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Child Health Nursing is a specialized course that focuses on the comprehensive care of children from infancy through adolescence within the context of their family and community. The course covers growth and development milestones, pediatric assessment techniques, common pediatric illnesses, health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of acute and chronic conditions affecting children. Emphasis is placed on principles of family-centered care, communication with children and families, and the role of the nurse in advocacy and education. Students also explore developmental, psychosocial, and ethical considerations unique to pediatric nursing, preparing them to address the physical and emotional needs of children across various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 10th Edition by Hockenberry
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Q1) Interventions are put into action
A)Assessment
B)Diagnosis
C)Outcomes identification
D)Planning
E)Implementation
F)Evaluation
Answer: E
Q2) The obligation to promote the patient's well-being
A)Autonomy
B)Nonmaleficence
C)Beneficence
D)Justice
Answer: C
Q3) The concept of fairness
A)Autonomy
B)Nonmaleficence
C)Beneficence
D)Justice
Answer: D
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Q1) The nurse is discussing issues that are important with parents considering a cross-racial adoption. Which statement made by the parents indicates further teaching is needed?
A) "We will try to preserve the adopted child's racial heritage."
B) "We are glad we will be getting full medical information when we adopt our child."
C) "We will make sure to have everyone realize this is our child and a member of the family."
D) "We understand strangers may make thoughtless comments about our child being different from us."
Answer: B
Q2) Which type of family should the nurse recognize when a mother, her children, and a stepfather live together?
A) Traditional nuclear
B) Blended
C) Extended
D) Binuclear
Answer: B
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Q1) Parents ask the nurse about the characteristics of autosomal recessive inheritance. Which is characteristic of autosomal recessive inheritance?
A) Affected individuals have unaffected parents.
B) Affected individuals have one affected parent.
C) Affected parents have a 50% chance of having an affected child.
D) Affected parents will have unaffected children.
Answer: A
Q2) A newborn has been diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
A) Ambiguous genitalia
B) Prenatal growth retardation
C) An abnormally large tongue
D) Legs and arms significantly shorter than torso
Answer: A
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Q1) Where in the health history does a record of immunizations belong?
A) History
B) Present illness
C) Review of systems
D) Physical assessment
Q2) Superficial palpation of the abdomen is often perceived by the child as tickling. Which measure by the nurse is most likely to minimize this sensation and promote relaxation?
A) Palpate another area simultaneously.
B) Ask the child not to laugh or move if it tickles.
C) Begin with deeper palpation and gradually progress to superficial palpation.
D) Have the child "help" with palpation by placing his or her hand over the palpating hand.
Q3) Which is the single most important factor to consider when communicating with children?
A) Presence of the child's parent
B) Child's physical condition
C) Child's developmental level
D) Child's nonverbal behaviors

6
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Q1) The nurse is planning to administer a nonopioid for pain relief to a child. Which timing should the nurse plan so the nonopioid takes effect?
A) 15 minutes until maximum effect
B) 30 minutes until maximum effect
C) 1 hour until maximum effect
D) 1 1/2 hours until maximum effect
Q2) What is an important consideration when using the FACES pain rating scale with children?
A) Children color the face with the color they choose to best describe their pain.
B) The scale can be used with most children as young as 3 years.
C) The scale is not appropriate for use with adolescents.
D) The FACES scale is useful in pain assessment but is not as accurate as physiologic responses.
Q3) What describes nonpharmacologic techniques for pain management?
A) They may reduce pain perception.
B) They usually take too long to implement.
C) They make pharmacologic strategies unnecessary.
D) They trick children into believing they do not have pain.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella (MMRV) vaccine. Which is a contraindication associated with administering this vaccine?
A) The child has recently been exposed to an infectious disease.
B) The child has symptoms of a cold but no fever.
C) The child is having intermittent episodes of diarrhea.
D) The child has a disorder that causes a deficient immune system.
Q2) An 18-month-old child has been diagnosed with pediculosis capitis (head lice). Which prescription should the nurse question if ordered for the child?
A) Malathion (Ovide)
B) Permethrin 1% (Nix)
C) Benzyl alcohol 5% lotion
D) Pyrethrin with piperonyl butoxide (RID)
Q3) When giving instructions to a parent whose child has scabies, what should the nurse include?
A) Treat all family members if symptoms develop.
B) Be prepared for symptoms to last 2 to 3 weeks.
C) Carefully treat only areas where there is a rash.
