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Child Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive health care needs of children from infancy through adolescence. This course covers principles and practices related to the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of health in children within the family and community context. Students will explore common pediatric health conditions, growth and development milestones, immunizations, nutritional needs, and the roles of prevention and early intervention. Emphasis is placed on assessment skills, effective communication with children and their families, and the application of evidence-based nursing interventions to support the physical, emotional, and psychosocial well-being of young patients.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal and Child Nursing Care 5th Edition by Marcia L London
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57 Chapters
1275 Verified Questions
1275 Flashcards
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Q1) The nurse is establishing criteria for a medical or healthcare home for children. What should the nurse include when planning this approach to care? Select all that apply.
A) Providers partner with the family.
B) Children are known by the provider.
C) Home visits are made when necessary.
D) Specialty care can be accessed if necessary.
E) Communication with family occurs routinely.
Answer: A,B,D,E
Q2) The nurse is assisting with the design of a study to analyze changes in maternal mortality. What should the nurse keep in mind when planning the design? Select all that apply.
A) The marital status of maternity clients
B) The use of hospitals by maternity clients
C) The prevention of infection with antibiotics
D) The availability of blood products for transfusions
E) The establishment of care centers for high-risk mothers
Answer: B,C,D,E
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing a client's use of complementary and alternative therapies. Which situations should the nurse identify as being risky for the client? Select all that apply.
A) Trying out a homeopathic medicine obtained from a friend to reduce swelling in the legs
B) Joining a group that practices tai chi weekly to help with physical fitness and movement
C) Taking an herbal preparation suggested by a health food store worker for treatment of leg pain
D) Getting a massage from a licensed massage therapist for back pain, when such treatment has been prescribed by the primary healthcare provider
E) Getting a chiropractic treatment for lower back pain due to discomforts of pregnancy without telling the primary healthcare provider
Answer: A,C,E
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks why a genetic pedigree is being prepared. What responses would be appropriate? Select all that apply.
A) Illustrates patterns of inheritance
B) Reduces the cost for genetic diagnostic testing
C) Provides guidance for reproductive risk teaching
D) Identifies appropriate diagnostic tests for the patient
E) Identifies family members who would benefit from genetic counseling
Answer: A,C,E
Q2) A genetic screening test completed on a newborn is found to be positive. What should the nurse anticipate the next action will be for this infant?
A) Scheduling for diagnostic testing
B) Discussing the need for major intervention
C) Nothing, since further action is not necessary
D) Instructing the parents on expression of the genetic disorder
Answer: A
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Q1) The nurse is presenting a community education session on female hormones. Which participant statement indicates the need for further information?
A) "Estrogen is what causes females to look female."
B) "Prostaglandin is responsible for achieving conception."
C) "Progesterone is present at the end of the menstrual cycle."
D) "The presence of some hormones causes others to be secreted."
Q2) A woman has been unable to complete a full-term pregnancy because the fertilized ovum failed to implant in the uterus. Which hormone is most likely causing this client's issues with pregnancy?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) LH (luteinizing hormone)
D) FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
Q3) Which statement best indicates that the client understands the differences in the follicular and luteal phases of the ovarian cycle?
A) "My period will be every 28 days."
B) "The follicular phase is when the egg is fertilized."
C) "The follicular phase is the second half of my cycle."
D) "The first part of my period might vary in length, but not the second."
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Q1) Which client is not a good candidate for Depo-Provera (DMPA)?
A) One with a vaginal prolapse
B) One who weighs 200 pounds
C) One who wishes to breastfeed
D) One who wishes to get pregnant within 3 months
Q2) The emergency room nurse is caring for a victim of sexual assault. What pharmacologic intervention should the nurse prepare to discuss with the victim? Select all that apply.
A) Prophylactic analgesics
B) Postcoital contraceptive therapy
C) Prophylactic immunizations for tetanus
D) Postexposure prophylaxis with HIV antiviral medications
E) Prophylactic treatment for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
Q3) When a woman who has been raped is admitted to the emergency department, which nursing intervention has priority?
A) Contact family members.
B) Create a safe, secure atmosphere for the woman.
C) Assure the woman that everything will be all right.
D) Explain exactly what will need to be done to preserve legal evidence.
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Q1) Which statement indicates that client teaching about vaginal infections has been effective?
A) "The fishy vaginal odor I have is caused by a bacterial infection."
B) "I can use this antiyeast medication weekly to prevent another infection."
C) "My diabetes is unrelated to the frequency of my vaginal yeast infections."
D) "I should douche weekly to prevent a recurrence of my bacterial vaginosis."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with endometriosis. Which statement by the client requires immediate follow-up?
A) "I've noticed my voice is lower since I started taking danazol."
B) "I am having many hot flashes since I had the Lupron injection."
C) "The pain I experience with intercourse is becoming more severe."
D) "My leg has become painful and swollen since I started taking birth control pills."
Q3) Which client should be treated with ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IM and doxycycline (Vibramycin) by mouth?
A) A pregnant client with syphilis
B) A nonpregnant client with gonorrhea and chlamydial infection
C) A pregnant client with gonorrhea and a yeast infection
D) A nonpregnant client with chlamydial infection and trichomoniasis
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Q1) The nurse is conducting an early pregnancy class for a group of pregnant women. Which statement indicates a need for further education about the placenta?
A) "It develops and grows larger until about 20 weeks' gestation."
B) "It floats in the amniotic sac and filters waste products from the fetus."
C) "It creates hormones and enzymes that are necessary during pregnancy."
