Civics Final Exam - 1193 Verified Questions

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Civics Final Exam

Course Introduction

Civics is the study of the rights and responsibilities of citizens and the functioning of government and society. This course explores the foundations of political systems, the Constitution, the branches of government, and the processes that shape public policy at local, state, and national levels. Students will analyze the importance of civic engagement, the role of law, and the balance of individual freedoms with societal needs. Through discussions, case studies, and projects, the course encourages critical thinking about citizenship, democracy, public participation, and the impact of civic decisions on daily life.

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The Enduring Democracy 3rd Edition by

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Chapter 1: The More Things Changethe More They Stay the Same

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Q1) When considering public policy the president and other elected officials utilize several perspectives. The __________ perspective considers prior decision as a precedent for the current situation.

A) historical

B) global.

C) popular

D) common

E) anticipative

Answer: A

Q2) A form of government in which one person exercises supreme authority is a(n)

A) oligarchy.

B) theocracy.

C) authoritarian.

D) monarchy.

E) democracy.

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: The Founding and the Constitution

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Q1) Until the mid-1700s the 13 colonies often had diverse histories and economies, which provided

A) a strong national unity built upon diversity.

B) a unique political environment in which one state's weaknesses were supported by the strengths of another state.

C) an environment that was free of jealousies between states.

D) little incentive for them to join together to meet shared goals.

E) common ground upon which to build consensus.

Answer: D

Q2) Unlike our current constitution, the Articles of Confederation could be amended

A) only with the unanimous consent of the states.

B) by an affirmative vote of three-fourths of the state legislatures.

C) only after abolishing the original document and rewriting it.

D) at any time with assent of at least two state legislatures.

E) only upon the collapse of the government.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Federalism

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Q1) Why could the United Nations be considered a confederation?

A) It is a league of sovereign countries that work together to enforce various international laws.

B) The United Nations cannot be considered a confederation.

C) It is bound by a constitution to perform certain powers.

D) When nations join they become subordinate to the United Nations governing body.

E) Member nations are subordinate to the European community.

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a power held by the national legislature under the U.S. Constitution?

A) To lay and collect taxes

B) To raise and support armies and navies

C) To declare war

D) To coin money

E) To provide for the health, safety, and welfare of citizens

Answer: E

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Chapter 4: Civil Liberties

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Q1) Historically, what has been the effect on civil liberties in the United States during times of war?

A) The U.S. Constitution calls for martial law and suspends the Bill of Rights.

B) All civil protections are eliminated for any aliens or noncitizens.

C) Balancing civil liberties and national security has proven difficult, but normally citizens lose or surrender at least some of their rights in exchange for security.

D) There is no difference between times of war and peace regarding the granting of civil liberties.

E) The U.S. Constitution strictly regulates civil liberties, and there is never room for discretion by government officials-in times of peace or times of war.

Q2) Until the twentieth century, many Americans believed that the Bill of Rights in the U.S. Constitution was applicable only to the federal government and not to the states.

Describe how the Supreme Court used the Fourteenth Amendment to advance and apply the Bill of Rights more broadly and uniformly. What has been the impact of the Court's actions over the past 30 to 40 years with regard to civil liberties?

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Chapter 5: Civil Rights, Equality and Social Movements

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Q1) Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978) was a Supreme Court case that

A) created affirmative action quotas for all medical schools.

B) rejected the outright use of racial quotas in college admissions but allowed race to be used as one of several factors in admissions.

C) required that a quota for white students be used if there is also an existing quota for non-whites.

D) required racial quotas for all college admission procedures.

E) identified and prohibited the process of "reverse discrimination."

Q2) Which type of law, passed in southern states during Reconstruction, required a payment to the government before an individual could be allowed to vote? (These laws had the worst impact on poor citizens, of which African Americans were disproportionately represented.)

A) Literacy test

B) Poll tax

C) Property tax

D) Fine

E) Race tax

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Chapter 6: Congress

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Q1) Assume a scenario in which the House of Representatives has considered the president's spending bill and has authorized military funding of $8 billion. After consideration of the same legislation, the Senate recommends authorization of $12 billion for military expenditures. Describe the process that the two chambers of Congress will utilize to come to consensus on this spending issue.

