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Child and Adolescent Health Nursing focuses on the principles and practices of nursing care for children, adolescents, and their families. The course emphasizes growth and development, health promotion, disease prevention, and management of acute and chronic conditions common in pediatric populations. Students learn to apply the nursing process effectively, provide culturally sensitive care, and address the unique physical, emotional, and psychosocial needs of young patients across various healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on family-centered care, communication skills, advocacy, and collaboration with interdisciplinary teams to foster optimal health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 4th Edition by Shannon E. Perry
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55 Chapters
1509 Verified Questions
1509 Flashcards
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38119
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is unsure about how to perform a client care procedure,the best action would be to:
A)Ask another nurse.
B)Discuss the procedure with the client's physician.
C)Look up the procedure in a nursing textbook.
D)Consult the agency procedure manual and follow the guidelines for the procedure.
Answer: D
Q2) A 38-year-old Hispanic woman delivered a 9-pound,6-ounce baby girl vaginally after being in labor for 43 hours. The baby died 3 days later from sepsis. On what grounds would the woman potentially have a legitimate legal case for negligence?
A)She is Hispanic.
B)She delivered a girl.
C)The standards of care were not met.
D)She refused fetal monitoring.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society is known as:
A)Acculturation.
B)Assimilation.
C)Ethnocentrism.
D)Cultural relativism.
Answer: A
Q2) While working in the prenatal clinic,you care for a very diverse group of clients. When planning interventions for these families,you realize that acceptance of the interventions will be most influenced by:
A)Educational achievement.
B)Income level.
C)Subcultural group.
D)Individual beliefs.
Answer: D
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38121
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be aware that a statistic widely used to compare the health status of different populations would be the:
A)Incidence of specific infections such as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and tuberculosis.
B)Infant mortality rate.
C)Maternal morbidity rate.
D)Incidence of low-birth-weight infants.
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse should be aware that the well-known program "warm lines":
A)Was developed as a reaction to impersonal telephonic nursing care.
B)Was set up to take complaints about health maintenance organizations (HMOs).
C)Is the second option when 911 hot lines are busy.
D)Refers to community service telephone lines designed to provide new parents with encouragement and basic information.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) What opiate causes euphoria,relaxation,drowsiness,and detachment from reality and has possible effects on the pregnancy,including preeclampsia,intrauterine growth restriction,and premature rupture of membranes?
A)Heroin
B)Alcohol
C)PCP
D)Cocaine
Q2) A thorough abuse assessment screen should be done on all clients. This screen includes (choose all that apply):
A)Asking the client if she has ever been slapped,kicked,punched,or physically hurt by her partner.
B)Asking the client if she is afraid of her partner.
C)Asking the client if she has been forced to perform sexual acts.
D)Diagramming the client's current injuries on a body map.
E)Asking the client what she did wrong to elicit the abuse.
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Q1) The two primary functions of the ovary are:
A)Normal female development and sex hormone release.
B)Ovulation and internal pelvic support.
C)Sexual response and ovulation.
D)Ovulation and hormone production.
Q2) Physiologically sexual response can be characterized by:
A)Coitus,masturbation,and fantasy.
B)Myotonia and vasocongestion.
C)Erection and orgasm.
D)Excitement,plateau,and orgasm.
Q3) Which statement about female sexual response is NOT accurate?
A)Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm.
B)Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels.
C)The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle.
D)Facial grimaces and spasms of hands and feet are often part of arousal.
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman,the nurse documents the following findings: profuse,thin,grayish white vaginal discharge with a "fishy" odor;complaint of pruritus. On the basis of these findings,the nurse suspects that this woman has:
A)Bacterial vaginosis (BV).
B)Candidiasis.
C)Trichomoniasis.
D)Gonorrhea.
Q2) The nurse should know that once human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enters the body,seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within:
A)6 to 10 days.
B)2 to 4 weeks.
C)6 to 8 weeks.
D)6 months.
Q3) Any episode of vaginal bleeding that occurs at a time other than during menses is referred to as _______________.
Q4) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute febrile reaction associated with treatment for __________________.
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurse's most appropriate response would be:
A)"This is a highly effective method,but it has some side effects."
B)"Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill."
C)"The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication."
D)"This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history."
Q2) Although remarkable developments have occurred in reproductive medicine,assisted reproductive therapies are associated with a number of legal and ethical issues. Nurses can provide accurate information about the risks and benefits of treatment alternatives so couples can make informed decisions about their choice of treatment. Which issue would not need to be addressed by an infertile couple before treatment?
A)Risks of multiple gestation
B)Whether or how to disclose the facts of conception to offspring
C)Freezing embryos for later use
D)Financial ability to cover the cost of treatment
Q3) ________________ _______________ _________________ (LAM) can be a highly effective,temporary method of birth control.
