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Child Psychology explores the cognitive, emotional, social, and physical development of children from infancy through adolescence. This course examines key theories and research findings related to child behavior, personality formation, language acquisition, moral growth, and the effects of family, peers, and culture. Students will gain insights into how children learn, adapt, and navigate their environments, while also analyzing the impact of both typical and atypical development. Through lectures, case studies, and interactive activities, participants will develop a comprehensive understanding of the fundamental principles underlying psychological growth in children, preparing them for further study or careers involving children and families.
Recommended Textbook
Lifespan Development Lives in Context 1st Edition by Tara L. Kuther
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Q1) Each time Isabella sits down to feed her baby a bottle, she gently strokes the baby's head. One day, Isabella began stroking her daughter's head and noticed that the baby started sucking, even though it wasn't feeding time. The baby's association between having her head stroked and the presentation of food is an example of _______.
A) operant conditioning
B) classical conditioning
C) reinforcement
D) social learning
Answer: B
Q2) When conducting experimental research, the _____ group is treated in every way like the experimental group but does not receive the independent variable in order to compare the effect of the manipulation.
A) control
B) treatment
C) dependent
D) cohort
Answer: A
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Q1) Cite four syndromes/diseases that are acquired through X-linked inheritance. Are males or females at greater risk for these disorders?
Answer: Four syndromes or diseases that are acquired through X-linked inheritance include: color blindness, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, fragile X syndrome, and hemophilia. Males are at significantly greater risk for all of these disorders.
Q2) Researchers have estimated that ______ to ______ genes reside within the chromosomes and influence all genetic characteristics.
A) 10,000; 15,000
B) 20,000; 25,000
C) 50,000; 70,000
D) 100,000; 200,000
Answer: B
Q3) The majority of sex chromosome abnormalities are fatal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) In a typical day, newborn Jerico will move in and out of ____ states or levels of arousal.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
Answer: B
Q2) The _____ is the largest cell in the human body.
A) zygote
B) ovum
C) sperm
D) embryo
Answer: B
Q3) Cell differentiation occurs roughly ____ hours after fertilization.
A) 6
B) 12
C) 24
D) 72
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the choice of clothing and motor development?
A) Babies who wear diapers have an easier time learning to walk than those who do not.
B) In the nineteenth century, 40% of American infants skipped crawling because the long, flowing gowns they wore impeded the movement on hands and knees.
C) Babies who wear clothes that cover their knees are more likely to crawl than those who do not.
D) Babies from cold climates who wear more layers of clothing have more delayed motor development than babies from warm climates who wear less clothing.
Q2) Voluntary reaching appears at about 6 months of age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An infant or a toddler can grow up to one quarter of an inch overnight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the system called that is responsible for a newborn's innate ability to mimic facial expressions?
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Q1) What is the name of the experimental task in which an infant interacts with an adult who first engages in normal social interaction and then suddenly becomes unresponsive?
A) The still-face interaction paradigm
B) Violation-of-expectation task
C) Visual cliff
D) A-not-B error
Q2) Danny had a head injury that resulted in his inability to speak fluently. He would mix up words in a sentence, so instead of saying "Mommy pick me up" he would say "up pick Mommy me." What area of Danny's brain was damaged?
A) The prefrontal cortex.
B) Wernicke's area.
C) The temporal lobe.
D) Broca's area.
Q3) What research technique is used by most core knowledge researchers?
A) Visual preferences
B) Conservation tasks
C) Bayley Scales of Infant Development
D) Naturalistic observation
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Q4) Why do researchers believe that infants are primed to learn language from birth?

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Q1) Which of the following is not a factor that can influence or change a young infants' temperament?
A) Sensitive caregiving
B) Experience
C) Interaction with peers
D) Neural development
Q2) Why is the formation of an attachment bond crucial for infants' development?
Q3) What concept is defined as a characteristic, predictable style that is influenced by inborn tendencies toward arousal and stimulation, and experiences with adults and contexts?
A) Personality
B) Social referencing
C) Temperament
D) Determination
Q4) The majority of babies are described as having an easy temperament.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Emotion regulation is related to children's increasing ability to use language. A)True
B)False
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Q1) _____ is the inability to take another person's point of view.