Q2) Compared to most other countries that also have two chambers in the legislative body, one significant characteristic of the U.S. Congress is that

A) the U.S. Constitution grants powers to each branch that are just about equally divided. B) its members are better paid.

C) the U.S. Congress may remove the president from office.

D) it works at a rapid pace in enacting important legislation.

E) it has total control over the executive branch.

Q3) What is meant by congressional oversight? What oversight authority is given to the House? What oversight authority is given to the Senate? Identify and discuss some of the unique oversight powers of the Senate, especially in relation to the other two branches of government.

Q4) What is a filibuster? Why is it used? How does it work, and how does it end?

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Chapter 7: The Presidency

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Q1) Which president is NOT named on the C-SPAN or the Wall Street Journal poll as one of the "10 Greatest Presidents?"

A) Wilson

B) Polk

C) Pierce

D) Jefferson

E) Jackson

Q2) The United States Constitution allows for removal of the president by the process of

A) recall election.

B) impeachment.

C) congressional declaration.

D) criminal conviction only.

E) a vote of the state legislatures.

Q3) As head of state of the United States, the President has the power to A) negotiate and execute treaties.

B) appoint federal judges.

C) meet directly with foreign heads of state.

D) help set the lawmaking agenda for Congress.

E) grant reprieves and pardons.

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Chapter 8: The Federal Bureaucracy

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Q1) Discuss how the following events have affected the nature of the American bureaucracy: the Civil War, Civil Service reform, the New Deal, World War II, and the 9/11 terrorist attacks. Give specific examples.

Q2) The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is a primary unit of which agency?

A) Department of Homeland Security

B) Department of Defense

C) Department of Commerce

D) Congressional Budget Office

E) Federal Bureau of Investigation

Q3) The Department of Commerce

A) protects the federal judiciary, apprehends fugitives, and detains people in federal custody.

B) represents the United States abroad, conveying U. S. foreign policy to foreign governments and international organizations.

C) is responsible for paying all the bills of the federal government.

D) handles federal relations with Native American tribes.

E) manages patent and trademark protection programs.

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Chapter 9: The Judiciary

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Q1) A hotly debated political topic in recent decades has involved judicial restraint versus judicial activism. Describe these two judicial ideologies. What are the differences between them? How does each ideology impact the social and political environment?

Q2) The formal document, issued by the grand jury, which authorizes the government to proceed to trial against the defendant is called the

A) discovery.

B) indictment.

C) subpoena.

D) plea bargain.

E) arrest.

Q3) The standard of evidence in a criminal trial is the finding of guilt "beyond a reasonable doubt." What is the standard in a civil case?

A) The same, that is, "beyond a reasonable doubt"

B) "Preponderance of the evidence"

C) "Clear and convincing evidence"

D) "Probable cause"

E) "Reasonable suspicion"

Q4) Compare and contrast appellate and original jurisdiction.

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Chapter 10: Public Opinion

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Q1) Discuss three ways in which an individual is influenced in the development of his or her political orientation. What groups, factors, or institutions are important in this development?

Q2) The wording of polling questions can mean everything. Which of the following is a key recommendation in constructing good poll questions?

A) Avoid double negatives.

B) The questions should be leading so the interviewee can easily come to an answer.

C) Honesty must always be expected.

D) Double-barreled questions are a good way to get as many answers from one question as possible.

E) Questions can be as simple or as complicated as necessary.

Q3) For most Americans, liberty does NOT include

A) the right to choose a religion.

B) the right to publicly disagree with a party in power.

C) the right to libel private individuals.

D) the right to publicly disagree with the president.

E) the right to publish news stories without government retribution.

Q4) Public opinion exists at three basic levels. List and describe these levels.

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Chapter 11: Interest Groups

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Q1) What are some of the reasons that certain interest groups are more powerful than others? Name several of the most powerful interest groups in existence today. What factors may have led to their rise in American politics?

Q2) Groups that represent a large number of individuals, such as state associations of teachers, often allow those who do not join the association to reap the benefits of the group's efforts. These individuals are referred to as

A) scabs.

B) free riders.

C) picket busters.

D) leeches.

E) union busters.

Q3) The number of interest groups is large. How many Americans are estimated as belonging to at least one group?