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sally comes in for her first prenatal examination. This is her first child. She asks you (the nurse),"How does my baby get air inside my uterus?" The correct response is:
A)"The baby's lungs work in utero to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."
B)"The baby absorbs oxygen from your blood system."
C)"The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream."
D)"The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical artery to the baby's abdomen."
Q2) A man's wife is pregnant for the third time. One child was born with cystic fibrosis,and the other child is healthy. The man wonders what the chance is that this child will have cystic fibrosis. This type of testing is known as:
A)Occurrence risk.
B)Recurrence risk.
C)Predictive testing.
D)Predisposition testing.
Q3) ____________________ twins is another term for fraternal twins. These twins may be the same or different sexes and genetically are no more alike than siblings born at different times.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has been diagnosed with a high risk pregnancy. She and her husband come into the office in a very anxious state. She seems to be coping by withdrawing from the discussion,showing declining interest. The nurse can best help the couple by:
A)Telling her that the physician will isolate the problem with more tests.
B)Encouraging her and urging her to continue with childbirth classes.
C)Becoming assertive and laying out the decisions the couple needs to make.
D)Downplaying her risks by citing success rate studies.
Q2) A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant,although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day,but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time?
A)Ultrasound examination
B)Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening (MSAFP)
C)Amniocentesis
D)Nonstress test (NST)
Q3) MSAFP levels have been used as a screening tool for ________________ in pregnancy.
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31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38128
Sample Questions
Q1) To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their breasts,nurses should be aware that:
A)The visibility of blood vessels that form an intertwining blue network indicates full function of Montgomery's tubercles and possibly infection of the tubercles.
B)The mammary glands do not develop until 2 weeks before labor.
C)Lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth.
D)Colostrum is the yellowish oily substance used to lubricate the nipples for breastfeeding.
Q2) A woman is at 14 weeks of gestation. The nurse would expect to palpate the fundus at which level?
A)Not palpable above the symphysis at this time
B)Slightly above the symphysis pubis
C)At the level of the umbilicus
D)Slightly above the umbilicus
Q3) ____________________ is when the fetus begins to descend and drop into the pelvis.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38129
Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood pressure (BP) finding during the second trimester indicates a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A)Baseline BP 120/80,current BP 126/85
B)Baseline BP 100/70,current BP 130/85
C)Baseline BP 140/85,current BP 130/80
D)Baseline BP 110/60,current BP 110/60
Q2) A 30-year-old primigravida client is at the clinic for her initial prenatal visit. She is unsure of her chickenpox immune status. The nurse should recommend that this woman have a ____________________________ drawn.
Q3) Which statement about multifetal pregnancy is NOT accurate?
A)The expectant mother often develops anemia because the fetuses have a greater demand for iron.
B)Twin pregnancies come to term with the same frequency as single pregnancies.
C)The mother should be counseled to increase her nutritional intake and gain more weight.
D)Backache and varicose veins often are more pronounced.
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Q1) Three servings of milk,yogurt,or cheese plus two servings of meat,poultry,or fish will adequately supply the recommended amount of protein for the pregnant woman. Many clients are concerned about the increased levels of mercury in fish and may be afraid to include this source of nutrients in their diet. Sound advice by the nurse to assist the client in determining which fish is safe to consume would include:
A)Canned white tuna is a preferred choice.
B)Avoid shark,swordfish,and mackerel.
C)Fish caught in local waterways are the safest.
D)Salmon and shrimp contain high levels of mercury.
Q2) Which meal would provide the most absorbable iron?
A)Toasted cheese sandwich,celery sticks,tomato slices,and a grape drink
B)Oatmeal,whole wheat toast,jelly,and low-fat milk
C)Black bean soup,wheat crackers,ambrosia (orange sections,coconut,and pecans),and prunes
D)Red beans and rice,cornbread,mixed greens,and decaffeinated tea
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the association of maternal diabetes and other risk situations affecting mother and fetus,nurses should be aware that:
A)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) can lead to fetal death at any time during pregnancy.
B)Hydramnios occurs approximately twice as often in diabetic pregnancies.
C)Infections occur about as often and are considered about as serious in diabetic and nondiabetic pregnancies.
D)Even mild-to-moderate hypoglycemic episodes can have significant effects on fetal well-being.
Q2) With what heart condition is pregnancy not usually contraindicated?
A)Peripartum cardiomyopathy
B)Eisenmenger syndrome
C)Heart transplant
D)All of these contraindicate pregnancy.
Q3) Most women with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) develop type 2 diabetes in the postpartum period.
A)True
B)False
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38132
Sample Questions
Q1) Preeclampsia is a unique disease process related only to human pregnancy. The exact cause of this condition continues to elude researchers. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists has developed a comprehensive list of risk factors associated with the development of preeclampsia. Which client exhibits the greatest number of these risk factors?
