
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Child Development explores the physical, cognitive, social, and emotional growth of children from infancy through adolescence. This course examines major developmental theories, key milestones, and the influence of family, culture, and environment on childrens early experiences. By integrating current research findings, students gain insights into how children learn, adapt, and form relationships, as well as the role of caregivers and educators in supporting healthy development. The course also addresses developmental challenges and practical strategies for fostering resilience and positive outcomes in diverse settings.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 4th Edition by Laura E. Berk
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19 Chapters
2178 Verified Questions
2178 Flashcards
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Q1) Behaviorism and social learning theory __________.
A) overemphasize the plasticity of cognitive development
B) overestimate people's contributions to their own development
C) offer too narrow a view of important environmental influences
D) overemphasize each individual's unique life history
Answer: C
Q2) Max, age 65, learned to play the piano at a local senior center. Max demonstrates that __________.
A) aging is an eventual "shipwreck"
B) learning follows a predictable timetable
C) development is plastic at all ages
D) musical talent peaks in late adulthood
Answer: C
Q3) The clinical method __________.
A) allows investigators to see directly the everyday behaviors they hope to explain
B) must be conducted with large groups of people at the same time
C) provides little information on how children and adults actually behave
D) yields richly detailed case narratives that offer valuable insights
Answer: D
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Q1) When Erin and Brooke cooperate, their parents are likely to be warm and gentle in the future. This is an example of a(n) __________ influence between parents and their children.
A) direct
B) coparenting
C) maladaptive
D) indirect
Answer: A
Q2) In which disease or disorder does genomic imprinting operate on the sex chromosomes?
A) fragile X syndrome
B) hemophilia
C) sickle cell anemia
D) phenylketonuria (PKU)
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about epidural analgesia is true?
A) It prevents the mother from being able to move her trunk and legs.
B) It allows the mother to feel the pressure of the contractions.
C) It strengthens uterine contractions.
D) It prevents the mother from being able to push during the second stage of labor.
Answer: B
Q2) What is one of the functions served by amniotic fluid?
A) It delivers food and oxygen to the developing organism.
B) It helps keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant.
C) It delivers nutrients and removes waste products.
D) It produces blood cells until the organs are mature enough to take over this function.
Answer: B
Q3) Tiffany is a small-for-date baby. This means she __________.
A) was born several weeks or more before her due date
B) was born below her expected weight considering length of the pregnancy
C) will probably have much less serious problems than a preterm infant
D) may have difficulties in infancy but will outgrow them by the preschool years
Answer: B
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Q1) Discuss the two growth patterns that describe the changes in body proportions as a child grows.
Q2) According to the __________ trend, the head develops more rapidly during the prenatal period than the lower part of the body.
A) cranial
B) neuroproximal
C) proximodistal
D) cephalocaudal
Q3) About half the brain's volume is made up of __________ cells.
A) red blood
B) white blood
C) stem
D) glial
Q4) Which of the following is true about the order in which motor skills develop?
A) It depends wholly on the baby's efforts.
B) It depends on the anatomy of the body part being used, the surrounding environment, and the baby's efforts.
C) Babies rarely use advances in one motor skill to support advances in others.
D) It follows a strict sequence.
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Q1) The __________ is the conscious, reflective part of our mental system.
A) sensory register
B) central executive
C) short-term memory store
D) automatic cognitive processor
Q2) The Vygotskian zone of proximal development refers to __________.
A) the adjustment of old schemes after noticing that current ways of thinking are flawed
B) the cognitive discomfort the child feels during times of rapid cognitive change
C) a range of tasks that the child cannot yet handle alone but can do with the help of more skilled partners
D) internal depictions of information that the mind can manipulate
Q3) Recent research indicates that __________ earlier than Piaget expected.
A) infants actively search for hidden objects
B) the first signs of problem solving by analogy emerge
C) infants master the A-B object search
D) toddlers engage in make-believe play
Q4) Describe the signs of developmentally appropriate infant and toddler child care.
Q5) Describe the social-interactionist view of language development.
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Q1) __________ have a harder time regulating __________ emotion.
A) Girls; negative
B) Boys; positive
C) Girls; positive
D) Boys; negative
Q2) Erika becomes upset when her father leaves. When her father is present, Erika approaches, follows, and climbs on him in preference to others. Erika is most likely in Bowlby's __________ phase.
A) preattachment
B) "attachment-in-the-making"
C) "clear-cut" attachment
D) formation of reciprocal relationship
Q3) Shortly after giving birth to Max, Tanisha's mood plunged. She felt anxious, weepy, overwhelmed, and angry at loss of control over her own schedule. As a result of Tanisha's postpartum depression, Max probably __________.
A) slept poorly
B) was more attentive to his surroundings
C) tried to comfort Tanisha when she was sad
D) produced low levels of the stress hormone cortisol
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Q1) Priya was born with a deficiency of thyroxine. She did not receive prompt treatment. Priya is most likely __________.