D) "It ages and becomes less permeable during the last month of pregnancy."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the structures of the developing fetus with a group of pregnant clients. What should the nurse emphasize about the function of the placenta? Select all that apply.
A) It produces hormones.
B) It produces glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty acids.
C) It maintains fetal respiration, nutrition, and excretion.
D) It provides a circulatory pathway from the chorionic villi to the embryo.
E) It contains a specialized mucoid connective tissue known as Wharton jelly.
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Q1) A patient who is experiencing her first pregnancy has just completed the initial prenatal examination with a certified nurse-midwife. Which statement indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of her condition?
A) "The increased size of my uterus means that I am finally pregnant."
B) "Because we heard the baby's heartbeat, I am undoubtedly pregnant."
C) "Since I haven't felt the baby move yet, we don't know if I'm pregnant."
D) "My last period was 2 months ago, which means I'm 2 months along."
Q2) A client at 30 weeks' gestation is tearful at the time of her follow-up visit. She tells the prenatal clinic nurse that she is excited to finally become a mother and that she has been thinking about what kind of parent she will be. However, she is upset because her mother has told her that she does not want to be a grandmother because she does not feel old enough. Meanwhile, the client's husband has said that the pregnancy does not feel real to him yet, and that he will become excited when the baby is actually here. What is the most likely explanation for what is happening within this family?
A) Family members are adjusting to the role change at their own pace.
B) Her mother is rejecting the role of grandparent and will not help out.
C) Her husband will not attach with this child and will not be a good father.
D) The client is not progressing through the developmental tasks of pregnancy.
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Q1) During a prenatal visit the nurse notes that a client entering the third trimester has gained a total of 8 lb. What action should the nurse take at this time? Select all that apply.
A) Assess for nausea.
B) Refer to a dietitian.
C) Suggest amniocentesis.
D) Assess nutritional intake.
E) Discuss importance of adequate weight gain.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a 25-year-old primigravida who is 20 weeks pregnant. Which vital signs finding should the nurse report immediately to the physician?
A) Pulse 88/min
B) Respirations 30/min
C) Blood pressure 134/82
D) Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F)
Q3) Which client should the nurse identify as being a multipara?
A) A client at 28 weeks' gestation with no previous pregnancies
B) A client at 32 weeks' gestation who previously delivered one term infant
C) A client at 13 weeks' gestation who previously delivered two term infants
D) A client at 34 weeks' gestation who previously had one spontaneous abortion
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Q1) The nurse is assisting an expectant couple in developing a birth plan. Which instructions should the nurse include when teaching about this plan?
A) It is a communication tool between the client and the healthcare provider.
B) It is a legally binding contract between the client and the healthcare provider.
C) It allows the client to make choices about the birth process; however, these choices cannot be altered.
D) It includes only client choices and does not take into account standard choices of the healthcare provider.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to perform an initial prenatal assessment of a pregnant client who recently immigrated to the United States. Which cultural aspects should the nurse include during the assessment of this client? Select all that apply.
A) Birth rituals
B) Nutritional practices
C) Use of home remedies
D) Expectations to return to work
E) Beliefs about exercise and activity
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Q1) Being aware that several pregnant students have been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia, the school nurse plans a class about nutrition for pregnant teens. What should the nurse encourage the teens to consume to increase iron absorption?
A) Milk
B) Green tea
C) Gatorade
D) Orange juice
Q2) The nurse is providing nutritional counseling for a postpartum client with a hemoglobin of
A) Which statement indicates that additional teaching is necessary?
B) "I need to increase food sources that contain iron."
C) "If I drink lots of milk, I will increase my iron level faster."
D) "My iron is low, but it will increase as I take iron supplements."
E) "I might feel less energetic and tire more easily while my iron is low."
Q3) A newly pregnant client weighs 75.0 kg and has a body mass index of 28.5. What is the maximum amount of weight in pounds that this client should weigh during the pregnancy?
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Q1) Which approach to planning educational activities is best suited to a group of pregnant adolescents?
A) Primarily using visual-based presentations during teaching
B) Combining teaching for adolescent mothers of all ages as one group
C) Respecting confidentiality and building trust by avoiding the topics of drug and alcohol abuse
D) Avoiding the inclusion of handouts with bulleted items and white space as part of the teaching
Q2) Which statement, if made by a pregnant adolescent, indicates that she understands her increased risk of physiologic complications during pregnancy?
A) "Smoking and using crack cocaine won't harm my baby."
B) "My anemia and eating mostly fast food are not important."
C) "It's no big deal that I started prenatal care in my seventh month."
D) "I need to take good care of myself so my baby doesn't come early."
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Q1) The nurse is responding to phone calls. Which call should the nurse return first?
A) 29 weeks' gestation, reports increased fetal movement
B) 37 weeks' gestation, reports no fetal movement for 24 hours
C) 32 weeks' gestation, reports decreased fetal movement for 2 days
D) 35 weeks' gestation, reports decreased fetal movement for 4 hours
Q2) The nurse is preparing teaching material on chorionic villus sampling (CVS) for a client who is entering the 10th week of gestation. What risks should the nurse include with this material? Select all that apply.
A) Bleeding
B) Embryonic puncture
C) Intrauterine infection
D) Inability to obtain a tissue sample
E) Inadvertent rupture of the membranes
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Q1) A 26-year-old multigravida who is 28 weeks pregnant and follows a program of regular exercise develops gestational diabetes. What instructions should be included in a teaching plan for this client?