A)A 30-year-old obese Caucasian with her third pregnancy
B)A 41-year-old Caucasian primigravida
C)An African-American client who is 19 years old and pregnant with twins
D)A 25-year-old Asian-American,whose pregnancy is the result of donor insemination
Q2) Your client has been on magnesium sulfate for 20 hours for treatment of preeclampsia. She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago. What uterine findings would you expect to observe/assess in this client?
A)Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period
B)A fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus
C)Scant lochia flow
D)A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow
Q3) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38133
Sample Questions
Q1) A ____________________ pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth.
Q2) The nurse would expect which maternal cardiovascular finding during labor?
A)Increased cardiac output
B)Decreased pulse rate
C)Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
D)Decreased blood pressure
Q3) Signs that precede labor include (choose all that apply):
A)Lightening.
B)Exhaustion.
C)Bloody show.
D)Rupture of membranes.
E)Decreased fetal movement.
Q4) When assessing a woman in labor,the nurse is aware that the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another is called fetal:
A)Lie.
B)Presentation.
C)Attitude.
D)Position.
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28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38134
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman in labor has just received an epidural block. The most important nursing intervention is to:
A)Limit parenteral fluids.
B)Monitor the fetus for possible tachycardia.
C)Monitor the maternal blood pressure for possible hypotension.
D)Monitor the maternal pulse for possible bradycardia.
Q2) Maternal hypotension is a potential side effect of regional anesthesia and analgesia. What nursing interventions could you use to raise the client's blood pressure? Choose all that apply.
A)Place the woman in a supine position.
B)Place the woman in a lateral position.
C)Increase intravenous (IV) fluids.
D)Administer oxygen.
E)Perform a vaginal examination.
Q3) If an opioid antagonist is administered to a laboring woman,she should be told that:
A)Her pain will decrease.
B)Her pain will return.
C)She will feel less anxious.
D)She will no longer feel the urge to push.
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Q1) Fetal well-being during labor is assessed by:
A)The response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs).
B)Maternal pain control.
C)Accelerations in the FHR.
D)An FHR above 110 beats/min.
Q2) The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that increased variability of the fetal heart rate might be caused by:
A)Narcotics.
B)Barbiturates.
C)Methamphetamines.
D)Tranquilizers.
Q3) During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have:
A)Bradycardia.
B)A normal baseline heart rate.
C)Tachycardia.
D)Hypoxia.
Q4) External fetal monitoring cannot detect the ____________________ of uterine contractions.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses should not use ____________________ pressure to facilitate birth,because no standard techniques are available for this maneuver and no legal,professional,or regulatory standards exist for its use.
Q2) The most critical nursing action in caring for the newborn immediately after birth is:
A)Keeping the newborn's airway clear.
B)Fostering parent-newborn attachment.
C)Drying the newborn and wrapping the infant in a blanket.
D)Administering eye drops and vitamin K.
Q3) A pregnant woman is in her third trimester. She asks the nurse to explain how she can tell true labor from false labor. The nurse would tell her that true labor contractions:
A)Increase with activity such as ambulation.
B)Decrease with activity.
C)Are always accompanied by the rupture of the bag of waters.
D)Alternate between a regular and irregular pattern.
Q4) A ____________________-degree perineal laceration continues through the anal sphincter muscle.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse providing care for a woman with preterm labor on terbutaline would include which intervention to identify side effects of the drug?
A)Assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
B)Assessing for dyspnea and crackles
C)Assessing for bradycardia
D)Assessing for hypoglycemia
Q2) Prepidil (prostaglandin gel) has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to:
A)Enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta.
B)Increase amniotic fluid volume.
C)Ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction.
D)Stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture.
Q3) What assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation?
A)Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
B)Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus
C)Preterm labor and birth
D)Postterm gestation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition,not uncommon in pregnancy,is likely to require careful medical assessment during the puerperium?
A)Varicosities of the legs
B)Carpal tunnel syndrome
C)Periodic numbness and tingling of the fingers
D)Headaches
Q2) Which description of postpartum restoration or healing times is accurate?
A)The cervix shortens,becomes firm,and returns to form within a month postpartum.
B)The vagina gradually returns to prepregnancy size by 6 to 10 weeks after childbirth.
C)Most episiotomies heal within a week.
D)Hemorrhoids usually decrease in size within 2 weeks of childbirth.
Q3) Although all other joints return to their normal prepregnancy state,those in the parous woman's feet do not. The new mother may notice a permanent increase in her shoe size.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under the Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act,all health plans are required to allow new mothers and newborns to remain in the hospital for a minimum of _____ hours after a normal vaginal birth and for _____ hours after a cesarean birth.
A)24,73
B)24,96
C)48,96
D)48,120
Q2) Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes;the most common is:
A)Vaginal or vulvar hematomas.
B)Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix.
C)Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly.
D)Retained placental fragments.
Q3) In a variation of rooming-in,called couplet care,the mother and infant share a room,and the mother shares the care of the infant with:
A)The father of the infant.