D) Notify practitioner so an antibiotic can be prescribed.
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Q1) The Apgar score of an infant 5 minutes after birth is 8. Which is the nurse's best interpretation of this?
A) Resuscitation is likely to be needed.
B) Adjustment to extrauterine life is adequate.
C) Additional scoring in 5 more minutes is needed.
D) Maternal sedation or analgesia contributed to the low score.
Q2) What should nursing interventions to maintain a patent airway in a newborn include?
A) Positioning the newborn supine after feedings.
B) Wrapping the newborn as snugly as possible.
C) Placing the newborn to sleep in the prone (on abdomen) position.
D) Using a bulb syringe to suction as needed, suctioning the nose first and then the pharynx.
Q3) Successful breastfeeding is most dependent on which?
A) Birth weight of newborn
B) Size of mother's breasts
C) Mother's desire to breastfeed
D) Family's socioeconomic level
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Q1) The nurse is planning care for an infant receiving calcium gluconate for treatment of hypocalcemia. Which route of administration should be used?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Intravenous
D) Intraosseous
Q2) The nurse suspects a newborn has a fractured clavicle. What are signs of a fractured clavicle? (Select all that apply.)
A) An asymmetric Moro reflex
B) Limited use of the affected arm
C) Crying when the arm is moved
D) Muscles of the hand are paralyzed
E) The arm hangs limp alongside the body
Q3) The nurse is caring for a newborn with Erb palsy. The nurse understands that which reflex is absent with this condition?
A) Root reflex
B) Suck reflex
C) Grasp reflex
D) Moro reflex
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Q1) The neonatal intensive care nurse is caring for a neonate born at 36 weeks of gestation in an incubator. Which actions should the nurse plan to assure adequate skin care for the neonate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Changing any adhesives every 12 hours
B) Removing adhesives or skin barriers slowly
C) Using an adhesive remover when removing tape
D) Applying emollient as needed for dry, flaking skin
E) Using cleanser or soaps no more than two or three times a week
Q2) The nurse has been caring for an infant who has just died. The parents are present but appear to be "afraid" to hold the dead infant. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A) Tell them there is nothing to fear.
B) Insist that they hold the infant "one last time."
C) Respect their wishes and release the body to the morgue.
D) Keep the infant's body available for a few hours in case they change their minds.
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Q1) The mother of a 3-month-old breastfed infant asks about giving her baby water because it is summer and very warm. What should the nurse tell her?
A) Fluids in addition to breast milk are not needed.
B) Water should be given if the infant seems to nurse longer than usual.
C) Clear juices are better than water to promote adequate fluid intake.
D) Water once or twice a day will make up for losses resulting from environmental temperature.
Q2) At which age should the nurse expect most infants to begin to say "mama" and "dada" with meaning?
A) 4 months
B) 6 months
C) 10 months
D) 14 months
Q3) According to Piaget, a 6-month-old infant should be in which developmental stage?
A) Use of reflexes
B) Primary circular reactions
C) Secondary circular reactions
D) Coordination of secondary schemata
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Q1) The nurse is teaching parents about potential causes of colic in infancy. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Overeating
B) Understimulation
C) Frequent burping
D) Parental smoking
E) Swallowing excessive air
Q2) The nurse is helping parents achieve a more nutritionally adequate vegetarian diet for their children. Which is most likely lacking in their particular diet?
A) Fat
B) Protein
C) Vitamins C and A
D) Iron and calcium
Q3) What are risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A) Postterm
B) Female gender
C) Low Apgar scores
D) Recent viral illness
E) Native American infants
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Q1) The parents of a 2-year-old child tell the nurse they are concerned because the toddler has started to use "baby talk" since the arrival of their new baby. What should the nurse recommend?
A) Ignore the baby talk.
B) Tell the toddler frequently, "You are a big kid now."
C) Explain to the toddler that baby talk is for babies.
D) Encourage the toddler to practice more advanced patterns of speech.
Q2) Exclude meat from their diet but consumes dairy products with some fish and poultry
A)Lacto-ovo vegetarians
B)Lactovegetarians
C)Pure vegetarians (vegans)
D)Macrobiotics
E)Semi-vegetarians
Q3) Eliminate all foods of animal origin, including milk and eggs
A)Lacto-ovo vegetarians
B)Lactovegetarians
C)Pure vegetarians (vegans)
D)Macrobiotics
E)Semi-vegetarians
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Q1) What developmental achievements are demonstrated by a 4-year-old child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cares for self totally
B) Throws a ball overhead
C) Has a vocabulary of 1500 words
D) Can skip and hop on alternate feet
E) Tends to be selfish and impatient
F) Commonly has an imaginary playmate
Q2) In terms of cognitive development, a 5-year-old child should be expected to do which?
