Child and Adolescent Development
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Child and Adolescent Development is a comprehensive course that examines the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur from infancy through adolescence. This course explores the major theories and research findings in developmental psychology, focusing on how genetic, familial, cultural, and societal factors influence growth and behavior. Students will analyze milestones and challenges within various developmental domains, consider the impact of contemporary issues such as technology and mental health, and apply their understanding to educational and social contexts. The knowledge gained will be valuable for students pursuing careers in education, psychology, healthcare, and other fields that support the well-being of children and adolescents.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Life Span Development 3rd Edition by John Santrock
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) This theorist proposed that psychosexual development occurred in the five stages: oral stage, anal stage, phallic stage, latent stage, and genital stage.
Answer: Sigmund Freud
Q2) According to Piaget's theory, two processes underlie children's cognitive construction of the world:
A) assimilation and generalization.
B) adaptation and abstraction.
C) association and abstraction.
D) organization and adaptation.
Answer: D
Q3) Dr. Nasrin believes that associating behavior with consequence can shape the probability of a behavior occurring. He is arguing that _____ conditioning is important for behavioral modification.
A) stimulus
B) operant
C) classical
D) cognitive
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Biological Beginnings
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Q1) A psychological perspective that emphasizes the importance of adaptation, reproduction, and "survival of the fittest" in shaping human behavior.
Answer: Evolutionary psychology
Q2) The structure that contains two arteries and one vein, and connects the developing embryo to the mother's body, is called the _____.
A) amnion
B) placenta
C) embryo
D) umbilical cord
Answer: D
Q3) List three possible causes of infertility in women and in men.
Answer: Lack of ovulation, producing abnormal ova, blocked fallopian tubes, and disease preventing implantation of the ova in the uterus, are some of the causes of infertility in women. Sperm lacking motility, low sperm count, and blocked passageways could be causes of infertility in men.
Q4) A complex molecule, with a double helix shape, that contains genetic information.
Answer: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
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Chapter 3: Physical and Cognitive Development in Infancy
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Q1) June knows the names of all the states that comprise the United States. The names of the states are a part of June's _____ memory.
A) innate
B) explicit
C) distinctive
D) implicit
Answer: B
Q2) The peak of synaptic overproduction in the _____ occurs at about the fourth postnatal month.
A) spinal cord
B) prefrontal cortex
C) visual cortex
D) parietal lobe
Answer: C
Q3) In the "sticky mittens" research project, it was found that:
A) the infants in the mitten group developed grasping skills earlier.
B) the infants in the group without mittens developed grasping skills faster.
C) both groups developed grasping skills at the same pace.
D) the group without mittens developed better object manipulation skills.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Socioemotional Development in Infancy
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Q1) When one-month-old Mai is sleeping, it often looks like she is smiling. This is an example of a _____ smile.
A) private
B) reflexive
C) natural
D) social
Q2) Baby Pilar is crying. Her crying is characterized by the sudden appearance of loud crying without preliminary moaning, followed by breath holding. This is most likely a
Q3) According to psychiatrists Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas, a(n) _____ child has a low activity level, is somewhat negative, and displays a low intensity of mood.
A) slow-to-warm-up
B) easy
C) difficult
D) flexible
Q4) Savina is low in activity level, somewhat negative in affect and doesn't like novelty. How would Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas most likely describe her temperament?
Q5) Describe the Strange Situation. What is an important criticism of this method?
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Chapter 5: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) Which of the following is a second substage of preoperational thought?
A) Formal operational
B) Intuitive thought
C) Concrete operational
D) Symbolic function
Q2) In a "Tools of the Mind" classroom, _____ has a central role.
A) nutrition
B) didactic lecture
C) dramatic play
D) abstract presentation
Q3) During early childhood, on average, girls are _____ than boys.
A) much lighter
B) more fair
C) slightly smaller
D) considerably taller
Q4) Vygotsky believed that children construct knowledge through:
A) self-discovery.
B) social interaction.
C) reorganization of existing knowledge.
D) transforming previous knowledge.
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Chapter 6: Socioemotional Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) Suzie, 3, has to eat everything on her plate at dinner or her father punishes her by sending her to bed without dinner the next day. Suzie also has strict schedules for playing, television, and studying, and any disobedience leads to spanking and punishments. Suzie's father is most likely a(n):
A) authoritarian parent.
B) authoritative parent.