B)Her mother (the infant's grandmother).
C)Her eldest daughter (the infant's sister).
D)The nurse.
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Q1) ____________________ is the process by which the parent and infant come to love and accept each other.
Q2) The nurse observes that a 15-year-old mother seems to ignore her newborn. A strategy that the nurse can use to facilitate mother-infant attachment in this mother is to:
A)Tell the mother she must pay attention to her infant.
B)Show the mother how the infant initiates interaction and pays attention to her.
C)Demonstrate for the mother different positions for holding her infant while feeding.
D)Arrange for the mother to watch a video on parent-infant interaction.
Q3) The nurse hears a primiparous woman talking to her son and telling him that his chin is just like his dad's chin. This woman's statement reflects:
A)Mutuality.
B)Synchrony.
C)Claiming.
D)Reciprocity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses who want to help parents with their decision making about an autopsy or who may be required to be involved in seeking consent for autopsies should be aware that:
A)Autopsies not specifically covered by insurance or done under the jurisdiction of the medical examiner's office can be very expensive.
B)Autopsies must be done within a few hours after delivery.
C)In the current litigious society more autopsies are performed than in the past.
D)Most parents who refuse the examination regret it later.
Q2) When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum depression (PPD) with psychotic features,one of the main concerns is that she may:
A)Have outbursts of anger.
B)Neglect her hygiene.
C)Harm her infant.
D)Lose interest in her husband.
Q3) _________________________ refers to the grief response that occurs with reminders of loss. This typically happens on special anniversary dates of the loss.
Q4) ____________________ is the most common postpartum infection.
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Q1) A client is warm and asks for a fan in her room for her comfort. The nurse enters the room to assess the mother and her infant and finds the infant unwrapped in his crib with the fan blowing over him on "high." The nurse instructs the mother that the fan should not be directed toward the newborn and the newborn should be wrapped in a blanket. The mother asks why. The nurse's best response is:
A)"Your baby may lose heat by convection,which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him."
B)"Your baby may lose heat by conduction,which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him."
C)"Your baby may lose heat by evaporation,which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him."
D)"Your baby will get cold stressed easily and needs to be bundled up at all times."
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Q1) In the classification of newborns by gestational age and birth weight,the appropriate for gestational age (AGA) weight would:
A)Fall between the 25th and 75th percentiles for the infant's age.
B)Depend on the infant's length and the size of the head.
C)Fall between the 10th and 90th percentiles for the infant's age.
D)Be modified to consider intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
Q2) An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment. Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. The Apgar assessment is performed:
A)Only if the newborn is in obvious distress.
B)Once by the obstetrician,just after the birth.
C)At least twice,1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
D)Every 15 minutes during the newborn's first hour after birth.
Q3) The nurse is discussing infant care as part of the mother-infant's couplet discharge planning. The mother asks the nurse,"When will my baby's cord fall off?" The nurse responds,"Your baby's cord should fall off by ____________________ (weeks/days) after birth."
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Q1) With regard to the special qualities of human breast milk,nurses should be aware that:
A)Frequent feedings during predictable growth spurts stimulate increased milk production.
B)The milk of preterm mothers is the same as the milk of mothers who gave birth at term.
C)The milk at the beginning of the feeding is the same as the milk at the end of the feeding.
D)Colostrum is an early,less concentrated,less rich version of mature milk.
Q2) With regard to basic care of the breastfeeding mother,nurses should be able to advise her that she:
A)Will need an extra 1000 calories a day to maintain energy and produce milk.
B)Can go back to prepregnancy consumption patterns of any drinks,as long as she gets enough calcium.
C)Should avoid trying to lose large amounts of weight.
D)Must avoid exercising because it is too fatiguing.
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Q1) A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization the infant is weighed,and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 pounds,6 ounces). The nurse's most appropriate action is to:
A)Leave the infant in the room with the mother.
B)Take the infant immediately to the nursery.
C)Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age.
D)Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia.
Q2) The corrected age of an infant who was born at 25 1/7 weeks and is preparing for discharge 124 days past delivery is ____________________.
Q3) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa. The signs of NEC are nonspecific. Some generalized signs include:
A)Hypertonia,tachycardia,and metabolic alkalosis.
B)Abdominal distention,temperature instability,and grossly bloody stools.
C)Hypertension,absence of apnea,and ruddy skin color.
D)Scaphoid abdomen,no residual with feedings,and increased urinary output.
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Q1) Which infant would be more likely to have Rh incompatibility?
A)Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor
B)Infant who is Rh negative and whose mother is Rh negative
C)Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and heterozygous for the Rh factor
D)Infant who is Rh positive and whose mother is Rh positive
Q2) The abuse of which of the following substances during pregnancy is the leading cause of cognitive impairment in the United States?