A) "Carry hard candy (or other simple sugar) when exercising."
B) "If your blood sugar is 120 mg/dL, eat 20 g of carbohydrate."
C) "Exercise either just before meals or wait until 2 hours after a meal."
D) "If your blood sugar is more than 120 mg/dL, drink a glass of whole milk."
Q2) A client who is at 18 weeks' gestation has been newly diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia. Which client statement indicates teaching has been effective?
A) "My body makes red blood cells that are smaller than they should be."
B) "Megaloblastic anemia is not known to cause any serious risks to my baby."
C) "Whenever possible, I should boil my vegetables in at least 2 quarts of water."
D) "I should include fresh leafy green vegetables, red meat, fish, poultry, and legumes in my diet."
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Q1) A pregnant client diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection is refusing treatment. What effects on the fetus should the nurse explain might occur if treatment is waived? Select all that apply.
A) Fetal death
B) Premature labor
C) Newborn conjunctivitis
D) Chlamydial pneumonia
E) Ophthalmia neonatorum
Q2) A 28-year-old woman at 16 weeks' gestation being screened for ABO incompatibility learns that her blood contains anti-A antibodies. What should the nurse explain about this finding?
A) "You may have contracted anti-A antibodies as a result of a viral infection."
B) "It's most likely that you contracted anti-A antibodies through sexual activity."
C) "Anti-A antibodies are inherited; usually, they are genetically passed down from father to daughter."
D) "Anti-A antibodies occur naturally, as a result of exposure to foods and different infections."
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Q1) Which client requires immediate intervention by the labor and delivery nurse?
A) Primipara in active labor with urine output of 100 mL/hour
B) Primipara that delivered 1 hour ago with white blood cells (WBCs) of 50,000
C) Multipara at 8 cm, systolic blood pressure has increased 35 mm Hg
D) Multipara at 5 cm with a respiratory rate of 22 between contractions
Q2) A client whose cervix is dilated 8 cm is restless and frequently changing position in an attempt to get comfortable. Which nursing action is most important?
A) Leave the client alone so she can rest.
B) Ask the family to take a coffee and snack break.
C) Reassure the client that she will not be left alone.
D) Encourage the client to have an epidural for pain.
Q3) During the fourth stage of labor, the client's blood pressure (BP) is 110/60, pulse 90, and the fundus is firm midline and halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. What should the nurse do?
A) Massage the fundus.
B) Continue to monitor.
C) Turn the client onto her left side.
D) Place the bed in Trendelenburg position.
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Q1) A client's fetal heart rate tracing has a consistent late deceleration pattern. What actions should the nurse take at this time? Select all that apply.
A) Prepare for cesarean birth.
B) Increase intravenous fluids.
C) Monitor maternal blood pressure.
D) Position client on the left side.
E) Apply oxygen 7 to 10 L via face mask.
Q2) A client's fetal heart rate has a sinusoidal pattern. What should the nurse consider as being the reason for this pattern? Select all that apply.
A) Fetal anemia
B) Chronic fetal bleed
C) Severe fetal hypoxia
D) Maternal hypotension
E) Umbilical cord compression
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Q1) A young adolescent is in active labor but did not know that she was pregnant. What is the most important nursing action?
A) Assess blood pressure and check for proteinuria.
B) Obtain a Social Services referral to discuss adoption.
C) Determine who might be the father of the baby for paternity testing.
D) Ask the client what kind of birthing experience she would like to have.
Q2) An expectant father has been at the bedside of his laboring partner for more than 12 hours. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention?
A) Insist that he leave the room for at least the next hour.
B) Offer to remain with his partner while he takes a break.
C) Suggest that the patient's mother might be of more help.
D) Tell him he is not being as effective as he was and that he needs to let someone else take over.
Q3) Upon delivery of the newborn, which action most promotes parental attachment?
A) Placing the newborn under the radiant warmer
B) Placing the newborn on the maternal abdomen
C) Taking the newborn to the nursery for the initial assessment
D) Allowing the mother a chance to rest immediately after delivery
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Q1) Which nursing action can prevent or detect common side effects of epidural anesthesia? Select all that apply.
A) Preloading the client with a rapid infusion of IV fluids
B) Continuing the client on oral fluids only to prevent hypotension
C) Assisting the client to empty the bladder before the anesthesia is started
D) Use of intermittent fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring so the client can use the birthing ball
E) Monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) for late deceleration and decrease in rate
Q2) A client in labor who is receiving a continuous infusion of a local anesthetic through an epidural catheter asks if ear ringing is supposed to occur. What is the most likely cause of the client's complaint?
A) Dehydration
B) Hypotension
C) Allergic reaction
D) Local anesthetic toxicity
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Q1) A pregnant client diagnosed with hydramnios asks for more information about this health problem. What should the nurse include in this teaching? Select all that apply.
A) The exact cause is unknown.
B) It can cause shortness of breath and edema.
C) It can be associated with maternal diabetes.
D) It occurs in large-for-gestational-age infants.
E) It is associated with renal malformation or dysfunction.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client at 30 weeks' gestation who is experiencing preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). Which statement indicates that the client needs additional teaching?
A) "If I have bleeding in the third trimester of my next pregnancy, I might rupture membranes again."
B) "If I want to become pregnant again, I will have to plan on being on bed rest for the whole pregnancy."
C) "If I develop a urinary tract infection in my next pregnancy, I might rupture membranes early again."
D) "If I were having a singleton pregnancy instead of twins, my membranes would probably not have ruptured."
