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This course explores the principles and practices of civic engagement within the context of U.S. democracy, examining the roles citizens play in shaping government and society. Students will investigate the historical foundations of American democracy, the evolution of civic responsibilities, and the impact of public participation on policy and governance. Through analysis of case studies, community-based projects, and contemporary issues, the course emphasizes the significance of informed and active citizenship in sustaining democratic values and institutions. Participants will also discuss mechanisms for advocacy, the influence of social movements, and strategies for fostering inclusive participation among diverse communities.
Recommended Textbook
The Struggle for Democracy 9th Edition by Edward S. Greenberg
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Q1) Which of these is NOT a reason given why democracy might be superior to other forms of political organizations?
A) It is the most popular form of government throughout the world.
B) It is the form of government that best protects human rights.
C) It is the form of government most likely to reach rational decisions due to pooled knowledge and expertise.
D) Democracies are more stable and long-lasting.
E) It is the form of government most conducive to economic growth and material well-being.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a governmental actor or factor?
A) the Supreme Court
B) a political party
C) the position of the United States in world affairs
D) public opinion
E) political action committees
Answer: A
Q3) The Greek roots of the term democracy mean ________.
Answer: rule by the people
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Q1) Separation of powers in the Constitution refers to
A) federalism between states and the national government.
B) distinct spheres of responsibility for the three branches of the national government.
C) procedures for each branch of the national government to limit the power of the other branches.
D) civilian control of the national military.
E) influence of one branch of government over another.
Answer: B
Q2) The Federalists were not in favor of a bill of rights, but
A) the Anti-Federalists forced members of the Constitutional convention to include the ten famous amendments in the original Constitution.
B) the Southern states demanded one.
C) agreed to add one soon after ratification.
D) the Anti-Federalists were even more opposed to one.
E) none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) In a ________, each state retains most of its powers and independence.
Answer: confederation
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Q1) France has a federalist system of government.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) In order to receive federal monies, the national government requires the states to impose a 55 mile-per-hour speed limit or set a minimum drinking age of 21. These requirements are called
A) conditions on aid.
B) enumerated powers.
C) delegated powers.
D) reserved powers.
E) unfunded mandates.
Answer: A
Q3) General revenue sharing provided money for innovative new state programs, but was costly to implement due to its numerous rules and regulations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The 1870s were a time when immigration to the United States was dominated by individuals arriving from China.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is NOT an example of the disagreements the United States has had with its allies since becoming the world's sole superpower?
A) Relations have been strained with China over whether or not China will put pressure on other nations, such as North Korea, concerning nuclear proliferation.
B) Disagreements about nuclear proliferation have strained the United States' relations with Russia.
C) The United States could not agree with the Europeans about how to approach the ethnic conflicts in Bosnia and Kosovo.
D) Relations with France and Germany have become strained over the war with Iraq.
E) The United States has not been able to solve the Palestinian conflict with the Israelis.
Q3) How has the U.S. been situated as a world power since the end of the Cold War?
Q4) What impact did industrialization have on population shifts in American society?
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Q1) The sense of belonging to a political party is called ________.
Q2) 155) Public opinion consists of the core political beliefs and political attitudes expressed by ordinary citizens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Among the various religious groups, which one has been the most consistently associated with the Democratic Party?
A) American Jews
B) Catholics
C) fundamentalist Protestants
D) Episcopalians
E) Southern Baptists
Q4) Why are the labels liberal and conservative somewhat confusing in the United States?
Q5) Most Americans would prefer that the national government spend less on foreign aid.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ is the single best predictor of political participation.
Q7) Which region in the United States is most distinctive?
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Q1) Television networks
A) work hard to bring in innovative and original "experts."
B) interview "experts" who tend to represent the current opposition party.
C) rarely allow reporters to communicate explicit interpretations of events.
D) do not even pretend to be objective in reporting political news.
E) are not well suited to provide dramatic coverage of events.
Q2) The federal government has greater regulatory authority over
A) national newspapers.
B) local newspapers.
C) news magazines.
D) electronic media.
E) the internet.
Q3) According to the text, why are mainstream media still central to American politics
A) The internet only reaches small and fragmented audiences.
B) Internet news tends to only have an impact when mainstream media cover these stories.
C) Much internet-based news is compiled from mainstream wire services.
D) Politicians still look to mainstream media for a sense of public interest.