A) Only about 1 percent, though the number of interest groups is large

B) Approximately 20 percent

C) Approximately 50 percent

D) Approximately 80 percent

E) Nearly 99 percent

Q4) What guarantees does the First Amendment provide to interest groups?

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Chapter 12: The Media and American Politics

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Q1) The most recently developed and widely used forms of Internet media for disseminating personal opinion and information have been

A) e-mail lists.

B) blogs.

C) listservs.

D) online newspapers.

E) mass mailings.

Q2) John Kennedy was clearly the favorite over Richard Nixon in the presidential debate that was broadcast in black and white. His look was sharp, tanned, and relaxed, and his suit contrasted with the background. When radio listeners were surveyed about the debate, what was the result?

A) They also gave the debate to Kennedy.

B) They could not contrast the visual presence of the two candidates and they felt that Nixon gave better answers.

C) They reported that they could not make a determination about the winner without having seen the candidates.

D) They preferred their medium to television.

E) They reported no difference between the two candidates or mediums.

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Chapter 13: Political Parties and Voting

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Q1) According to the American Political Science Association (APSA), which of the following is NOT a role of political parties?

A) Offering clear programs to voters

B) Developing policy positions and opinions

C) Encouraging voter registration

D) Working toward achieving the programs and policies they recommend when they are successful in elections

E) Aggressively seeking to damage the opposite party's credibility

Q2) The person regarded as the father of the national party system is

A) Andrew Johnson.

B) Alexander Hamilton.

C) Martin Van Buren.

D) Andrew Jackson.

E) Thomas Jefferson.

Q3) What are the historical roles and functions of political parties in America? Do parties play a worthwhile role in the modern American political system?

Q4) Discuss some reasons for low voter turnout in America. How do we compare on the global scale to o voter turnout of other countries?

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Chapter 14: Campaigns and Elections

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Q1) How have campaign finance laws evolved? Citing specific examples, describe the ways in which current laws influence campaign finance.

Q2) Jimmy Carter won the Democratic Party nomination for president in 1976 and went on to win the presidency. Carter was considered a low-key outsider who was not the first pick of the party power elites. How did Carter win the Democratic primary election?

A) He swayed the party leaders to back his candidacy.

B) Many consider the 1976 election as a "stolen election."

C) Carter won enough primary votes in the southern states that he did not need states from other areas of the country.

D) Carter was the only major candidate running for president in 1976.

E) He was the first to appeal directly to the primary voters and gain their support.

Q3) Through much of U.S. history, citizens of the District of Columbia were not allowed to vote in presidential elections. When and how did this change? Is the District of Columbia included in the electoral college?

Q4) Identify and describe the five determinants of vote choice. Which do you feel is the most powerful for American voters and why?

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Chapter 15: American Domestic Policy

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Q1) What are guaranteed government benefits that certain citizens depend upon for subsistence?

A) Tax cuts

B) Income tax refunds

C) Entitlements

D) Food stamps

E) Corporate welfare

Q2) Compare and contrast the crime control model and the due process model of the criminal justice system. Apply criticisms of the criminal justice system to evaluate the effectiveness of each model.

Q3) The primary argument of supply-side economic theory is

A) that too much demand for services will cause the supplier side to crash.

B) that there must be a supply of goods before there is a demand.

C) that high taxes take money out of the economy that would otherwise be invested in goods and services.

D) that high taxes give government the funds it needs to stimulate the economy.

E) that the capitalist system is self-destructive.

Q4) Describe the impact of entitlements on the budgetary process.

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Chapter 16: American Foreign Policy

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Q1) What is a foreign policy that is virtually the opposite of isolationism, one that advocates economic and military actions to secure boundaries and interests worldwide?

A) Expansionism

B) Internationalism

C) Manifest destiny

D) Secularism

E) Militarism

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a program of the U.S. Department of State?

A) Foreign aid to developing nations

B) Oversight of homeland security

C) Contributor and policy participant to the World Bank

D) Diplomatic missions to other countries

E) Oversight of all foreign embassies

Q3) What are the underlying interests/benefits associated with U.S. foreign aid distributions? Analyze the arguments in favor of and opposed to American foreign aid. What is the trickle-down theory and is it still relevant?

Q4) Describe the policy and philosophy behind the Monroe Doctrine, and explain how it fundamentally opposed the concept of isolationism.

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