C) indulgent parent.
D) neglectful parent.
Q2) Which of the following is true about lower-SES parents in the United States and most Western cultures?
A) Lower-SES parents create a home atmosphere in which children are more nearly equal participants and in which rules are discussed as opposed to being laid down" in an authoritarian manner.
B) Lower-SES parents are more concerned with developing children's initiative and delay of gratification.
C) Lower-SES parents are more concerned that their children conform to society's expectations.
D) Lower-SES parents are less directive and more conversational with their children.
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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle and Late Childhood
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Q1) If the word "win" is on a list of words a child is asked to remember, the child might think of the last time he won a pony race with a friend. This is an example of _____.
A) rehearsal
B) organization
C) inclusion
D) elaboration
Q2) Identify and describe the most common child cancer.
Q3) _____ is a severe developmental disorder that has its onset in the first three years of life and includes deficiencies in social relationships, abnormalities in communication, and restricted, repetitive, and stereotyped patterns of behavior.
A) Asperger syndrome
B) ADHD
C) Autistic disorder
D) ICF syndrome
Q4) According to Robert J. Sternberg, which type of intelligence in students is most likely to be favored in conventional schooling?
Q5) This theorist distinguished between convergent thinking and divergent thinking.
Page 9
Q6) Is giftedness a product of heredity or environment? Give one example.
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Chapter 8: Socioemotional Development in Middle and Late Childhood
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Q1) Angie's mother allows her to schedule her own study and relaxation times, with the expectation that Angie must continue doing well in school and must discuss her activities with her mother ahead of time. Angie's mother checks on Angie's school progress frequently and also talks to her about her social life and problems. This approach is called:
A) boundary ambiguity.
B) latchkey control.
C) unilateral control.
D) coregulation.
Q2) Carol Gilligan has criticized Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development because:
A) it is based on a male norm that puts abstract principles above relationships.
B) it does not recognize higher-level moral reasoning in certain cultural groups.
C) Kohlberg underestimated the contribution of family relationships to moral development.
D) it places too much emphasis on moral thought and not enough emphasis on moral behavior.
Q3) List and describe the levels of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development.
Q4) The belief that one can master a situation and produce favorable outcomes.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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Q1) In a U.S. national survey conducted in 2009, it was found that nationally, _____ percent of twelfth-graders reported being sexually active.
A) 70
B) 15
C) 49
D) 80
Q2) What role does the top-dog phenomenon play when adolescents make the transition to middle or to junior high school?
Q3) This theorist suggested that adolescent egocentrism is characterized by "the imaginary audience" and the "personal fable."
Q4) According to the study by Lloyd Johnston and his colleagues at the Institute of Social Research at the University of Michigan monitoring the drug use of America's high school seniors in a wide range of public and private high schools, the percentage of illicit drug use:
A) declined in the late 1990s.
B) was highest during the early 1990s.
C) has been at the same level since 1990.
D) increased significantly between 2000-2005.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Socioemotional Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Which of the following is the most frequently cited factor associated with adolescent suicide?
A) Use of alcohol
B) Suicidal behavior in friends
C) Drug use
D) Depression
Q2) _____ are larger than cliques and less personal.
A) Bands
B) Crowds
C) Teams
D) Squads
Q3) Which status of identity would be most closely linked to an authoritarian style of parenting?
Q4) According to Erik Erikson, which of the following developmental stages is experienced by an individual during adolescence?
A) Autonomy versus shame and doubt
B) Intimacy versus isolation
C) Initiative versus guilt
D) Identity versus identity confusion
Q5) The self-portrait composed of many pieces.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) What are some of the physical and psychological effects of unemployment?
Q2) Researchers have found that male rapists share the following characteristics: aggression enhances their sense of power or masculinity; they are angry at women in general; and _____.
A) they have an overwhelming need for sex.
B) they want to hurt and humiliate their victims.
C) they believe that the victim was not hurt by the rape.
D) they are generally physically strong men.
Q3) List two reasons that deaths due to HIV/AIDS have begun to decline in the United States.
Q4) About _____ of college men admit that they fondle women against their will, and half admit to forcing sexual activity.
A) a quarter
B) one-tenth
C) two-thirds
D) half
Q5) A new stage of cognitive development that is believed to follow Piaget's fourth state of formal operational thought.
Q6) According to research, what is the best strategy to lose weight?
