Child and Adolescent Development
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social development of children and adolescents from conception through adolescence. Students will examine major developmental theories, current research, and influential factors such as family, peers, culture, and media. Special emphasis is placed on understanding the complexities of development at different life stages, recognizing individual differences, and identifying how developmental knowledge can inform educational practice and support healthy, effective interactions with young people.
Recommended Textbook
HDEV 5th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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19 Chapters
2228 Verified Questions
2228 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extinction results from repeated performance of operant behavior without reinforcement
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Jean-Jacques Rousseau believed that children were born inherently evil.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) James is a chain smoker, and when he's not smoking he is chewing gum. According to Freud, James is likely fixated on the _____ of development.
A) anal stage
B) oral stage
C) phallic stage
D) genital stage
Answer: B
Q4) John Locke said that children begin life as a clean slate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to a study in the year 2013 by Fellman, the chances of twins:
A) increase when a woman conceives before she is 21.
B) increase with parental age.
C) decrease with the number of times couples have sex before conception.
D) decrease with the use of fertility drugs.
Answer: B
Q2) Matt is a 36-year-old male. In the past year, he has noticed that his limbs sometimes move on their own, and he has also started having trouble remembering things and doing simple calculations. Matt's father and grandfather were also known to have similar problems during their adulthood. Matt is most likely suffering from:
A) phenylketonuria (PKU).
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) Turner syndrome.
D) Huntington's disease (HD).
Answer: D
Q3) Typical human cells contain 50 chromosomes organized into 25 pairs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: in the New World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sudden infant death syndrome refers to the death, while sleeping, of apparently healthy babies who stop breathing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Babies who sleep on a firm sleep surface are most likely to die from sudden infant death syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) _________is the chemical in the body that has a role in the development of sudden infant death syndrome.
A) Serotonin
B) Adrenalin
C) Dopamine
D) Testosterone
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elsa is a one-year-old infant. Her mother notices that while playing in the garden, Elsa often picks up tiny insects and worms by making a tight fist. A few months before, she had only been able to pat the insects and not pick them up as they were so tiny. This is an example of _____.
A) a pincer grasp
B) canalization
C) an ulnar grasp
D) habituation
Q2) Which of the following is true of myelination?
A) It is complete at birth.
B) Myelination of the brain's prefrontal matter is completed during neonatal development.
C) The breakdown of myelin generally occurs in the first decade of life.
D) It is part of the maturation process that leads to the abilities to crawl and walk during the first year after birth.
Q3) Discuss the development of hearing in neonates.
Q4) In the context of Eleanor Gibson's findings, discuss the changes that occur in the perceptual processes of children.
Q5) Describe the benefits and problems associated with breast-feeding.
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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child is shown two objects for 20 seconds. After this, one of the objects is replaced and the infant spends more time looking at the new object. Which of the following processes does this represent?
A) Visual recognition memory
B) Canalization
C) Centration
D) Deferred imitation
Q2) Damage to Wernicke's area in the brain is likely to cause a condition called _____.
A) Down syndrome
B) aphasia
C) cystic fibrosis
D) sickle-cell anemia
Q3) Which of the following is used in the Bayley Scales of Infant Development?
A) A scale measuring the environmental influences on an infant
B) A behavior rating scale
C) A scale measuring the cultural influences on an infant
D) A maternal behavior scale
Q4) Discuss prelinguistic vocalization.
Q5) Discuss the critical period for language acquisition in children.
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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following children would be the least distressed by the departure of his or her mother from the room in which they are playing?
A) Moira, who displays disorganized-disoriented attachment
B) Charles, who displays ambivalent/resistant attachment
C) Henry, who displays avoidant attachment
D) Lily, who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder
Q2) According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, an infant's attachment to his or her mother in the first year is primarily a result of:
A) the fulfillment of oral needs.
B) genetic similarities.
C) the reinforcement and shaping of the infant's behavior by the mother.
D) the achievement of object permanence on the part of the mother.
Q3) In Kochanska's study on emotional development, resistant children were found to be most fearful and they frequently responded with distress even in episodes designed to evoke joy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss some of the adverse effects of child abuse.
Q5) What are the different causes of autism?
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Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aggressive children appear to be:
A) more empathic than their peers.
B) more accurate in interpreting the intentions of others.