A) Think abstractly.
B) Use magical thinking.
C) Understand conservation of matter.
D) Understand another person's perspective.
Q3) Which type of play is most typical of the preschool period?
A) Team
B) Parallel
C) Solitary
D) Associative
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Q1) A parent asks the nurse about the "characteristics of a sleep terror." What response should the nurse give to the parent? (Select all that apply.)
A) The child screams during the sleep terror.
B) Return to sleep is delayed because of persistent fear.
C) The night terror occurs during the second half of night.
D) The child has no memory of the dream with a sleep terror.
E) The child is not aware of another's presence during a sleep terror.
Q2) A health care provider prescribes activated charcoal (Actidose), 25 g orally every 6 hours for an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. The medication label states: "Activated charcoal (Actidose), 50 g/240 ml." The nurse prepares to administer the dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer in a whole number.

Q3) What is a significant secondary prevention nursing activity for lead poisoning?
A) Chelation therapy
B) Screening children for blood lead levels
C) Removing lead-based paint from older homes
D) Questioning parents about ethnic remedies containing lead
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Q1) What statement best describes fear in school-age children?
A) Increasing concerns about bodily safety overwhelm them.
B) They should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule by peers.
C) Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family.
D) Children with numerous fears need continuous protective behavior by parents to eliminate these fears.
Q2) A school-age child has been a victim of bullying. What characteristics does the nurse assess for in this child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Anxiety
B) Outgoing
C) Low self-esteem
D) Psychosomatic complaints
E) Good academic performance
Q3) The school nurse needs to obtain authorization for a child who requires medications while at school. From whom does the nurse obtain the authorization?
A) The parents
B) The pharmacist
C) The school administrator
D) The prescribing practitioner
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Q1) A health care provider prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), PO, 0.5 mg, twice a day, for a child with schizophrenia. The medication label states: "Haloperidol (Haldol) oral concentrate, 1 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters should the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to one decimal place.
Q2) The nurse understands that medications delivered by which route are more likely to cause a drug reaction?
A) Oral
B) Topical
C) Intravenous
D) Intramuscular
Q3) A parent calls the clinic nurse because his 7-year-old child was bitten by a black widow spider. What action should the nurse advise the parent to take?
A) Apply warm compresses.
B) Carefully scrape off the stinger.
C) Take the child to the emergency department.
D) Apply a thin layer of corticosteroid cream.
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Q1) What aspects of cognition develop during adolescence?
A) Ability to see things from the point of view of another
B) Capability of using a future time perspective
C) Capability of placing things in a sensible and logical order
D) Progress from making judgments based on what they see to making judgments based on what they reason
Q2) What are characteristics of dating relationships in early adolescence? (Select all that apply.)
A) One-on-one dating
B) Follow ritualized "scripts"
C) Are psychosocially intimate
D) Involve playing stereotypic roles
E) Participating in mixed-gender group activities
Q3) What are characteristics of late adolescence (18-20 years) with regard to sexuality? (Select all that apply.)
A) Exploration of "self-appeal"
B) Limited dating, usually group
C) Intimacy involves commitment
D) Growing capacity for mutuality and reciprocity
E) May publicly identify as gay, lesbian, or bisexual
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Q1) The nurse's role in facilitating successful childrearing in unmarried teenage mothers includes what?
A) Facilitating marriage between the mother and father of the baby
B) Teaching the adolescent the long-term needs of the growing child
C) Providing information and feedback about positive parenting skills
D) Encouraging the infant's grandmother to take responsibility for care
Q2) What are risk factors of testicular cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hispanic
B) Infertility
C) Alcohol use
D) Tobacco use
E) Family history
Q3) The nurse is teaching an adolescent girl strategies to relieve dysmenorrhea. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Effleurage
B) Diet high in fat
C) Limiting exercise
D) Use of a heating pad
E) Massaging the lower back
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Q1) The nurse is assessing the coping behaviors of the parents of a child recently diagnosed with a chronic illness. What behavior should the nurse consider an "approach behavior" that results in movement toward adjustment?