A)Alcohol
B)Tobacco
C)Marijuana
D)Heroin
Q3) What bacterial infection is definitely decreasing because of effective drug treatment?
A)Escherichia coli infection
B)Tuberculosis
C)Candidiasis
D)Group B streptococcal infection
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Q1) What is most descriptive of family-centered care?
A)Reduces effect of cultural diversity on the family
B)Encourages family dependence on health care system
C)Recognizes that the family is the constant in a child's life
D)Avoids expecting families to be part of the decision-making process
Q2) Which of the following is descriptive of deaths caused by unintentional injuries?
A)More deaths occur in males.
B)More deaths occur in females.
C)Pattern of deaths varies widely in Western societies.
D)Pattern of deaths does not vary according to age and sex.
Q3) What is descriptive of morbidity in childhood?
A)Morbidity does not vary with age.
B)Morbidity is not distributed randomly.
C)Little can be done to improve morbidity.
D)Unintentional injuries do not have an effect on morbidity.
Q4) EBP,__________________ _____________ _______________,is the collection,interpretation and integration of valid,important and applicable patient-reported,nurse-observed and research-derived information.
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Q1) Which term best describes the identification of the distribution and causes of disease,injury,or illness?
A)Nursing process
B)Epidemiologic process
C)Community-based statistics
D)Mortality and morbidity statistics
Q2) The nurse is collecting subjective and objective information about the target population to diagnose problems based on community needs. Which step in the community nursing process is this?
A)Planning
B)Diagnosis
C)Assessment
D)Establishing objectives
Q3) A local community has recently experienced severe flooding with loss of homes and injuries. Counseling has been provided to assist families in coping with the sequelae of this natural disaster. This is an example of primary prevention.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. She comments,"I want to go back to work,but I don't want Eric to suffer because I'll have less time with him." The nurse's most appropriate answer is:
A)"I'm sure he'll be fine if you get a good babysitter."
B)"You will need to stay home until Eric starts school."
C)"You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others."
D)"Let's talk about the child-care options that will be best for Eric."
Q2) A young couple who has just delivered their first child adapts to the stress of new parenthood by using two types of family resources. These include (choose all that apply):
A)Internal resources.
B)Adaptation.
C)Integration.
D)Coping strategies.
E)Community resources.
Q3) What type of family is one in which all members are related by blood?
A)Consanguineous
B)Affinal
C)Family of origin
D)Household
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Q1) Which term best describes the emotional attitude that one's own ethnic group is superior to others?
A)Culture
B)Ethnicity
C)Superiority
D)Ethnocentrism
Q2) A young child from Mexico is hospitalized for a serious illness. The father tells the nurse that the child is being punished by God for being bad. The nurse should recognize that this is:
A)A health belief common in this culture.
B)An early indication of potential child abuse.
C)A misunderstanding of the family's common beliefs.
D)A belief common when fortune tellers have been used.
Q3) Poverty has serious implications for children and families. Social and cultural deprivation,including limited employment opportunities,inferior educational opportunities,inferior or no access to health care,and a lack of public services,is referred to as the __________________ type of poverty.
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Q1) By the time children reach their twelfth birthday,they should have learned to trust others and should have developed a sense of:
A)Identity.
B)Industry.
C)Integrity.
D)Intimacy.
Q2) The head-to-tail direction of growth is referred to as:
A)Cephalocaudal.
B)Proximodistal.
C)Mass to specific.
D)Sequential.
Q3) Which term refers to those times in an individual's life when he or she is more susceptible to positive or negative influences?
A)Sensitive period
B)Sequential period
C)Terminal points
D)Differentiation points
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the health history should the nurse describe all details related to the chief complaint?
A)Past history
B)Chief complaint
C)Present illness
D)Review of systems
Q2) An 8-year-old girl asks the nurse how the blood pressure apparatus works. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A)Ask her why she wants to know.
B)Determine why she is so anxious.
C)Explain in simple terms how it works.
D)Tell her she will see how it works as it is used.
Q3) What action is most likely to encourage parents to talk about their feelings related to their child's illness?
A)Be sympathetic.
B)Use direct questions.
C)Use open-ended questions.
D)Avoid periods of silence.
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Q1) Kyle,age 6 months,is brought to the clinic. His parent says,"I think he hurts. He cries and rolls his head from side to side a lot." This most likely suggests which feature of pain?
A)Type
B)Severity
C)Duration
D)Location
Q2) Skin-to-skin holding of infants dressed only in diapers next to their mother's or father's chest is commonly known as _________________ care.
Q3) Which drug is usually the best choice for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for a child in the immediate postoperative period?
A)Codeine
B)Morphine
C)Methadone
D)Meperidine
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Q1) Parents tell the nurse that their 1-year-old son often sleeps with them. They seem unconcerned about this. The nurse's response should be based on knowing that:
A)Children should not sleep with their parents.
B)Separation from parents should be completed by this age.