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Q1) A primiparous client is at 42 weeks' gestation. What order should the nurse question?
A) Begin non-stress test now.
B) Return to the clinic in 1 week.
C) Obtain biophysical profile today.
D) Schedule labor induction for tomorrow.
Q2) What should the nurse anticipate the labor pattern for a fetal occiput posterior position to be?
A) Precipitous
B) Rapid during transition
C) Shorter than average during the latent phase
D) Prolonged with regard to the overall length of labor
Q3) A client with cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) develops tachysystolic labor patterns. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
A) Amniotomy
B) Cesarean section
C) Nipple stimulation
D) Oxytocin administration
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Q1) A client in the midst of labor and delivery of twins is being considered for a podalic version. What should the nurse assess in order for this version to be considered? Select all that apply.
A) Previous cesarean birth
B) Second fetus does not descend
C) Premature rupture of membranes
D) Presence of third-trimester bleeding
E) Second fetus heart rate nonreassuring
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a pregnant client being considered for cervical ripening. Which data indicate that the order for misoprostol (Cytotec) should be reconsidered? Select all that apply.
A) Current fetal heart rate is tachycardic.
B) Client had one cesarean live birth 3 years ago.
C) Uterine contractions are occurring every 2 minutes.
D) Client has 2+ pedal edema and elevated blood pressure.
E) There is a history of placenta previa with one previous pregnancy.
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Q1) The nurse manager of the neonatal intensive care unit is preparing a handout for new parents. Which statement should the nurse include?
A) Neonates have a tendency to become dehydrated.
B) Sugar is always present in the urine of a newborn.
C) The kidneys are fully functional by 30 weeks' gestation.
D) Newborns can eliminate excess fluid as quickly as an adult.
Q2) A postpartum client calls the nursery to report that her 3-day-old newborn has passed a bright green stool. How should the nurse respond to the client?
A) "Your newborn has diarrhea."
B) "This is a normal occurrence."
C) "There may be a possible food allergy."
D) "Take your newborn to the pediatrician."
Q3) The nurse is assessing a newborn at 1 hour of age. Which finding requires an immediate intervention?
A) Mean blood pressure 55 mmHg
B) Pulse rate 145, systolic murmur heard
C) Pauses in respiration lasting 30 seconds
D) Respiratory rate 60, crackles present bilaterally
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Q1) The nurse notes the presence of a cephalohematoma on the head of a newborn. What did the nurse use to make this clinical determination? Select all that apply.
A) The head appears asymmetric.
B) The mass overrides the suture line.
C) The mass appears only on one side of the head.
D) The mass appeared on the second day after birth.
E) The mass appears larger when the newborn cries.
Q2) A newborn is demonstrating signs of needing comfort and security. What should the nurse instruct the parents about swaddling this infant? Select all that apply.
A) Swaddling should be loose.
B) Swaddling should be done with the arms at the sides.
C) Swaddling helps the newborn control body movements.
D) Swaddling should permit the newborn access to the mouth.
E) Swaddling should be tightly bound around the infant's torso.
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Q1) The nurse is not familiar with the cultural background of new parents who have recently immigrated to the United States. What statement is best?
A) "You appear to be Muslim. Do you want your son to be circumcised?"
B) "Let me explain how newborn care takes place here in the United States."
C) "Your baby is a U.S. citizen. You must be very happy about that."
D) "Could you explain what your preferences are regarding child care?"
Q2) The nurse receives shift change reports on infants born within the last 4 hours. Which newborn should the nurse see first?
A) Term male, grunting respirations
B) 37-week male, respiratory rate 45
C) 8 lb, 1 oz female, pulse 150
D) 39-week female, temperature 97°F
Q3) The nurse is assessing a 2-day-old male infant that has been circumcised. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) The umbilical cord clamp has been removed.
B) The mother is ready to breastfeed on demand.
C) The infant maintains temperature when wrapped in a blanket.
D) The infant has had a dry diaper since the circumcision procedure.
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Q1) The newborn of a mother with type 2 diabetes mellitus is experiencing tremors. What nursing action has the highest priority?
A) Obtain a bilirubin level.
B) Obtain a blood calcium level.
C) Measure the newborn's temperature.
D) Place a pulse oximeter on the newborn.
Q2) A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborn weighing 2000 g is prescribed to receive 130 kcal/kg/day of oral feeding to achieve a daily weight gain of 30 g.What should this newborn weigh after 2 weeks of receiving these feedings? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
Q3) A full-term infant weighing 8.8 lb is delivered by a client who is HIV positive. The newborn is prescribed zidovudine (AZT) 2 mg/kg/dose every 6 hours for 6 weeks.
Realizing that the newborn's weight is going to increase over the 6-week course of treatment, what is the total minimal amount of medication in milligrams that this infant will receive in 1 week? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
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Q1) The mother of a 4-day-old infant is concerned that the infant's skin tone is yellow and asks if the baby should be hospitalized. What should the nurse consider as being the cause of this infant's skin color change?
A) Pathologic jaundice
B) Physiologic jaundice
C) Acute bilirubin encephalopathy
D) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Q2) The day after a vaginal delivery, a client develops painful vesicular lesions on the perineum and vulva which are diagnosed as a primary herpes type 2 infection. What care should the newborn receive?