C) lacking in the ability to see things from the perspective of others.
D) less egocentric than their peers.
Q2) _________methods to enforce restrictions on children include physical punishment and denial of privileges.
A) Deductive
B) Permissive-indulgent
C) Authoritative
D) Power-assertive
Q3) According to the cognitive-developmental view of gender typing proposed by Lawrence Kohlberg, children:
A) use gender as one way of organizing their perceptions of the world.
B) form concepts about gender and then fit their behavior to the concepts.
C) can distinguish whether they are boys or girls at the age of one year.
D) can discriminate anatomic gender differences at the age of 18 months.
Q4) Explain how peer interactions foster social skills.
Page 10
Q5) Describe the permissive-indulgent parenting style.
Q6) Describe the authoritarian parenting style.
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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following physiological changes occur during the middle childhood years?
A) Reaction time increases.
B) Muscles grow weaker.
C) Neural pathways become less myelinated.
D) Experience refines sensorimotor abilities.
Q2) Divergent thinking is the:
A) free and fluent association to the elements of a problem.
B) view that retribution for wrongdoing is a direct consequence of the wrongdoing.
C) judgment of acts as moral when they conform to authority or to the rules of the game.
D) thought process that attempts to focus on the single best solution to a problem.
Q3) Reaction time tends to increase through middle childhood and adolescence.
A)True B)False
Q4) Bilingual children have less cognitive flexibility than monolingual children. A)True B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Juan, a nine-year-old boy, wanders away from his father during a visit to the supermarket. After being found 30 minutes later, he tells his father that he wanted to look at the Halloween decorations a little longer. Although he expects his father to be angry with him, he believes that his father would stop being upset if he saw the decorations were attractive. He fails to consider that his father might feel differently. According to Robert Selman, this scenario illustrates _____.
A) level 1 of perspective-taking skills in childhood
B) the phallic stage
C) the latency stage
D) level 0 of perspective-taking skills in childhood
Q2) Rahul is five years old. He wants to be with his parents at all times and follows them from room to room. He refuses to go out and play with other children of his age. He even clings to his father in the playground. Rahul is showing symptoms of _____.
A) dissociative identity disorder
B) separation anxiety disorder
C) narcissistic personality disorder
D) attention-deficit disorder
Q3) Discuss conduct disorders that are noticed in middle childhood.
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Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development
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121 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marijuana, Ecstasy, LSD, and PCP are examples of _________.
A) stimulants
B) depressants
C) hallucinogenics
D) amphetamines
Q2) In the context of adolescent egocentrism, which of the following is true of the concept of the imaginary audience?
A) It involves the belief that one's thoughts are unique and special.
B) It involves risky behavior where adolescents form online relationships with strangers.
C) It involves the assumption that other people are concerned with one's appearance more so than they really are.
D) It involves an intense desire to be in the public eye and a disregard for personal appearance.
Q3) Discuss the gender differences in verbal ability among adolescents.
Q4) Disadvantaged adolescent female African Americans are more likely to graduate from high school and avoid coercive romantic relationships.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development
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126 Verified Questions
126 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of juvenile delinquency?
A) Girls are much more likely than boys to engage in delinquent behavior such as robbery.
B) Similar patterns of delinquency are observed among teenagers belonging to different ethnic groups.
C) Crimes committed by adolescents from a stable economic background are considered status offenses.
D) Girls are more likely than boys to commit offenses such as truancy.
Q2) In the context of adolescent suicide, which of the following statements is true?
A) Genetic factors have no influence on suicidal tendencies.
B) Women are more likely than men to complete a suicide.
C) Highly achieving teenagers are unlikely to consider suicide.
D) Drug abuse is a warning sign of suicidal tendencies.
Q3) Identify a true statement about adolescent suicides in the United States.
A) About seven in ten adolescents have attempted suicide at least once.
B) Since 1960, the suicide rate has decreased for young people aged 15 to 24.
C) About one to two U.S.adolescents in 10,000 commit suicide each year.
D) Suicide is the leading cause of death among adolescents in the United States.
Q4) Discuss adolescents' relationship with their parents.
Q5) Describe Erik Erikson's fifth stage of psychosocial development.
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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) As early adulthood progresses, fertility:
A) increases for both men and women.