A) extremely tall for her age
B) intellectually disabled
C) growing at a normal rate
D) strong in spatial relationship skills
Q2) Describe both child-centered preschool and kindergarten programs and academic programs. Which type of programming does the research favor for early childhood?
Q3) When asked, "How many are there?" 5-year-old Kara correctly counts nine gummy bears. She tells her teacher there are nine bears because she knows that the last number in the counting sequence indicates the quantity of items in the set. Kara has a grasp of __________.
A) chronological order
B) addition
C) cardinality
D) interactive mathematics
Q4) Describe the benefits of make-believe play.
Q5) Describe the benefits of watching educational television, such as Sesame Street.
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Q1) Which statement about permissive parents is true?
A) They are emotionally detached and depressed, with little time and energy for children.
B) They exercise firm, reasonable control over their children.
C) They insist on mature behavior and give reasons for their expectations.
D) They allow children to make their own decisions when they are not yet capable of doing so.
Q2) Four-year-old Jamal is likely to consider __________ as more wrong than __________.
A) burping at the table; cheating at a game
B) eating ice cream with his fingers; stealing an apple
C) failing to say "please"; lying
D) stealing an eraser; licking his plate
Q3) Parents are most likely to use forceful methods of discipline when __________.
A) they want to foster long-term goals
B) very serious transgressions occur
C) immediate obedience is necessary
D) children are verbally aggressive toward others
Q4) Discuss some ways to reduce gender stereotyping in young children.
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Q5) Compare and contrast the authoritative and authoritarian child-rearing styles.

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Q1) Children from economically advantaged homes are at their healthiest in __________.
A) infancy
B) early childhood
C) middle childhood
D) adolescence
Q2) With increasing education, parents establish a __________ style of communication, like that of classrooms and tests.
A) collaborative
B) convergent
C) hierarchical
D) knowledge-training
Q3) Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) __________.
A) is usually a lifelong disorder
B) does not respond to drug treatment
C) is most effectively treated by medication alone
D) has little to no impact on the affected child's family
Q4) Discuss educating gifted children. How well do programs for the gifted nurture children's talents and creativity?
Q5) Discuss the consequences of childhood obesity.
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Q1) Erikson's sense of __________ combines several developments of middle childhood: a positive but realistic self-concept, pride in accomplishment, moral responsibility, and cooperative participation with agemates.
A) trust
B) autonomy
C) identity
D) industry
Q2) Describe the characteristics of popular children, distinguishing between prosocial and antisocial children.
Q3) During the school years, friendship becomes __________.
A) less complex
B) more psychologically based
C) more proximity based
D) less trust based
Q4) What factors foster resilience in middle childhood?
Q5) Which child is more likely to hold racial and ethnic prejudices?
A) Anna, who judges others as "good" or "bad"
B) Becky, who has high interracial contact
C) Richard, who has overly high self-esteem
D) Jared, who has an ethnically diverse family
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Q1) Most potential high school dropouts need __________.
A) intensive remedial instruction in small classes
B) less exposure to vocational education classes
C) to curb their extracurricular involvement
D) larger, more diverse classroom environments
Q2) Which statement about parent child relationships in adolescence is true?
A) Research shows that puberty is related to a decrease in intensity of parent child conflict.
B) Psychological distancing is a modern substitute for leaving the family around the time of puberty.
C) Adolescents' new powers of reasoning contribute to a decline in family tensions.
D) Parent son conflict tends to be more intense than conflict with daughters.
Q3) __________ parenting is linked to higher grades in school among adolescents varying widely in SES.
A) Permissive
B) Authoritarian
C) Uninvolved
D) Authoritative
Q4) What is the role of heredity in sexual orientation?
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Q1) Gilligan argues that Kohlberg's theory of moral understanding __________.
A) does not adequately represent the morality of girls and women
B) does not adequately represent the morality of boys and men
C) shows that there are no sex differences in moral reasoning
D) overemphasizes the role of emotion in moral judgment
Q2) Police arrests and self-reports show that delinquency __________.
A) is equally common among boys and girls
B) rises over adolescence and then declines from the early twenties on
C) rises over late childhood and early adolescence and then declines
D) in adolescence usually leads to a life of crime
Q3) Teenage girls are twice as likely as boys to __________.
A) report persistent depressed mood
B) show low rates of depressive symptoms
C) have risk factors for suicide
D) kill themselves
Q4) Some studies on zero tolerance policies have found that they __________,
A) drastically reduce antisocial behavior, both in and out of school
B) reduce youth aggression and other forms of misconduct
C) focus on severe acts of disruptive and threatening behavior
D) heighten school dropout and antisocial behavior
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Q1) According to Holland, people who choose construction, plumbing, or surveying prefer
A) working with ideas
B) real-world problems
C) well-structured tasks
D) individual expression
Q2) College students who __________ show large cognitive gains.