A) Intravenous acyclovir (Zovirax) and contact precautions
B) Cultures of blood and cerebrospinal fluid and serial chest x-rays every 12 hours
C) Parental rooming-in and four intramuscular injections of penicillin
D) Meticulous hand washing and antibiotic eye ointment administration
Q3) An infant weighing 1500 g is prescribed intravenous normal saline 10 mL/kg. How many milliliters of fluid should the nurse expect to provide this infant? (Calculate to the nearest whole number.)
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Q1) The nurse is making a visit to the home of a new mother. Which observation indicates that the mother and infant are in the phase of mutual regulation?
A) The infant grasps the mother's finger while nursing.
B) The mother vocalizes feelings of frustration with her infant.
C) The infant begins to seek out the mother over other individuals.
D) The mother spends more time making eye-to-eye contact with the infant.
Q2) On the first postpartum day, the nurse teaches a client about breastfeeding. Two hours later, the mother seems to remember very little of the teaching. What should the nurse identify as the reason for the client's memory lapse?
A) Epidural anesthesia
B) The taking-in phase
C) The taking-hold phase
D) Postpartum hemorrhage
Q3) What amount of weight loss, in pounds, should the nurse expect in an average postpartum client?
A) 5 to 8
B) 10 to 12
C) 12 to 15
D) 15 to 20
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Q1) During a home care visit, the new breastfeeding mother reports breast engorgement. Which statement by the home care nurse is most appropriate based on this information?
A) "Apply an ice compress to your breast before nursing."
B) "Encourage your baby to suckle for an average of 5 minutes per feeding."
C) "Apply warm compresses to your breast after you finish feeding your baby."
D) "When you are not nursing, wear a well-fitted nursing bra at all times, even when you sleep."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is 4 hours postoperative following a cesarean birth. Which nursing interventions are appropriate based on these data? Select all that apply.
A) Administering the prescribed analgesics, as needed
B) Encouraging ambulation to the bathroom to void
C) Encouraging leg exercises every 2 hours
D) Encouraging coughing and deep breathing every 2 to 4 hours
E) Encouraging the use of breathing, relaxation, and distraction
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Q1) The postpartum client is diagnosed with thrombophlebitis in the right leg. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A) Acute pain
B) Redness
C) Chest pressure
D) Edema
Q2) The nurse is conducting teaching for a postpartum client who is approaching discharge. Which topics will the nurse include in the educational session regarding the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage? Select all that apply.
A) Using the peri-bottle
B) Applying ice to the breasts
C) Wearing cotton underwear
D) Performing fundal massage
E) Inspecting the episiotomy site
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Q1) The clinic administrator has suggested that the nurse teach all children newly diagnosed with diabetes in a single class to save nursing time. The children recently diagnosed range in age from 6 to 15) Which is the rationale for the nursing staff to continue with more than one group session?
A) Freud's theory of psychosexual development, which states that the 6-year-old child's sexual energy is at rest while the adolescent has developed mature sexuality.
B) Erikson's psychosocial theory, which discusses how children learn to relate to others.
C) Piaget's cognitive development theory, which says the 6-year-old child learns by concrete examples, while the 15-year-old adolescent can think abstractly.
D) Kohlberg's theory, which says the young children are conventional in their thinking and will want to learn to please others, while older children can internalize values and will learn for their own principles.
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Q1) During a 4-month-old infant's well-child checkup, the nurse discusses introduction of solid foods into the infant's diet. Although the nurse recommends delaying the introduction of many foods into the diet, which food(s) will the nurse discuss delaying because they increase the risk for food allergy?
A) Honey
B) Carrots, beets, and spinach
C) Pork
D) Cow's milk, eggs, and peanuts
Q2) The nurse is providing care for an infant who is diagnosed with colic. Which interventions will the nurse include in the infant's plan of care? Select all that apply.
A) Using a front-carrying sling
B) Recommending swaddling
C) Suggesting frequent burping
D) Recording all feedings in an intake journal
E) Removing gluten from the diet
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Q1) The nurse is conducting a health history for the family of a 3-year-old child. Which statements or questions by the nurse would establish rapport and elicit an accurate response from the family? Select all that apply.
A) "Hello, I would like to talk with you and get some information on you and your child."
B) "Does any member of your family have a history of asthma, heart disease, or diabetes?"
C) "Tell me about the concerns that brought you to the clinic today."
D) "You will need to fill out these forms; make sure that the information is as complete as possible."
E) Asking the child, "What is your doll's name?"
Q2) The nurse is completing a physical examination of a 4-year-old girl. Which is the best position to place the child in to assess the genitalia?
A) Supine, with legs at a 50-degree angle
B) Right side-lying
C) In prone position, with knees drawn up under the body
D) Frog-legged position
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Q1) The mother of a newborn asks the nurse what the purpose of the first scheduled health maintenance visit will be. Which are appropriate responses by the nurse to this question? Select all that apply.
A) "To determine if your baby is being abused."
B) "To determine compatibility between you and the provider."
C) "To discuss policies related to provision of care."
D) "To evaluate your understanding of the services offered."
E) "To determine your baby's risk for obesity."
Q2) A nurse is assessing an 11-month-old infant, and notes that the infant's height and weight are at the 5th percentile on the growth chart; the infant was previously plotted at the 25th percentile. Psychosocial history reveals that the parents are separated and are planning to divorce. Which is the priority when planning this infant's care?
A) Parental anxiety
B) Risk for failure to thrive
C) Excessive nutritional intake
D) Risk for injury
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Q1) Which nursing actions are appropriate when conducting a mental health assessment for a toddler-age child? Select all that apply.