B) declines for women, but not for men.
C) declines gradually for both men and women.
D) remains stable for men and increases for women.
Q2) Nikki has just completed college and has joined as a trainee at a design firm. She lives with her mother and is trying to save money. She feels that she has overcome adolescence but has not yet fully attained adulthood. In the context of the characteristics of emerging adulthood theorized by Jeffrey Arnett, Nikki is _____.
A) experiencing the feature of possibilities
B) experiencing the feature of feeling in-between
C) illustrating egocentrism
D) illustrating narcissism
Q3) The _________stage of Donald Super's theory of career development involves "settling" into and improving skills at a job.
A) fantasy
B) retirement
C) tentative choice
D) maintenance
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why young adults in the United States get married.
Q2) Erikson, like Havighurst, has been criticized for suggesting that young adults: A) may not be able to gauge the extent to which their developing values may conflict with those of a potential intimate partner.
B) who have established a firm sense of identity during adolescence are unprepared for fusing their identity with those of other people through marriage and friendships. C) who choose to remain celibate or single are not developing normally.
D) who had not achieved ego identity may not be ready to commit themselves to others.
Q3) George and Lucy are married, and they are committed to each other. Their marriage best illustrates _____.
A) polyandry
B) monogamy
C) polygyny
D) bigamy
Q4) Discuss the characteristics of lonely people.
Q5) What is the conflict identified by Erikson for the phase of early adulthood? What are the criticisms against Erickson?
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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of cognitive development in middle adulthood?
A) Intellectual development in adulthood shows multidirectionality and interindividual variability.
B) Intellectual abilities are established in early adulthood and cannot be modified in middle adulthood.
C) Cognitive development in middle adulthood is characterized by an increase in fluid intelligence.
D) Cognitive development in middle adulthood is characterized by a decrease in crystallized intelligence.
Q2) Define menopause, perimenopause, and the climacteric.
Q3) The body responds to the presence of antigens by:
A) producing more insulin through the pancreas.
B) burning fewer calories than usual.
C) coordinating appropriate muscular responses.
D) generating specialized proteins, or antibodies.
Q4) Prolonged stress boosts the functioning of the immune system.
A)True
B)False
18
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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________is most likely to cause tunnel vision.
A) Glaucoma
B) Myopia
C) Hypermetropia
D) Nystagmus
Q2) What is Medicare?
A) It is a federal program that regulates healthcare costs for all uninsured Americans.
B) It is a federal program that fully covers healthcare costs of terminally ill older adults in America.
C) It is a federal program that partially funds health care for older Americans and the disabled.
D) It is a federal program that covers a portion of the healthcare costs of people of all ages who are otherwise unable to afford coverage.
Q3) Osteoarthritis is a painful, degenerative disease characterized by wear and tear on joints.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the incidents and reasons behind accidents among late adults.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of activity theory?
A) It suggests that physical and social activities in late adulthood are likely to hasten physical and cognitive impairment of older adults.
B) It suggests withdrawal from society as an effective means to handle the challenges of successful aging.
C) It is based on the belief that physical activity is associated with a higher mortality rate in late adulthood.
D) It places many of the barriers to physical and social activities of older adults in social attitudes and in structural matters.
Q2) It is normal for older people to be depressed when their friends and partners are dying.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Older adults may be reluctant to relocate to nursing homes because:
A) they afford and prefer live-in nursing staff.
B) close family members usually live near nursing homes.
C) nursing homes signify the loss of independence.
D) they fear exposure to crimes of violence.
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Chapter 19: Lifes
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the characteristics of hospice care.
Q2) Identify a true statement about grief.
A) Adolescents do not experience grief over the loss of a loved one.
B) Grief can compromise the immune system.
C) Grief can realistically last only for six months.
D) Grief is a disenfranchised emotion for most people.
Q3) Many people at most ages assume, or are encouraged to assume, a _____ in their thinking about death.
A) pessimistic approach
B) medically-induced reversibility
C) form of spiritual reversibility
D) Piagetian route
Q4) A person who is declared brain dead:
A) is unlikely to exhibit any vital life functions.
B) can continue to breathe.
C) can show normal activity in the cerebral cortex.
D) is likely to be conscious.
Q5) There is typically a fixed period of time for which grief should last.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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