C)Daytime attention should be increased.
D)This is a common and accepted practice,especially in some cultural groups.
Q2) In terms of gross motor development,what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do? Choose all that apply.
A)Roll from abdomen to back
B)Put feet in mouth when supine
C)Roll from back to abdomen
D)Sit erect without support
E)Move from prone to sitting position
F) Adjust posture to reach an object
Q3) When is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant's diet?
A)2 to 3 months
B)4 to 6 months
C)When birth weight has tripled
D)When tooth eruption has started
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Q1) Which is characteristic of physical development of a 30-month-old child? Choose all that apply.
A)Birth weight has doubled.
B)Primary dentition is complete.
C)Sphincter control is achieved.
D)Anterior fontanel is open.
E)Length from birth is doubled.
F) Left- or right-handedness is established.
Q2) Parents tell the nurse that their toddler daughter eats little at mealtime,only sits at the table with the family briefly,and wants snacks "all the time." The nurse should recommend that the parents:
A)Give her planned,frequent,and nutritious snacks.
B)Offer rewards for eating at mealtimes.
C)Avoid snacks so she is hungry at mealtimes.
D)Explain to her in a firm manner what is expected of her.
Q3) An appropriate recommendation in preventing tooth decay in young children is to:
A)Substitute raisins for candy.
B)Serve sweets after a meal.
C)Use honey or molasses instead of refined sugar.
D)Serve sweets between meals.
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Q1) A normal characteristic of the language development of a preschool-age child is: A)Lisp.
B)Stammering.
C)Echolalia.
D)Repetition without meaning.
Q2) In terms of fine motor development,what could the 3-year-old child be expected to do?
A)Tie shoelaces.
B)Use scissors or a pencil very well.
C)Draw a person with seven to nine parts.
D)Copy (draw) a circle.
Q3) What may be given to high risk children after exposure to chickenpox to prevent varicella?
A)Acyclovir
B)Vitamin A
C)Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
D)Varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG)
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Q1) Generally the earliest age at which puberty begins is:
A)13 years in girls,13 years in boys
B)11 years in girls,11 years in boys
C)10 years in girls;12 years in boys
D)12 years in girls,10 years in boys
Q2) A 9-year-old child has just been diagnosed with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP). What should the nurse include in preparing the family for discharge? Choose all that apply.
A)"Your child should be on a high-fiber diet."
B)"You may give your child a stimulant laxative once a week."
C)"You should help your child with bowel training to establish regular bowel habits."
D)"Your child may place ice packs on the abdomen when pain occurs."
Q3) Turner's syndrome is suspected in an adolescent girl with short stature. This is caused by:
A)Absence of one of the X chromosomes.
B)Presence of an incomplete Y chromosome.
C)Precocious puberty in an otherwise healthy child.
D)Excess production of both androgens and estrogens.
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Q1) According to Erikson,the psychosocial task of adolescence is developing:
A)Intimacy.
B)Identity.
C)Initiative.
D)Independence.
Q2) By what age should concerns about pubertal delay be considered in boys?
A)12 to 12.5 years
B)12.5 to 13 years
C)13 to 13.5 years
D)13.5 to 14 years
Q3) The school nurse tells adolescents in the clinic that confidentiality and privacy will be maintained unless a life-threatening situation arises. This practice is:
A)Not appropriate in a school setting.
B)Never appropriate because adolescents are minors.
C)Important in establishing trusting relationships.
D)Suggestive that the nurse is meeting his or her own needs.
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Q1) Which intervention will encourage a sense of autonomy in a toddler with disabilities?
A)Avoiding separation from family during hospitalizations
B)Encouraging independence in as many areas as possible
C)Exposing child to pleasurable experiences as much as possible
D)Helping parents learn special care needs of their child
Q2) A 16-year-old boy with a chronic illness has recently become rebellious and is taking risks such as missing doses of his medication. The nurse should explain to his parents that:
A)He needs more discipline.
B)He needs more socialization with peers.
C)This is part of normal adolescence.
D)This is how he is asking for more parental control.
Q3) The feeling of guilt that the child "caused" the disability or illness is especially critical in which child?
A)Toddler
B)Preschooler
C)School-age child
D)Adolescent
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Q1) When a child with mild cognitive impairment reaches the end of adolescence,what characteristic would be expected?
A)Achieves a mental age of 5 to 6 years
B)Achieves a mental age of 8 to 12 years
C)Unable to progress in functional reading or arithmetic
D)Acquires practical skills and useful reading and arithmetic to an eighth-grade level
Q2) An implanted ear prosthesis for children with sensorineural hearing loss is a(n):
A)Hearing aid.
B)Cochlear implant.
C)Auditory implant.
D)Amplification device.
Q3) Fragile X syndrome is:
A)A chromosome defect affecting only females.
B)A chromosome defect that follows the pattern of X-linked recessive disorders.