A) Observing the child's interaction with family members
B) Asking the caregiver to describe the child's typical day
C) Giving the child a crayon to assess ability to use
D) Determining the number of hours the child sleeps each night
E) Inquiring about recent exposure to communicable diseases
Q2) Parents of a preschool-age child report that they find it necessary to spank the child at least once a day. Which response by the nurse is appropriate based on this information?
A) "Can you try spanking the child only every other day for 1 week and see how that affects your child's behavior?"
B) "Spanking is one form of discipline; however, you want to be sure that you do not leave any marks on the child."
C) "I think you are not parenting properly, so let's talk about ways to improve your parenting skills."
D) "Let's talk about other forms of discipline that have a more positive effect on the child."
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Q1) A nurse obtains a nutritional health history from a 10-year-old child. Which food increases the risk for dental caries necessitating education regarding oral hygiene?
A) Sorbet and yogurt
B) Fluoridated water
C) Gummy bears and licorice
D) Peanuts and crackers
Q2) A mother reports that her adolescent daughter is always late. The mother states, "She was born late and has been late every day of her life." Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "Setting specific alarms and reinforcing the value of being 'on-time' may assist her to be more of an 'on-time' individual."
B) "Just let it go for now. Teachers and, in the future, employers will be the best people to help her be 'on-time.' "
C) "You need to establish specific time frames for your adolescent and be certain she adheres to them."
D) "You have a major problem. There must be a lot of screaming in your home."
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Q1) A child who is dependent on a ventilator is being discharged from the hospital. Which will the nurse recommend for the emergency plan of care for this family during the discharge instruction process?
A) Designating an emergency shelter site
B) Notifying the power company that the child is on life support
C) Acquiring a backup generator
D) Having an alternate heating source if power is lost
Q2) In which situation will the school nurse collaborate with the family and other members of the healthcare team in order to develop an individualized health plan (IHP)?
A) For a child who recently developed a penicillin allergy
B) For a child who has been treated for head lice
C) For a child who has missed 2 weeks of school due to mononucleosis
D) For a child who is newly diagnosed with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.
Q3) Which pediatric client will the community health nurse assess first?
A) A 6-year-old who is wheezing and short of breath.
B) A 2-year-old who has been pulling at his ear.
C) A 2-month-old with a 2-day history of diarrhea.
D) A 10-year-old with a sore throat and low-grade fever.
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Q1) The nurse is providing care to several pediatric clients in the hospital setting. Which client diagnosis is capable of producing chronic limitations for the child?
A) Pneumonia from the bacillus Haemophilus influenzae
B) Respiratory syncytial virus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae, a gram-positive diplococcus
D) Congenital heart defect
Q2) The nurse is conducting an educational program for parents of children with chronic conditions. Which parental statement indicates the need for further instruction?
A) "I know my child will get better and not have to take any more medication."
B) "I know my child will need assistance with activities of daily living."
C) "I know my child may need specialized education."
D) "I know my child will have to stay on a special diet."
Q3) The nurse is providing care to several hospitalized pediatric clients. Which child has the greatest risk for a developmental disability?
A) An 18-month-old admitted with a diagnosis of near drowning
B) A school-age child newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) An toddler with sepsis
D) A 2-year-old child with a fractured femur
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Q1) A 6-year-old child is hospitalized for a surgical procedure. The parents ask if the child's four siblings can visit. Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?
A) "Let's plan their visit for a time when the child has received pain medication."
B) "Only those siblings over 16 will be allowed to visit."
C) "I don't think the other children should visit because it might scare them to see their sibling so sick."
D) "Very young children shouldn't visit as they may carry germs."
Q2) A preschool-age boy presents to the outpatient clinic for a sore throat. In the child's mind, which is the most likely causative agent of the sore throat?
A) Being exposed to a classmate with strep throat
B) Yelling at sibling for being annoying
C) Not eating the right foods
D) Not taking daily vitamins
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a child who has been sedated for a painful procedure. Which is the priority nursing action?
A) Placing the child on a cardiac monitor
B) Allowing parents to stay with the child
C) Monitoring pulse oximetry
D) Assessing the child's respiratory effort
Q2) The pediatric nurse would expect that patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) would be most appropriate for which client?
A) 12-year-old client who is postoperative for spinal fusion for scoliosis
B) 10-year-old client who has a fractured femur and concussion from a bike accident
C) 5-year-old client who is postoperative for tonsillectomy
D) Developmentally delayed 16-year-old client who is postoperative for bone surgery.
Q3) The healthcare provider prescribes hydromorphine (Dilaudid) intravenously for the postoperative 4-year-old child. The therapeutic range for Dilaudid has been determined to be 0.01 to 0.015 mg/kg/dose every 3 to 4 hours. What is the maximum therapeutic dose of Dilaudid if the child weighs 30 pounds? Round your answer to the nearest hundredth.
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Q1) A school-age child is admitted to the hospital with a fractured femur and head trauma. The child was not wearing a helmet while riding a new bicycle on the highway, and collided with a car. Which nursing diagnoses should the nurse include in the plan of care with regard to the child's parents? Select all that apply.
A) Compromised Family Coping related to the critical injury of the child
B) Parental Role Conflict related to child's injuries and pediatric intensive care unit (PICU) policies
C) Guilt related to lack of child supervision and safety precautions
D) Knowledge Deficit related to home care of fractured femur
E) Anger related to feelings of helplessness
Q2) Which nursing intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a child who is sedated, unconscious, and on a mechanical ventilator?
