Civics
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Civics is an interdisciplinary course that explores the rights, duties, and responsibilities of citizenship in a democratic society. Students will examine the structure and functions of government at the local, state, and federal levels, as well as the principles underpinning the Constitution and the rule of law. The course emphasizes the role of individuals and communities in shaping public policy, participating in civic life, and promoting justice, equality, and the common good. Through discussions, case studies, and current events, students will develop critical thinking, informed decision-making, and active engagement skills necessary for responsible citizenship.
Recommended Textbook MindTapR in Action American Government 1st Edition by Cengage
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Chapter 1: The Constitution
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Q1) Which of the following was <b><u>not</b></u> an act Britain imposed on the colonies to raise revenue?
A) The Sugar Act
B) The Stamp Act
C) The Townsend Acts
D) The Intolerable, or Coercive, Acts
Answer: D
Q2) In Federalist No. 10, James Madison speaks to the Constitution's ability to weaken the "mischiefs of faction." What issue was he addressing?
A) Less possibility of one faction gaining a majority
B) The threat from small states in gaining a majority
C) The idea that the executive could gain control similar to that of a monarchy
D) The concept that elected officials can be impeached
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Federalism
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Q1) When did the United States operate under a confederal system?
A) Under the rule of King George
B) Under the Articles of Confederation
C) Under the Constitution
D) Since the Revolutionary War
Answer: B
Q2) In Obergefell v. Hodges, the Supreme Court ruled that
A) same-sex marriages qualify as contracts that must be recognized by all states under the Constitution.
B) states have the right to make their own laws regarding same-sex marriage.
C) same-sex marriage is not a constitutional issue.
D) states do not have to provide all the same benefits to all married couples.
Answer: A
Q3) The power to tax is an example of
A) a reserved power.
B) an enumerated power.
C) a concurrent power.
D) a delineated power.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Civil Liberties
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Q1) What fueled early Americans' desire to protect individual liberties?
A) The argument concerning the rights of states over the rights of the federal government
B) The outcome of the American Revolution
C) Their experiences under the repressive English monarchy
D) The passage of the Bill of Rights
Answer: C
Q2) The free exercise clause addresses public policies that
A) appear to burden the government.
B) allow for some religious activities.
C) allow religious freedom.
D) appear to burden religion.
Answer: D
Q3) District of Columbia v. Heller was the first case to clearly state that the right to bear arms applies to
A) the individual, and not simply a member of a militia.
B) individuals who are members of a militia.
C) individuals who are members of militia and police forces.
D) individuals over the age of 21.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Civil Rights
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Q1) When was the Equal Pay Act signed?
A) 1948
B) 1952
C) 1963
D) 2009
Q2) What term is defined as using racial influence over police discretion by targeting individuals for investigation or law enforcement based primarily on their race?
A) Affirmative action
B) Racial profiling
C) Racial alienation
D) Racial disparities
Q3) All of the following are examples of civil rights <b><u>except</b></u> the right to A) free speech.
B) vote.
C) due process of law.
D) equal protection of laws.
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Chapter 5: Congress
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Q1) The committee system in Congress is
A) developed over time to organize the lawmaking process.
B) led by the party that holds the minority.
C) specifically detailed in the Constitution.
D) not used to create national policy.
Q2) Congressional oversight
A) was not originally granted to Congress by the Constitution.
B) allows Congress to check the judicial branch bureaucracy.
C) allows Congress some control over policy implementation.
D) is not a power granted to Congress.
Q3) The president of the Senate votes
A) if a tie-breaking vote needs to be cast.
B) if a quorum is needed.
C) if one of the senators from the vice president's home state is absent.
D) on every motion.
Q4) The first step in the creation of a law is for a bill to be
A) introduced to the full House or Senate.
B) reviewed through the committee process.
C) reviewed by the executive branch.
D) proposed and sponsored by a member of the House or Senate.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Presidency and Foreign Policy
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Q1) Implied powers are
A) essential to the functioning of the office.
B) powers Congress has given to the president.
C) open to interpretation and change with each president.
D) directly stated in the Constitution.
Q2) The end of the Cold War began in _______ when the Berlin Wall came down.
A) 1988
B) 1989
C) 1990
D) 1991
Q3) Who officially determines who gets elected president on election day?
A) The House of Representatives
B) The popular vote and the Electoral College
C) The popular vote
D) The Electoral College
Q4) How many electors does a state receive?
A) The number of members it has in the House of Representatives
B) The number of members it has in the Senate
C) The number of members it has in Congress
D) The number is not set because it is based on voter turnout.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Bureaucracy
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Q1) How do congressional committees typically execute oversight of the bureaucracy?
A) They conduct investigations to ensure that federal funding is being used as directed.
B) They gather information and report on new budgetary requests.
C) They write resolutions that favor some groups more than others.
D) They impeach bureaucratic officials who are not performing well.
Q2) What act was designed to limit political involvement by civil servants and prevent federal government employees from engaging in certain political activities?
A) The Pendleton Act
B) The Hatch Act
C) The Civil Service Reform Act
D) The Budget Control Act
Q3) Which of the following was<b> <u>not</u></b> a federal agency created under the New Deal?