C)The second most common genetic cause of cognitive impairment.
D)The most common cause of noninherited cognitive impairment.
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Q1) When communicating with other professionals,it is important for home care nurses to:
A)Ask others what they want to know.
B)Share everything known about the family.
C)Restrict communication to clinically relevant information.
D)Recognize that confidentiality is not possible.
Q2) A family wants to begin oral feeding of their 4-year-old son,who is ventilator dependent and currently tube fed. They ask the home health nurse to feed him the baby food orally. The nurse recognizes a high risk of aspiration and an already compromised respiratory status. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A)Refuse to feed him orally because the risk is too high.
B)Explain the risks involved and let the family decide what should be done.
C)Feed him orally because the family has the right to make this decision for their child.
D)Acknowledge their request,explain the risks,and explore with the family the available options.
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Q1) The nurse is doing a prehospitalization orientation for Diana,age 7,who is scheduled for cardiac surgery. As part of the preparation,the nurse explains that she will not be able to talk because of an endotracheal tube but that she will be able to talk when it is removed. This explanation is:
A)Unnecessary.
B)The surgeon's responsibility.
C)Too stressful for a young child.
D)An appropriate part of the child's preparation.
Q2) Ryan has just been unexpectedly admitted to the intensive care unit after abdominal surgery. The nursing staff has completed the admission process,and Ryan's condition is beginning to stabilize. When speaking with the parents,the nurses should expect which stressors to be evident? Choose all that apply.
A)Unfamiliar environment
B)Usual day-night routine
C)Strange smells
D)Provision of privacy
E)Inadequate knowledge of condition and routine
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Q1) Place the child in the supine position with head slightly hyperflexed.
A) Lubricate the nasogastric tube with water-soluble lubricant.
B) Tape the nasogastric tube securely to the child's face.
C) Check the placement of the tube by aspirating stomach contents.
D) Place the child in the supine position with head slightly hyperflexed.
E) Insert the nasogastric tube through the nares.
F) Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the ear lobe to midpoint between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus.
Q2) Lubricate the nasogastric tube with water-soluble lubricant.
A) Lubricate the nasogastric tube with water-soluble lubricant.
B) Tape the nasogastric tube securely to the child's face.
C) Check the placement of the tube by aspirating stomach contents.
D) Place the child in the supine position with head slightly hyperflexed.
E) Insert the nasogastric tube through the nares.
F) Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the ear lobe to midpoint between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus.
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Q1) Feel carotid pulse while maintaining head tilt with the other hand.
A) Place on a hard surface.
B) Administer 30 chest compressions with two breaths.
C) Feel carotid pulse while maintaining head tilt with the other hand.
D) Use the head tilt-chin lift maneuver and check for breathing.
E) Place heel of one hand on lower half of sternum with other hand on top.
F) Give two rescue breaths.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a 10-month-old infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) bronchiolitis. Which interventions should be included in the child's care? Choose all that apply.
A)Place in a mist tent.
B)Administer antibiotics.
C)Administer cough syrup.
D)Encourage infant to drink 8 ounces of formula every 4 hours.
E)Cluster care to encourage adequate rest.
F) Place on noninvasive oxygen monitoring.
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Q1) The best chance of survival for a child with cirrhosis is:
A)Liver transplantation.
B)Treatment with corticosteroids.
C)Treatment with immune globulin.
D)Provision of nutritional support.
Q2) Therapeutic management of the child with acute diarrhea and dehydration usually begins with:
A)Clear liquids.
B)Adsorbents such as kaolin and pectin.
C)Oral rehydration solution (ORS).
D)Antidiarrheal medications such as paregoric.
Q3) Bismuth subsalicylate,clarithromycin,and metronidazole are prescribed for a child with a peptic ulcer to:
A)Eradicate Helicobacter pylori.
B)Coat gastric mucosa.
C)Treat epigastric pain.
D)Reduce gastric acid production.
Q4) A family who excludes meat from their diet but consumes dairy products would be referred to as ________________________ vegetarians.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a child after heart surgery. What should he or she do if evidence is found of cardiac tamponade?
A)Increase analgesia.
B)Apply warming blankets.
C)Immediately report this to the physician.
D)Encourage the child to cough,turn,and breathe deeply.
Q2) Parents of a 3-year-old child with congenital heart disease are afraid to let their child play with other children because of possible overexertion. The nurse's reply should be based on knowing that:
A)The child needs opportunities to play with peers.
B)The child needs to understand that peers' activities are too strenuous.
C)Parents can meet all the child's needs.
D)Constant parental supervision is needed to avoid overexertion.
Q3) The leading cause of death after heart transplantation is:
A)Infection.
B)Rejection.
C)Cardiomyopathy.
D)Congestive heart failure.
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Q1) The parents of a child with cancer tell the nurse that a bone marrow transplant (BMT) may be necessary. What should the nurse recognize as important when discussing this with the family?