A) Out-of-bed transfer to wheelchair
B) Whirlpool baths
C) Maintenance of intravenous (IV) hydration
D) Active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises
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Q1) The nurse is providing care to a pediatric client who is homeless. Which nursing actions will decrease the risk for the child developing an infectious disease? Select all that apply.
A) Teaching hygienic methods
B) Arranging for medications, as needed
C) Evaluating the family for food security
D) Performing a nutritional assessment
E) Teaching oral hygiene
Q2) The nurse is providing care to homeless adolescents at an outreach clinic. Which concept is important for the nurse to consider when providing care to this population?
A) Teens who are homeless will get a job and somewhere to live.
B) Teens who are homeless will seek help when needed.
C) Teens who are homeless will not be fearful of authority figures.
D) Teens who are homeless are most likely to have unprotected sex.
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Q1) The pediatric clinic has set a goal that 95% or more of the children attending the clinic will be fully immunized. Which should the clinic nurses teach the families to meet this goal?
A) The benefits of immunizations outweigh the risks of communicable diseases.
B) Immunizations should be completed by the time the child starts school.
C) Once a child receives a vaccination, that individual has lifelong immunity against that disease.
D) Vaccinations are 100% safe.
Q2) Which live virus vaccines should the nurse teach to parents as being used to decrease the risk of communicable diseases? Select all that apply.
A) Poliovirus
B) Tetanus
C) Measles
D) Varicella
E) Hepatitis B
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Q1) Which rationale will the seasoned nurse share with the novice nurse regarding why the specific gravity for infants is lower than for older children?
A) The infant has a greater body surface area.
B) The infant has a higher basal metabolic rate.
C) The infant has a greater percentage of body weight that is water.
D) The infant's kidneys are less able to concentrate urine.
Q2) The nurse is assessing an infant brought to the clinic because of diarrhea. The infant is alert but has dry mucous membranes. Which additional assessment data indicates to the nurse that the infant is experiencing an early to moderate stage of dehydration?
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Normal fontanels
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Q1) Which is the reason for a healthcare provider to recommend that a preschool-age male client with a documented hearing loss should attend preschool at least 2 days per week?
A) Help the child recognize his hearing deficit.
B) Increase the child's socialization skills.
C) Improve the child's immunity by increased exposure to organisms.
D) Teach other children that children are different.
Q2) Which nursing action is appropriate when providing care to a child with a mild hearing loss who reads lips to enhance adaptation during hospitalization?
A) Touching the child lightly before speaking
B) Using a picture board as the main means of communication
C) Speaking in a loud voice while facing the child
D) Speaking directly to the parents for communication
Q3) Which is a priority nursing assessment the nurse includes in the plan of care for a pediatric client who has received a cochlear implant?
A) Ringing in the ears
B) Pharyngitis
C) Hearing loss
D) Bacterial meningitis
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Q1) The nurse receives a phone call from the parent of a child who is prescribed rifampin (Rimactane) for treatment of tuberculosis because she saw that the child's urine was orange. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A) "Encourage your child to drink cranberry juice."
B) "An orange discoloration of urine is expected while your child is on this medication."
C) "Bring your child to the clinic for a urinalysis."
D) "Bring your child to the clinic for a radiograph of the kidneys."
Q2) Which is the priority nursing action for a child who presents in the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident with a sucking wound of the chest?
A) Placing the child in a Trendelenburg position
B) Beginning rescue breathing for the child
C) Beginning cardiac resuscitation for the child
D) Covering the child's wound with an air occlusive dressing
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Q1) Which parental statement indicates correct understanding for the reason a cardiac catheterization is needed for a child who is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect?
A) "This procedure will keep the ductus arteriosus open and oxygenated and unoxygenated blood mixed."
B) "This procedure is used to close the ductus arteriosus to prevent mixing of arterial and venous blood."
C) "This procedure will redirect the blood so that blood bypasses the right ventricle."
D) "This procedure connects the ventricle to the atrium."
Q2) Which heart defect should the nurse suspect for an infant whose upper extremities have stronger pulses than the lower extremities and blood pressure is higher in the arms than in the legs?
A) Transposition of the great vessels
B) Patent ductus arteriosus
C) Coarctation of the aorta
D) Atrial septal defect
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Q1) A nurse is planning care for a child with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?
A) Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion
B) Ineffective Thermoregulation
C) Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit
D) Risk for Infection
Q2) A parent of a newborn asks the nurse why young children seem to become ill so often when compared with older children and adults. Which is the best response by the nurse?
A) "Newborns have lower numbers of natural killer cells."
B) "Newborns have high levels of IgA in their systems."
C) "Newborns are lacking lymphoid tissue."
D) "Newborns have an immature thymus gland."
Q3) The nurse is planning care for a child with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which vaccines should be avoided in the child with AIDS?
A) Inactivated polio vaccine
B) Tetanus toxoid vaccination
C) Varicella vaccine
D) Acellular pertussis vaccine
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Q1) The nurse is providing care to a pediatric client who is diagnosed with leukopenia. Which disorders should the nurse suspect based on this information? Select all that apply.
A) Cardiovascular
B) Immune
C) Bone marrow
D) Respiratory
E) Neurologic
Q2) The heatlthcare provider prescribes a unit of packed red blood cells for a pediatric client. Which intravenous fluid should the nurse hang during the blood transfusion?
A) D<sub>5</sub>W
B) D<sub>5</sub>LR
C) D<sub>5</sub> 1/4NS
D) NS
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Q1) A school-age child, diagnosed with rhabdomyosarcoma, is experiencing nausea and vomiting related to the prescribed chemotherapy in spite of the use of antiemetics. The mother is pushing the child to eat the food. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate to address this situation?