A) engage in campus academics but avoid involvement in extracurricular campus life
B) focus on classroom learning rather than civic engagement in their chosen field
C) connect their community service experiences with their classroom learning
D) interact with racially, ethnically, sexually, and religiously homogeneous peers
Q3) Most Americans eat __________.
A) to maintain the body's functions
B) the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables
C) the right amount but the wrong types of food
D) because they feel like it or because it is time to do so
Q4) Briefly describe the psychological impact of attending college.
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Q1) In Western nations, there has been an especially dramatic rise in cohabitation among __________ young people.
A) well-educated
B) low-SES
C) unemployed
D) deeply religious
Q2) Levinson found that during the transition to early adulthood, most young people
__________.
A) focused on finding a life partner
B) constructed a dream that guided their decision making
C) became reflective about the meaning of life
D) became "keepers of meaning," or guardians of their culture
Q3) According to Vaillant, men become "keepers of meaning," or guardians of their culture, in their __________.
A) teens and twenties
B) thirties and forties
C) fifties and sixties
D) seventies and eighties
Q4) Describe the gender differences in same-sex adult friendships.
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Q1) On both simple and complex reaction-time tasks, response time __________.
A) decreases gradually from the early forties into the nineties
B) remains the same throughout the lifespan
C) increases slowly from the forties to the sixties
D) increases steadily from the early twenties into the nineties
Q2) Maria has trouble remembering where she parks her car in the large office parking lot. Her solution is to park in the same area of the parking lot every day. She is using __________ knowledge.
A) semantic
B) metacognitive
C) procedural
D) fluid
Q3) Chrissy regards most experiences as controllable. She displays a committed approach to daily activities and views change as a normal part of life and a chance for personal growth. Chrissy fits the pattern of a __________ individual.
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) pessimistic
D) hardy
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Q1) Negative turning points described by MIDUS participants __________.
A) resembled midlife crises
B) usually involved work-related issues
C) generally led to personal growth
D) focused on the physical changes of aging
Q2) Which statement is true about caring for aging parents?
A) Nearly half of American working women are caregivers for aging parents who are in poor health.
B) As adults move from early to later middle age, the sex difference in parental caregiving declines.
C) Adults who share a household with ill parents experience less stress than those whose parents live elsewhere.
D) Most middle-aged adults say that caring for an ill or disabled parent is less stressful than parenting a young child.
Q3) Middle-aged people __________.
A) attach great value to the friendship relationship
B) see friendship as protection against serious losses
C) see friendship as offering security within a long-term timeframe
D) do not try as hard as younger people to get along with their friends
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Q1) Although touch sensitivity typically diminishes in late adulthood, responsiveness to __________ is an exception.
A) cold surfaces
B) water
C) gentle stroking
D) painful touch
Q2) Which statement is true about Alzheimer's disease?
A) By 2030, the number of Americans with Alzheimer's is expected to be cut in half.
B) At first, recent memory is most impaired, but as serious disorientation sets in, recall of distant events evaporates.
C) Among the early symptoms of the disease are tremors, shuffling gait, loss of facial expression, and stooped posture.
D) Alzheimer's accounts for about one-quarter of all dementia cases, though at older ages, the percentage declines.
Q3) Define and describe ADLs and IADLs. What percentage of U.S. older adults have limitations carrying out these activities?
Q4) Define and describe terminal decline.
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Q1) According to Erikson, __________ occurs when aging adults feel they have made many wrong decisions, yet time is too short to find an alternate route to integrity.
A) mistrust
B) despair
C) stagnation
D) isolation
Q2) Describe two highly predictable, complementary behavior patterns involving control versus dependency that people interacting with older adults often fall into.
Q3) Which statement is true about late-life friendships?
A) Friendships decrease in importance in late adulthood.
B) Older adults report more favorable experiences with friends than with family members.
C) Late-life friendships rely little on spontaneity, openness, mutual caring, or common interests.
D) In late adulthood, friends rarely share pleasurable leisure activities.
Q4) Describe THE GREEN HOUSEĀ® model. How is it different from traditional nursing home care?
Q5) Discuss the concept of gerotranscendence.
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Q1) Terminally ill Ms. Padgett has a buildup of fluid in her throat, which is causing a rattled breathing sound. As her heartbeat disintegrates, her muscles spasm and she gasps. Ms. Padgett is experiencing which phase of death?
A) brain death
B) clinical death
C) the agonal phase
D) mortality
Q2) Banko believes that all physical and mental states are transient and that it is possible for a dying person to attain a state in which there is no suffering, desire, or sense of self. Banko is likely __________.
A) African American
B) Native American
C) Buddhist
D) a member of the Maori tribe
Q3) Adjusting to a sudden death is easier when the survivor __________.
A) understands the reasons for it
B) concludes that he or she contributed to it
C) believes that it was random
D) assumes that it was preventable
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