A) Being unable to adjust to a progression of the disease or condition
B) Anticipating future problems and seeking guidance and answers
C) Looking for new cures without a perspective toward possible benefit
D) Failing to recognize the seriousness of the child's condition despite physical evidence
Q2) What is the single most prevalent cause of disability in children and responsible for the recent increase in childhood disability?
A) Cancer
B) Asthma
C) Seizures
D) Heart disease
Q3) What is a major premise of family-centered care?
A) The child is the focus of all interventions.
B) Nurses are the authorities in the child's care.
C) Parents are the experts in caring for their child.
D) Decisions are made for the family to reduce stress.
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Q1) Several nurses tell their nursing supervisor that they want to attend the funeral of a child for whom they had cared. They say they felt especially close to both the child and the family. The supervisor should recognize that attending the funeral serves what purpose?
A) It is improper because it increases burnout.
B) It is inappropriate because it is unprofessional.
C) It is proper because families expect this expression of concern.
D) It is appropriate because it can assist in the resolution of personal grief.
Q2) What factor is most important for parents implementing do not resuscitate (DNR) orders?
A) Parents' beliefs about euthanasia
B) Presence of other children in the home
C) Experiences of the health care team with other children in this situation
D) Acknowledgment by health care team that child has no realistic chance for cure
Q3) What statement is most descriptive of a school-age child's reaction to death?
A) Very interested in funerals and burials
B) Little understanding of words such as "forever"
C) Imagine the deceased person to be still alive
D) Can explain death from a religious or spiritual point of view
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Q1) The nurse is talking with a 10-year-old boy who wears bilateral hearing aids. The left hearing aid is making an annoying whistling sound that the child cannot hear. What intervention is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Ignore the sound.
B) Suggest he reinsert the hearing aid.
C) Ask him to reverse the hearing aids in his ears.
D) Suggest he raise the volume of the hearing aid.
Q2) Unequal curvatures in refractive apparatus
A)Myopia
B)Hyperopia
C)Astigmatism
D)Anisometropia
E)Amblyopia
Q3) What action should the school nurse take for a child who has a hematoma (black eye) with no hemorrhage into the anterior chamber?
A) Apply a warm moist pack.
B) Have the child keep the eyes open.
C) Apply ice for the first 24 hours.
D) Refer to an ophthalmologist immediately.
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Q1) An 8-year-old girl is being admitted to the hospital from the emergency department with an injury from falling off her bicycle. What intervention will help her most in her adjustment to the hospital?
A) Explain hospital schedules to her, such as mealtimes.
B) Use terms such as "honey" and "dear" to show a caring attitude.
C) Explain when parents can visit and why siblings cannot come to see her.
D) Orient her parents, because she is too young, to her room and hospital facility.
Q2) What factors can negatively affect parents' reactions to their child's illness? (Select all that apply.)
A) Additional stresses
B) Previous coping abilities
C) Lack of support systems
D) Seriousness of the threat to the child
E) Previous experience with hospitalization
Q3) What choice of words or phrases would be inappropriate to use with a child?
A) "Rolling bed" for "stretcher"
B) "Special medicine" for "dye"
C) "Make sleepy" for "deaden"
D) "Catheter" for "intravenous"

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Q1) A 4-year-old girl is admitted to outpatient surgery for removal of a cyst on her back. Her mother puts the hospital gown on her, but the child is crying because she wants to leave on her underpants. What is the most appropriate nursing action at this time??
A) Allow her to wear her underpants.
B) Discuss with her mother why this is important to the child.
C) Ask her mother to explain to her why she cannot wear them.
D) Explain in a kind, matter-of-fact manner that this is hospital policy.
Q2) What are the advantages of an implanted port (Port-a-Cath)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduced risk of infection
B) Reduced cost for the family
C) Placed completely under the skin
D) Easy to use for self-administered infusions
E) Removal does not require a surgical procedure
Q3) At which age should a nurse keep teaching time short (5 minutes)?
A) Infant
B) Toddler
C) Preschool
D) School age
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Q1) Histocompatible tissue obtained from genetically identical individuals
A)Allografts
B)Xenografts
C)Autografts
D)Isografts
Q2) Tissue obtained from undamaged areas of the patient's own body
A)Allografts
B)Xenografts
C)Autografts
D)Isografts
Q3) A school-age child with diarrhea has been rehydrated. The nurse is discussing the child's diet with the family. What food or beverage should be tolerated best?