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Chapter 12: Socioemotional Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) In Sternberg's view, an affair or a fling in which there is little intimacy and even less commitment is an example of _____.
A) infatuation
B) consummation
C) fatuous love
D) companionate love
Q2) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of being single in early adulthood.
Q3) Individuals with an anxious attachment style:
A) are hesitant about getting involved in romantic relationships, but are committed once they are in one.
B) demand closeness in relationships and are more emotional.
C) are less likely than others to have one-night stands.
D) tend to distance themselves from their partner.
Q4) A recent study revealed that in their early twenties, women showed more _____ with their closest friend than did men.
A) emotional intimacy
B) rivalry
C) competition
D) physical intimacy
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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) Identify three of the physical changes that take place during middle adulthood; provide an example of these changes.
Q2) In a longitudinal study of individuals from their early thirties through their late sixties/early seventies:
A) a significant increase in spirituality occurred between late middle and late adulthood.
B) spirituality peaked in late middle adulthood.
C) there was no significant change in spirituality from late middle to late adulthood.
D) a dramatic decrease in spirituality occurred between late middle and late adulthood.
Q3) Today the average life expectancy in the United States is:
A) 72 years.
B) 74 years.
C) 78 years.
D) 80 years.
Q4) Describe the differences between LDL and HDL and some of the changes one can make in lifestyle to affect cholesterol levels.
Q5) This theorist referred to midlife as "the afternoon of life."
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Chapter 14: Socioemotional Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) Middle adulthood is referred to as the sandwich generation because:
A) life is very hectic and families rarely have a full meal together.
B) people expect middle-aged adults to be both wise and mature as well as young and energetic.
C) middle-aged adults are caught in a conflict between caring more for their spouse's parents than their own.
D) middle-aged adults may have to care for their own adolescent children as well as their elderly parents.
Q2) Which of the following Big Five personality factors describes an individual as either self-satisfied or self-pitying?
A) Openness
B) Agreeableness
C) Neuroticism
D) Extraversion
Q3) When men face stress, they are more likely to respond in a:
A) composed manner.
B) fight-or-flight manner.
C) stagnant manner.
D) tend and befriend pattern.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Late
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following is a similarity between Alzheimer and Parkinson disease?
A) Both are triggered by a deficiency of the important brain messenger chemical acetylcholine.
B) Both are progressive in nature.
C) Both affect only the elderly.
D) Both are easily managed with medication.
Q2) Helen's knowledge of calculus and statistics is a part of her _____ memory.
A) semantic
B) episodic
C) prospective
D) implicit
Q3) Compared with elderly men, elderly women are LESS likely to have:
A) arthritis.
B) hypertension.
C) visual problems.
D) hearing problems.
Q4) The generation of new neurons.
Q5) What is the difference between life span and life expectancy?
Page 17
Q6) A focused and extended engagement with an object, task, event, or some other aspect of the environment.
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Chapter 16: Socioemotional Development in Late
Adulthood
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Q1) Identify the possible double jeopardy for elderly ethnic minority individuals.
A) Sexism and chauvinism
B) Nepotism and egotism
C) Adultism and adultcentrism
D) Ageism and racism
Q2) When working with older clients, some clinicians use _____ therapy. Vanda is in one such therapy program and her clinician has her discussing past activities and experiences with other individuals in her group.
A) Gestalt
B) reminiscence
C) schema
D) drama
Q3) _____ illness is long-term, often lifelong, and requires long-term, if not life-term, management.
A) Acute
B) Chronic
C) Terminal
D) Debilitating
Q4) Name and briefly discuss Erikson's final stage of development.
Q5) What does activity theory suggest for older adults?
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Chapter 17: Death, Dying, and Grieving
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Q1) Kübler-Ross describes the _____ stage as the end of the dying struggle.
A) anger
B) acceptance
C) bargaining
D) depression
Q2) _____ is the emotional numbness, disbelief, separation anxiety, despair, sadness, and loneliness that accompany the loss of someone we love.
A) Grief
B) Anger
C) Obsession
D) Denial
Q3) In the Gond culture of India, death is believed to be caused by:
A) natural forces.
B) an angry supreme being.
C) the ill will of others in the community.
D) magic and demons.
Q4) Describe Kubler-Ross' last stage of dying.
Q5) What is an advance directive?
Q6) What are the advantages of letting dying individuals know that they are dying?
Q7) Define hospice and explain its focus.
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