A) "Since your child is receiving IV fluids, it is not important to push oral intake of food."
B) "A food aversion may occur if you continue to force your child to eat."
C) "Emesis that is caused by your child being force-fed can damage the stomach."
D) "A psychologic conflict could occur between you and your child if you continue to push eating."
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a pediatric client who will require radiation as a portion of the treatment regimen. Which topics should the nurse include in the teaching session related to long- term ramifications associated with this treatment option?
A) Scoliosis
B) Adhesions
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Visual impairment
E) Cardiotoxicity
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Q1) Which is the priority nursing action when preparing a neonate born with a gastroschisis defect for transport to a pediatric hospital for corrective surgery?
A) Covering the exposed intestines with sterile moist gauze
B) Wrapping the newborn warmly in two or three blankets
C) Providing a sterile water feeding to maintain hydration during transport
D) Allowing the parents of the newborn to see their child prior to transport
Q2) The nurse is assessing abdominal girth for a pediatric client who presents with abdominal distension. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A) Measuring the girth just below the umbilicus
B) Measuring the girth just below the sternum
C) Measuring the girth just above the pubic bone
D) Measuring the girth around the portion of the stomach
Q3) An adolescent client reports recurrent abdominal pain with diarrhea and bloody stools. Which type of inflammatory bowel disease does the nurse suspect based on these data?
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
B) Ulcerative colitis (UC)
C) Crohn disease
D) Appendicitis

Page 53
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Q1) The nurse is preparing medication instruction for a child who has undergone a kidney transplant and is prescribed cyclosporine. The parents ask the nurse about the reason for the cyclosporine. Which rationale for this medication should the nurse include in the response?
A) Suppress rejection
B) Decrease pain
C) Improve circulation
D) Boost immunity
Q2) Which actions should the nurse implement when assessing the physical growth for a child who is diagnosed with chronic renal failure? Select all that apply.
A) Asking the child to step on the scale
B) Measuring the child's height
C) Measuring the child's head circumference
D) Using the Denver II with the child
E) Monitoring the child's blood pressure
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Q1) A 5-year-old child with a history of hypopituitarism presents with complaints of right hip and leg pain. Which prescribed medication for the diagnosis should the nurse identify as the cause for the current symptoms?
A) Daily growth hormone
B) Insulin before meals and bedtime
C) DDAVP (desmopressin) at bedtime
D) Cortisone injections
Q2) Which sequela should the nurse include in the teaching session for a parent who does not believe in medication for the treatment of the newborn's hypothyroidism?
A) Heart disease
B) Intellectual disability
C) Renal failure
D) Thyroid storm
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Q1) When the home health nurse visits the home of a 10-month-old child, she observes the environment for risks for injury to the child. Which observation will the nurse discuss with the mother?
A) The mother leaves the filled mop bucket on the floor while in another room.
B) The mother turns all pan handles to the back of the stove.
C) The mother fills the bath tub before bringing the baby into the bathroom.
D) When riding in a car, the child is in a car seat in the middle of the back seat.
Q2) A neonate with a meningomyelocele is to have surgery in the morning. Which nursing action is appropriate for this neonate?
A) Applying a diaper to prevent contamination of sac
B) Positioning the newborn in a side-lying position
C) Encouraging the mother to hold the newborn because she will not be able to pick him up after surgery
D) Positioning the newborn in a prone position
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child with a possible alteration in mental health. Which findings indicate a need for further investigation? Select all that apply.
A) Fails to make eye contact
B) Flinches when touched on the arm
C) History of limited prenatal care and precipitate delivery
D) Head circumference has not changed in over 1 year
E) Flat facial expressions
Q2) Which nursing action assists in the diagnosis of mental health and cognitive disorders that occur during childhood?
A) Monitoring vital signs
B) Administering prescribed medications
C) Conducting a developmental assessment
D) Documenting an accurate history and physical
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Q1) The father of a school-age child who requires hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics to treat osteomyelitis states, "I don't understand why normal antibiotics can't be used." Which should the nurse include in the response to the father?
A) The antibiotic of choice is not available in oral form.
B) Blood flow to bones is limited, and parenteral administration is necessary to get appropriate blood levels.
C) Because the child is older now, it is harder to get the child to cooperate with oral antibiotics.
D) Because 2 weeks of therapy is necessary, the intravenous route will produce fewer side effects.
Q2) Which injury prevention strategies should the nurse include in the plan of care for a pediatric client who is diagnosed with muscular dystrophy?
A) Develop a home fire evacuation plan.
B) Provide information regarding oxygen safety.
C) Recommend the use of portable generator.
D) Teach safe transfer methods.
E) Perform neurovascular checks every 2 hours.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70710
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the priority nursing action when providing care to a child who is bitten by a snake?
A) Measuring the circumference of the extremity twice per hour
B) Monitoring respiratory status
C) Assessing vital signs
D) Evaluating response to pain medication
Q2) The 10-year-old child is admitted to the hospital following an accident at school that resulted in a puncture wound of the abdomen. Two days after the injury, the child continues in the inflammation phase of healing. What would the nurse expect to see while changing the child's dressing and assessing the wound?
A) The wound is contracting, and the edges are growing together.
B) A blood clot has formed, sealing the wound.
C) Epithelial cells are growing into the wound.
D) The wound is pale and weepy.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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