A) Clear fluids
B) Carbonated drinks
C) Applesauce and milk
D) Easily digested foods
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Q1) Calculate the 24-hour maintenance fluid requirement for a child weighing 25 kg. Fill in the blank with ml/day. Record your answer in a whole number.
Q2) What measure of fluid balance status is most useful in a child with acute glomerulonephritis?
A) Proteinuria
B) Daily weight
C) Specific gravity
D) Intake and output
Q3) A hospitalized child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is receiving high doses of prednisone. What nursing goal is appropriate for this child?
A) Stimulate appetite.
B) Detect evidence of edema.
C) Minimize risk of infection.
D) Promote adherence to the antibiotic regimen.
Q4) Calculate the 24-hour maintenance fluid requirement for a child weighing 6 kg. Fill in the blank with ml/day. Record your answer in a whole number.
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Q1) What immunization is recommended for all newborns?
A) Hepatitis A vaccine
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
C) Hepatitis C vaccine
D) Hepatitis A, B, and C vaccines
Q2) What information should the nurse include when teaching an adolescent with Crohn disease (CD)?
A) How to cope with stress and adjust to chronic illness
B) Preparation for surgical treatment and cure of CD
C) Nutritional guidance and prevention of constipation
D) Prevention of spread of illness to others and principles of high-fiber diet
Q3) The nurse is preparing to admit a 6-year-old child with celiac disease. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A) Steatorrhea
B) Polycythemia
C) Malnutrition
D) Melena stools
E) Foul-smelling stools
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Q1) A 5-month-old infant is in respiratory distress. What should the nurse expect to find?
A) Nasal flaring
B) Bradycardia
C) Abdominal breathing
D) Capillary refill of 2 seconds
Q2) The nurse recognizes that oxygen mist tents are rarely used for a child with respiratory distress. What are reasons for not using an oxygen mist tent? (Select all that apply.)
A) Poor access to the child
B) Cool and wet tent environment
C) Oxygen levels fall when tent is entered
D) Child may not tolerate it around the crib/bed
E) Lower oxygen concentrations cannot be achieved
Q3) Effective cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a 5-year-old child should include what technique?
A) Provide one breath to every five chest compressions.
B) Provide two breaths to every 30 chest compressions.
C) Reassess the child every 10 minutes while CPR continues.
D) Evaluate the child after 50 cycles of compression and ventilation.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a child with carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning associated with smoke inhalation. What intervention is essential in this child's care?
A) Monitor pulse oximetry.
B) Monitor arterial blood gases.
C) Administer oxygen if respiratory distress develops.
D) Administer oxygen if child's lips become bright, cherry-red in color.
Q2) The clinic nurse is administering influenza vaccinations. Which children should not receive the live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)? (Select all that apply.)
A) A child with asthma
B) A child with diabetes
C) A child with hemophilia A
D) A child with cancer receiving chemotherapy
E) A child with gastroesophageal reflux disease
Q3) The nurse is calculating the amount of expected urinary output for a 24-hour period on a child with laryngotracheobronchitis who weighs 33 lb. The nurse recognizes the formula to be used is 1 ml/kg/hr. What is the expected 24-hour urinary output for this child in milliliters? Record your answer below in a whole number.

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Q1) Has two leaflets
A)Mitral valve
B)Tricuspid valve
C)Atria
D)Ventricles
Q2) After returning from cardiac catheterization, the nurse determines that the pulse distal to the catheter insertion site is weaker. How should the nurse respond?
A) Elevate the affected extremity.
B) Notify the practitioner of the observation.
C) Record data on the assessment flow record.
D) Apply warm compresses to the insertion site.
Q3) The parents of a 3-year-old child with congenital heart disease are afraid to let their child play with other children because of possible overexertion. How should the nurse reply to this concern?
A) The parents should meet all the child's needs.
B) The child needs opportunities to play with peers.
C) Constant parental supervision is needed to avoid overexertion.
D) The child needs to understand that peers' activities are too strenuous.
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Q1) What explanation provides the rationale for why iron-deficiency anemia is common during infancy?
A) Cow's milk is a poor source of iron.
B) Iron cannot be stored during fetal development.
C) Fetal iron stores are depleted by 1 month of age.
D) Dietary iron cannot be started until 12 months of age.