A) Animism
B) Centration
C) Irreversibility
D) Egocentrism
Q2) Marla stops outside her 5-year-old son's room where he is playing alone with Legos. She hears him saying, "The green one goes here. I need a blue one to go here. My tower is finished!" Marla's son is demonstrating:
A) private speech.
B) telegraphic speech.
C) signs of a psychological disturbance.
D) overregularization.
Q3) Which of the following children is at highest risk for living in poverty?
A) Marcus, who is 9
B) Gabriella, who is 7
C) Vi, who is 3
D) Jeff, who is 11
Q4) By age 2, most children can recall information for a year or longer.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The methods a parent uses to teach and socialize children toward acceptable behavior is called:
A) guided direction.
B) social referencing.
C) discipline.
D) pragmatics.
Q2) The ability of infants as young as 3 to 4 months of age to distinguish between male and female faces as shown by habituation and preferential looking studies reflects which explanation of gender role development?
A) Cognitive-developmental explanation
B) Contextual explanation
C) Biological explanation
D) Psychoanalytic explanation
Q3) Which parenting style results in a parent most likely responding to a child's question of "why" with the answer "because I say so"?
A) Uninvolved parenting style
B) Authoritarian parenting style
C) Authoritative parenting style
D) Permissive parenting style
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Q1) Considering cultural differences in concrete operational reasoning, when are children more likely to display logical reasoning?
A) They are more likely to display logical reasoning when experiencing a model who displays logical reasoning.
B) They are more likely to display logical reasoning when considering substances with which they are familiar.
C) They are more likely to display logical reasoning when the experimenter is white.
D) They are more likely to display logical reasoning when working on a task with another person.
Q2) What does the increase in body size and strength contribute to in a child's motor development, and what examples illustrate the advances in motor development in middle childhood?
Q3) IQ test have been shown to have high validity in predicting school achievement, how long a child will stay in school, and career attainment in adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inadequate growth in childhood is called:
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Q1) Children who experience anxiety about attending school end up staying home because:
A) their parents let them in order to reduce their anxiety.
B) they display physical complaints such as dizziness, nausea, and stomachaches.
C) their clinicians think that it is better for them to be homeschooled.
D) they misbehave at school in order to get sent home.
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately describe the outcomes children of divorce experience?
A) Divorce is detrimental to both boys and girls to such a degree that more children who graduate from high school are from intact families.
B) Boys and girls equally experience negative outcomes of divorce.
C) Divorce results in some internalizing and externalizing problems, but the effects are small.
D) Girls are more likely to engage in delinquent behavior following their parents' divorce.
Q3) There is a high victimization rate in classrooms of teachers who attribute bullying to external factors outside of their control.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Adolescents' moral development influences behaviors they label as:
A) moral decisions.
B) social conventions.
C) personal issues.
D) unchangeable issues.
Q2) Parent-school involvement in middle school has been shown to:
A) predict anxiety in high school.
B) predict 10th-grade extracurricular involvement.
C) predict adolescent social competence in high school.
D) predict 10th-grade students' grade point average.
Q3) Andrew knows that he needs to read his history text to learn the material, but he has to see the biology diagrams to understand the material. He uses acronyms to remember information in biology but makes up stories about the material in history. How does Andrew know this is how he learns best?
A) Andrew is capable of hypothetical-deductive reasoning.
B) Andrew is taught to study in this manner by his teachers.
C) Andrew has developed the ability for metacognition.
D) Andrew has seen his brother study in this manner so he is modeling his behavior.
Q4) Why are adolescents more susceptible to risk-taking behavior?
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Q1) Perceived popular adolescents are judged by their peers as less attractive than other peers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Adolescents tend to turn to _____ when making decisions with long-term future consequences, such as those relating to education.
A) parents
B) siblings
C) teachers
D) peers
Q3) The _____ is characterized by traits that adolescents value.
A) egocentric
B) actual
C) ideal self
D) abstract
Q4) The most frequent forms of online bullying involve:
A) creating fake profiles on Facebook.
B) harassing friends and family of the victim.
C) name-calling and gossip.
D) threatening violence and death.

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Q1) Student attrition is higher in colleges with open enrollment and less selective admission requirements.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ben's grandfather died at the age of 85. Ben's father died at the age of 84. Based on the programmed genetics theory of aging, what can Ben predict about his aging future?
