoption
C) Policy formation
D) Agenda building
E) All of the above are true.
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Q1) The Monroe Doctrine stated that
A) the United States would not accept any new European intervention in the Western Hemisphere and the United States would not meddle in European affairs.
B) the United States had the authority to intervene in the affairs of European nations if American interests were at stake.
C) the United States would take action against the Barbary pirates in order to protect American lives and commerce.
D) the United States would not wait to be attacked, but rather would take preemptive action against clear and present dangers.
E) the United States would only conduct business with other nations by employing treaties.
Q2) Explain the constitutional clash of powers between the president and Congress in the area of foreign policymaking.
Q3) In what ways has the United States offered humanitarian assistance in different parts of the world?
Q4) Describe the conflict between Israel and the Palestinians and the efforts to bring peace to this troubled part of the world.
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