Q2) The clinic nurse is evaluating causes for iron deficiency caused by inadequate supply of iron. What should the nurse recognize as causes for iron deficiency caused by an inadequate iron supply? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prematurity
B) Slow growth rate
C) Excessive milk intake
D) Severe iron deficiency in the mother
E) Exclusive breastfeeding of infant from birth to 3 months
Q3) What condition precipitates polycythemia?
A) Dehydration
B) Severe infections
C) Immunosuppression
D) Prolonged tissue hypoxia
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Q1) Chemotherapeutic agents are classified according to what feature?
A) Side effects
B) Effectiveness
C) Mechanism of action
D) Route of administration
Q2) Daily toothbrushing and flossing can be encouraged for the child on chemotherapy when the platelet count is above which?
A) 10,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
C) 30,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) 40,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
Q3) What is appropriate mouth care for a toddler with mucosal ulceration related to chemotherapy?
A) Mouthwashes with plain saline
B) Lemon glycerin swabs for cleansing
C) Mouthwashes with hydrogen peroxide
D) Swish and swallow with viscous lidocaine
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Q1) A child has been seizure free for 2 years. A father asks the nurse how much longer the child will need to take the antiseizure medications. How should the nurse respond?
A) Medications can be discontinued at this time.
B) The child will need to take the drugs for 5 years after the last seizure.
C) A step-wise approach will be used to reduce the dosage gradually.
D) Seizure disorders are a lifelong problem. Medications cannot be discontinued.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with complex partial seizures. What clinical features of complex partial seizures should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.)
A) They last less than 10 seconds.
B) There is usually no aura.
C) Mental disorientation is common.
D) There is frequently a postictal state.
E) There is usually an impaired consciousness.
Q3) What type of seizure may be difficult to detect?
A) Absence
B) Generalized
C) Simple partial
D) Complex partial
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with type 2 diabetes. What clinical features of type 2 diabetes should the nurse recognize? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oral agents are effective.
B) Insulin is usually needed.
C) Ketoacidosis is infrequent.
D) Diet only is often effective.
E) Chronic complications frequently occur.
Q2) A 12-year-old girl is newly diagnosed with diabetes when she develops ketoacidosis. How should the nurse structure a successful education program?
A) Essential information is presented initially.
B) Teaching should take place in the child's semiprivate room.
C) Education is focused toward the parents because the child is too young.
D) All information needed for self-management of diabetes is taught at once.
Q3) The health care provider has prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU) 7 mg/kg/day PO divided every 12 hours for a child with Graves disease. The child weighs 66 lb. The nurse is preparing to administer the 0800 dose. Calculate the dose the nurse should administer in milligrams. Record your answer below in a whole number.
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Q1) What needs to be included as essential teaching for adolescents with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) High calorie diet because of increased metabolic needs
B) Home schooling to decrease the risk of infections
C) Protection from sun and fluorescent lights to minimize rash
D) Intensive exercise regimen to build up muscle strength and endurance
Q2) The nurse is teaching parents the proper use of a hip-knee-ankle-foot orthosis (HKAFO) for their 4-year-old child. The parents demonstrate basic essential knowledge by making what statement?
A) "Alcohol will be used twice a day to clean the skin around the brace."
B) "Weekly visits to the orthotist are scheduled to check screws for tightness."
C) "Initially, a burning sensation is expected and the brace should remain in place."
D) "Condition of the skin in contact with the brace should be checked every 4 hours."
Q3) What statement is true concerning osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)?
A) It is easily treated.
B) It is an inherited disorder.
C) Braces and exercises are of no therapeutic value.
D) Later onset disease usually runs a more difficult course.
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Q1) A 14-year-old girl is in the intensive care unit after a spinal cord injury 2 days ago. What nursing intervention is a priority for this child?
A) Minimizing environmental stimuli
B) Administering immunoglobulin
C) Monitoring and maintaining systemic blood pressure
D) Discussing long-term care issues with the family
Q2) Spastic cerebral palsy (CP) is characterized by which clinical manifestations?
A) Athetosis, dystonic movements
B) Tremors, lack of active movement
C) Hypertonicity; poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion
D) Wide-based gait; poor performance of rapid, repetitive movements
Q3) The nurse is preparing to admit a 5-year-old child with a lower motor neuron syndrome. What clinical manifestations of a lower motor neuron syndrome should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A) Loss of hair
B) Babinski reflex present
C) Skin and tissue changes
D) Marked atrophy of atonic muscle
E) Hyperreflexia with tendon reflexes exaggerated
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