E) all of the above are true
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Q1) Most advocacy associations are organizations
A)without active membership involvement and are run by lobbying and public education professionals.
B) that are run by grassroots members along with a few significant contributors.
C) that have a significantly active membership involvement along with a small paid staff to lobby Washington.
D) that are large lobbying firms with their headquarters outside of Washington, D.C.
E) that started as grassroots organizations but adopted more sophisticated tactics as the process became more expensive.
Q2) The "inside game" of interest group activity involves
A)one-on-one persuasion.
B) bribing members of Congress.
C) educating the public about the goals of the interest group.
D) publishing the voting records of members of Congress.
E) raising funds for candidates who have little or no influence.
Q3) What is the difference between the inside game and the outside game in interest group politics?
Q4) The American Medical Association is an example of a(n) ________ interest group.
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Q1) Political efficacy is important to social movements in the sense that
A) people from the outside looking in will think that their actions will make a difference.
B) social movements have often required public support.
C) resources are important to the success of social movements.
D) new majorities may develop out of social movements.
E) none of the above
Q2) Theodore Lowi argued that
A) perceived stress is central to the formation of social movements.
B) our political system is designed to maintain the existing state of affairs.
C) new majorities rarely form with social movements.
D) the Republican party typically is at the center of social movements and their progression.
E) a capitalist economy insulates Americans from social change.
Q3) Social movements are generally the political instruments of A) the minority political party.
B) political insiders.
C) the upper middle class.
D) excluded groups and political outsiders.
E) the young.
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Q1) The purpose of the national committees of both major parties is to
A) determine the ideology or political positions of the party for the next national convention.
B) conduct the business of the party during the four years between national conventions. C) keep local parties and candidates in line with the national party during presidential election years.
D) recommend potential party candidates for Congress and the presidency.
E) pick selection criteria for the party's nomination process.
Q2) Discuss the importance of party organizations in American politics. Are they important? Why or why not? If you could, how would you improve the party organization to improve their relevance to the American political system?
Q3) Gridlock is most likely
A) under conditions of unified government.
B) during periods of realignment.
C) during periods of divided government.
D) when Republicans control the White House.
E) at the state than federal level of government.
Q4) What does the term "realignment" mean?
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Q1) Women's suffrage was brought about by
A) legislation.
B) litigation.
C) constitutional amendment.
D) executive action.
E) state action.
Q2) What is the relationship between presidential nomination politics and democracy?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT usually a characteristic of U.S. presidential campaigns?
A) Candidates tend to be vague and ambiguous.
B) Candidates emphasize symbolic matters that appeal to most people.
C) Candidates take clear-cut positions on specific issues.
D) Candidates try to avoid issues that would offend voters.
E) none of the above
Q4) The clearest predictor of who will vote is
A) level of education.
B) party membership.
C) ideology.
D) gender.
E) race.
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Q1) We call congressional races in which no incumbent is involved
A) closed seat races.
B) open seat races.
C) non-competitive races.
D) partisan races.
E) non-partisan races.
Q2) The Supreme Court ruled in 1964 in Wesberry v. Sanders that
A) state legislatures were free to set congressional districts to any size.
B) Congress was free to set congressional districts to any size.
C) Congress was required to make congressional districts approximately the same size.
D) state legislatures were required to make congressional districts approximately the same size.
E) a bipartisan commission was to establish congressional districts after each census.
Q3) The lawmaker who introduces a bill (or resolution) is its ________.
Q4) A standing committee is a temporary, ad hoc committee.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is reciprocity?
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Q1) George Washington
A) did not meddle in domestic affairs, leaving them to Congress.
B) allowed Congress to dominate foreign policy.
C) had little of the prestige in his time that we attach to him today.
D) solidified the prestige of the presidency at a time when executive leadership was mistrusted and affirmed the primacy of the president in foreign affairs.
E) did not cut down the cherry tree.
Q2) About how many civilians are employed by the federal government?
A) 200,000
B) 600,000
C) 1 million
D) approximately 2.4 million
E) approximately 3.8 million
Q3) When George W. Bush first ran for president, on which issues did he focus?
A) the war in Iraq
B) domestic issues
C) homeland security
D) constraining the "axis of evil"
Q4) Discuss the dormant presidency.
Q5) Discuss the relationship between the president and the bureaucracy.
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Q1) An administrative unit headed by a cabinet-level secretary and meant to carry out an essential government function is a (an)
A) department.
B) bureau.
C) agency.
D) government corporation.