A) The Federal Housing Authority
B) The Interstate Commerce Commission
C) The Social Security Administration
D) The Tennessee Valley Authority
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Judiciary
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Q1) Unanimous decisions on the part of the Supreme Court find the Court
A) ultimately aligning with a dissenting opinion.
B) in agreement on the rationale but not necessarily the ruling.
C) in agreement on the ruling but not the rationale.
D) in agreement on the outcome and the rationale.
Q2) When are oral arguments heard before the Supreme Court?
A) May through November
B) October through April
C) December through June
D) July through January
Q3) Which court case applied the Fourteenth Amendment's due process and equal protection clauses to require states to issue licenses for same-sex marriage?
A) Plessy v. Ferguson
B) United States v. Windsor
C) Obergefell v. Hodges
D) Roe v. Wade
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Chapter 9: Public Opinion
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Q1) What is the name given to the technique used during political campaigns in an attempt to persuade voters to vote for (or against) a particular candidate, or <b><u>not</b></u> bother going to the polls at all?
A) Call-in polls
B) Push polls
C) Unscientific polls
D) Single-question polls
Q2) The role of the media in shaping public opinion is best described as
A) providing entertaining distractions.
B) telling people what to think about.
C) telling people what to think.
D) influencing elites.
Q3) Bar graphs are particularly useful in examining
A) upward trends.
B) data between categories.
C) downward trends.
D) data within a single category.
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Chapter 10: Interest Groups
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Q1) Which of the following was <b><u>not </b></u>a cause of the "advocacy explosion"?
A) Decreasing startup costs for new interest groups
B) Increased affluence and education since World War II
C) Response to the turmoil of the 1960s that exposed areas of great conflict
D) Increased influence of the news media
Q2) Which of the following is <b><u>not </b></u>an argument against the revolving door?
A) The revolving door personnel may negatively impact public confidence in the agency review process.
B) The revolving door might lead to the appearance of agency decisions being biased in favor of industry.
C) The revolving door might lead to congressional oversight of an agency being led by a former member of industry.
D) The revolving door provides broad representation of the issue at hand.
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12
Chapter 11: Media
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Q1) Why did Congress create the Equal Time Rule?
A) To provide the public with balanced programming during elections split between regular broadcasting and campaign ads
B) To provide the public with balanced information and news coverage of all candidates during elections
C) To provide the public with thorough election reporting
D) To provide the public with a forum for multiple viewpoints
Q2) Since the 1970s, the relationship between the media and politicians has generally become more
A) informal.
B) supportive.
C) adversarial.
D) distant.
Q3) Yellow journalism was newspaper reporting that focused on A) political debates.
B) entertainment gossip.
C) investigations and scandals.
D) government actions.
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Chapter 12: Political Parties
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Q1) Which statement about the spoils system is accurate?
A) It was developed for the purpose of rewarding supporters for loyalty, but it led to corruption.
B) It was developed for addressing the needs of those who lost elections, but it failed to meet its goals.
C) It was developed to appease voters who had supported the losing party, but instead it made them angry.
D) It was developed to offer incentives to political candidates, but it ended up providing incentives to their opponents.
Q2) Why was instant runoff voting (IRV) developed?
A) To provide fairness in local elections, such as those for school boards and city councils
B) To ensure that the winning candidate has the support of the majority of the voters in the district
C) To offer representation for single-issue preferences, as they relate to stringent ideological views
D) To distribute multiple seats fairly in a district to correspond to the proportion of the total votes cast
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14
Chapter 13: Participation
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Q1) Which statement regarding the percentage of today's high school students who are civically involved is accurate?
A) The percentage has declined.
B) The percentage has increased.
C) The percentage has remained the same.
D) The percentage has been impossible to assess.
Q2) What is seen as an advantage of a proportional representation electoral system?
A) It provides better representation for racial minorities and women.
B) It lessens politicians' dependence on the party.
C) It establishes a non-partisan government.
D) It creates more voting opportunities for the average citizen.
Q3) Which term is defined as "features of a social organization, such as networks, norms, and social trust, that promote coordination and cooperation for mutual benefit"?
A) Social capital
B) Social evidence
C) Social influence
D) Social distribution
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Chapter 14: Campaigns and Elections
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Q1) During the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries in the United States, the selection of a vice presidential running mate was made by the
A) presidential candidate.
B) political party.
C) primary voters.
D) presidential electors.
Q2) What famous misstep did Congressman Anthony Weiner make on Twitter?
A) He tweeted inappropriate photos of himself.
B) He live tweeted a secret trip to Afghanistan.
C) He tweeted campaign finance information.
D) He live tweeted details about an upcoming vote.
Q3) Which type of primary allows only registered party members to vote?
A) Open primary
B) Semi-open primary
C) Semi-closed primary
D) Closed primary
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Chapter 15: Domestic Policy
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Q1) Which of the following is <b><u>not</b></u> an accurate statement regarding the role of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)?
A) It is in charge of preparing the president's budget and then presenting it to Congress.
B) It evaluates the effectiveness of agency programs, policies, and procedures as related to the president's budget.
C) It supervises the administration of the president's budget by the executive branch agencies.
D) It ensures that agency reports, rules, testimony, and proposed legislation are consistent with the president's budget.
Q2) Between 2000 and 2010, national health care spending per person grew at an average rate of
A) 2.4% per year.
B) 5.6% per year.
C) 7.3% per year.
D) 9.1% per year.
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