A) Ben will live longer than his father and grandfather because of evolutionary changes.
B) Ben will not live as long as his grandfather or father because his father didn't live longer than his grandfather.
C) Ben will probably live to be somewhere around 84 or 85.
D) Ben cannot predict when he will age because genetics are altered due to the environment, leading to unpredictability.
Q3) What type of muscle strength involves the subtle contractions used to hold a hand grip, push off against a wall, stretch, or practice yoga?
Q4) What are the benefits of exercise on longevity?
Q5) The most mature type of reasoning is called:
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Q1) David is interested in looking for an opposite-sex mate. His friends have found several women he might like. Based on the data on mate selection, who is David most likely to choose?
A) Lily, an older woman who is looking for a relationship but does not want children.
B) Desiree, a lawyer who is dedicated to her career but interested in David.
C) Amanda, a physically attractive woman who loves to cook.
D) Tanya, an intelligent woman who is majoring in biochemistry in college.
Q2) Why do some researchers believe that emerging adulthood is not a life stage?
A) Because it does not exist everywhere and for everyone-only those in medium to high socioeconomic status groups.
B) Because emerging adulthood does not start at the same point for everyone.
C) Because it is only a phenomenon that occurs for individuals who go to college.
D) Because only individuals who are financially independent experience emerging adulthood.
Q3) Men and women report experiencing similar rates of physical assault during arguments.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the difference between early-onset breast cancers and late-onset breast cancers?
Q2) Aaron is an adult who is described as being highly distractible. If we help him to reduce his distractions, what can we expect about his ability to process information?
A) Aaron will show a decline in processing speed because of the effort he will need to focus on relevant information.
B) Aaron will show an increase in the ability to process information.
C) Aaron will reach a peak of processing speed at about age 40 and then it will decline dramatically.
D) Aaron will only be able to reduce the distractions in certain areas of his life, so the effect of teaching distraction reduction will be temporary.
Q3) Which type of strength is retained as individuals age?
Q4) Experts operate on hunches, intuitive judgments of how to approach a problem based on experience.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What type of intelligence involves the accumulation of facts and information?
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Q1) Same-sex partnerships show the same health benefits that married people do.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following Big 5 personality traits does not decrease in middle adulthood?
A) Neuroticism
B) Extroversion
C) Conscientiousness
D) Openness
Q3) Which Big 5 personality trait is not associated with higher levels of well-being?
A) High in openness.
B) High in extroversion.
C) Low in neuroticism.
D) High in agreeableness.
Q4) Most U.S. adults become grandparents in their:
A) Late 40s and early 50s
B) Late 50s and early 60s
C) Late 60s and early 70s
D) Late 70s and early 80s
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Q1) What is the most common cause of subcortical dementia?
Q2) How would an individual prevent the onset of macular degeneration?
A) Adults can do eye exercises that help the muscles in the eye to stay active and prevent macular degeneration.
B) Adults can wear corrective contact lenses that will prevent the occurrence of macular degeneration.
C) Adults can go for a yearly eye exam to catch any signs of macular degeneration early.
D) Adults should eat a healthy diet including green leafy vegetables high in vitamins A, C, and E, as well as carotenoids.
Q3) How are cataracts treated?
A) Cataracts are treated through the use of medicated eye drops.
B) Cataracts are treated through a surgical procedure in which the lens is replaced with an artificial lens.
C) Cataracts are treated through laser technology.
D) Cataracts cannot be treated and are a common cause of blindness in old age.
Q4) How is exercise good for the mind?
Q5) How is sensory capacity related to difficulty with working memory in older adults?
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Q1) Most older adults live in or near the home they have lived in most of their lives.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the theory that posits declines in social interaction are not a result of elders' desires, but are instead a function of social barriers to engagement?
Q3) If a dying person feels guilt over the illness and its consequences for his or her loved ones, he or she is in the _____ stage of death.
A) bargaining.
B) acceptance.
C) depression.
D) anger.
Q4) Katrina has given her son the legal right to make health care decisions on her behalf in the event that she is unable to do so. What advance directive did she prepare?
A) Living will
B) Do not resuscitate (DNR) order
C) Durable power of attorney
D) Estate will
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