E) foundation.
Q2) The executive branch bureaucracy in the United States is an organizational hodgepodge, mostly because
A) the Constitution designed it that way.
B) of the many court decisions altering its organization.
C) it was built piece by piece.
D) of congressional oversight
E) all of the above
Q3) Subdivisions in a cabinet department are known as bureaus or ________.
Q4) The ________, or Civil Service Act of 1883, created a bipartisan Civil Service Commission to oversee a system of appointments to certain executive branch posts on the basis of merit.
Q5) Bureaucrats make rules and adjudicate disputes. Explain.
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Q1) The Constitution does not explicitly mention
A) the Supreme Court.
B) judicial review.
C) habeas corpus.
D) the terms of Supreme Court justices.
E) presidential appointment of judges.
Q2) There are 94 of these federal courts and they only exercise original jurisdiction. They are
A) District Courts.
B) U.S. Courts of Appeals.
C) U.S. Tax Courts.
D) National Small Claims Courts.
E) all of the above
Q3) Cases cannot originate in these courts but must come from other courts to them. Because they exist only to hear appeals, we refer to them as ________ courts.
Q4) Standing means that the Court will not provide advisory opinions to guide the other branches.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Most of our civil rights and liberties
A) have been protected by the Constitution since the founding.
B) were established early on by the Marshall Court.
C) were established and guaranteed soon after the Civil War.
D) have evolved over time through the political process.
E) have always applied to Congress and state governments, alike.
Q2) ________ requires that government not favor one religion over another by granting it special favors, privileges, or status.
A) Freedom of conscience
B) Freedom of choice
C) Freedom of religion
D) Freedom of conviction
E) Freedom of speech
Q3) When a law falls under "strict scrutiny" by the courts, it means the law is presumed to be constitutional, and the authors of the enactment bear the burden of convincing the courts otherwise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does the USA Patriot Act affect Americans' civil liberties?
Q5) The major liberty stated in the original Constitution was ________.
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Q1) Advocates for rights of the disabled were worried after the Supreme Court ruled that state employees cannot sue states for damages arising from violations of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 because
A) the rights guaranteed under the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 would expand to all citizens.
B) other sections of the Disabilities Act may be destined to fail.
C) states would adhere to all sections of the Disabilities Act.
D) additional sections added to the Disabilities Act would only be obeyed by certain states.
E) the Disabilities Act would be enforceable by law.
Q2) The Bill of Rights said nothing about political equality.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In 2003, the Supreme Court
A) upheld and allowed using race as a factor in college admissions.
B) struck down and has forbidden using race as a factor in college admissions.
C) upheld an admissions system that awarded points for race.
D) overturned the Bakke decision.
E) ruled on California's Proposition 209.
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Q1) Effectiveness is
A) an assessment of how well resources are used to meet program objectives.
B) an assessment of whether objectives have been met.
C) an evaluation of the nuts and bolts of public policy.
D) the decisions policymakers make about policy.
E) putting a law into effect.
Q2) According to the authors of your text, what are the stages of the policy process?
Q3) A depression is a long-lasting and severe recession.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Federal Reserve Board determines the discount rate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The sum of total yearly federal budget deficits is called the ________.
Q6) Agenda setting is the process by which a problem or concern comes to the attention of government.
A)True
B)False
Q7) ________ policy has to do with taxing and spending policies of government.
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Q1) What are private saving accounts? What are some of the costs and benefits of such a program?
Q2) In the United States, Medicare provides health insurance coverage for the elderly, while ________ provides coverage for the poor.
A) Social Security
B) the American Medical Association
C) Medicaid
D) charity
E) TANF
Q3) Most benefits of the American welfare state go directly to the A) nonpoor.
B) wealthiest 10 percent.
C) poor.
D) largest corporations.
E) middle class.
Q4) Social Security is funded by federal income taxes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Do social insurance programs work? Provide some specific examples to support your answer.
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Q1) The United States' role in the global economy is being challenged by A) the decline in the value of the dollar.
B) huge budget deficits.
C) a rising national debt.
D) large imbalances in trade.
E) All of the above
Q2) The United States has the second largest Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the world.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The bulk of American foreign aid is devoted to disaster relief.
A)True
B)False
Q4) "Boots on the ground" refers to asymmetric warfare.
A)True
B)False
Q5) President George W. Bush's 2002 State of the Union address signaled an American withdrawal from world affairs.
A)True
B)False
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