A)BMT should be done at time of diagnosis.
B)Parents and siblings of child have a 25% chance of being a suitable donor.
C)Finding a suitable donor involves matching antigens from the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system.
D)If BMT fails,chemotherapy or radiotherapy must be continued.
Q2) What is caused by a virus that primarily infects a specific subset of T lymphocytes,the CD4<sup>+</sup>T cells?
A)Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
B)Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
C)Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
D)Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Q3) A common clinical manifestation of Hodgkin's disease is:
A)Petechiae.
B)Bone and joint pain.
C)Painful,enlarged lymph nodes.
D)Enlarged,firm,nontender lymph nodes.
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Q1) Calcium carbonate is given with meals to a child with chronic renal disease. The purpose of this is to:
A)Prevent vomiting.
B)Bind phosphorus.
C)Stimulate appetite.
D)Increase absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
Q2) The diet of a child with chronic renal failure is usually characterized as:
A)High in protein.
B)Low in vitamin D.
C)Low in phosphorus.
D)Supplemented with vitamins A,E,and K.
Q3) A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse would expect the urinalysis during this acute phase to show:
A)Bacteriuria,hematuria.
B)Hematuria,proteinuria.
C)Bacteriuria,increased specific gravity.
D)Proteinuria,decreased specific gravity.
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Q1) Which type of fracture describes traumatic separation of cranial sutures?
A)Basilar
B)Compound
C)Diastatic
D)Depressed
Q2) Which test is never performed on a child who is awake?
A)Oculovestibular response
B)Doll's head maneuver
C)Funduscopic examination for papilledema
D)Assessment of pyramidal tract lesions
Q3) The nurse is preparing a school-age child for a computed tomography (CT scan) to assess cerebral function. When preparing the child for the scan,which statement should the nurse include?
A)"Pain medication will be given."
B)"The scan will not hurt."
C)"You will be able to move once the equipment is in place."
D)"Unfortunately no one can remain in the room with you during the test."
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Q1) A child with growth hormone (GH) deficiency is receiving GH therapy. The best time for the GH to be administered is:
A)At bedtime.
B)After meals.
C)Before meals.
D)On arising in the morning.
Q2) Which statement best describes hypopituitarism?
A)Growth is normal during the first 3 years of life.
B)Weight is usually more retarded than height.
C)Skeletal proportions are normal for age.
D)Most of these children have subnormal intelligence.
Q3) Chronic adrenocortical insufficiency is also referred to as:
A)Graves' disease.
B)Addison's disease.
C)Cushing syndrome.
D)Hashimoto's disease.
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Q1) Impetigo ordinarily results in:
A)No scarring.
B)Pigmented spots.
C)Slightly depressed scars.
D)Atrophic white scars.
Q2) An important nursing consideration when caring for a child with impetigo contagiosa is to:
A)Apply topical corticosteroids to decrease inflammation.
B)Carefully remove dressings so as not to dislodge undermined skin,crusts,and debris.
C)Carefully wash hands and maintain cleanliness when caring for an infected child.
D)Examine child under a Wood lamp for possible spread of lesions.
Q3) Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella virus and has an affinity for:
A)Sympathetic nerve fibers.
B)Parasympathetic nerve fibers.
C)Posterior root ganglia and the posterior horn of the spinal cord.
D)Lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord.
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Q1) A neonate is born with mild clubfeet. When the parents ask the nurse how this will be corrected,the nurse should explain that:
A)Traction is tried first.
B)Surgical intervention is needed.
C)Frequent,serial casting is tried first.
D)Children outgrow this condition when they learn to walk.
Q2) An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a child in traction is to:
A)Remove adhesive traction straps daily to prevent skin breakdown.
B)Assess for tightness,weakness,or contractures in uninvolved joints and muscles.
C)Provide active range-of-motion exercises to affected extremity three times a day.
D)Keep child in one position to maintain good alignment.
Q3) What would cause a nurse to suspect that an infection has developed under a cast?
A)Complaint of paresthesia
B)Cold toes
C)Increased respirations
D)"Hot spots" felt on cast surface
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Q1) A young boy has just been diagnosed with pseudohypertrophic (Duchenne) muscular dystrophy. The management plan should include:
A)Recommending genetic counseling.
B)Explaining that the disease is easily treated.
C)Suggesting ways to limit the use of muscles.
D)Assisting the family in finding a nursing facility to provide his care.
Q2) The parents of a child with cerebral palsy ask the nurse if any drugs can decrease their child's spasticity. The nurse's response should be based on knowing that:
A)Anticonvulsant medications are sometimes useful for controlling spasticity.
B)Medications that would be useful in reducing spasticity are too toxic for use with children.
C)Many different medications can be highly effective in controlling spasticity.
D)Implantation of a pump to deliver medication into the intrathecal space to decrease spasticity has recently become available.
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