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Child and Adolescent Development explores the biological, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur from infancy through adolescence. The course examines major theories and research findings related to physical growth, language acquisition, personality, identity formation, and the influence of family, peers, and culture on development. Emphasis is placed on understanding developmental milestones, the impact of early experiences, and the challenges faced during this period, such as behavioral issues, mental health concerns, and social adjustment. Students will also analyze practical implications for education, parenting, and supporting healthy development across diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Human Development A Life-Span View 3rd Edition by Christine Ateah
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17 Chapters
1788 Verified Questions
1788 Flashcards
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110 Verified Questions
110 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rutger believes that, rather than progressing through a sequence of stages, mental processes gradually get more complex and efficient. Which theory does Rutger most likely support?
A) Piaget's theory
B) Kohlberg's theory
C) information-processing theory
D) Erikson's theory
Answer: C
Q2) Dr. Arantes uses a biopsychosocial framework for understanding human development. Which position is he most likely to endorse on the nature vs. nurture issue?
A) Nature is most important.
B) Nurture is most important.
C) Nature and nurture both play important roles in human development.
D) Neither nature nor nurture is important in the study of human development.
Answer: C
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106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) José, who was adopted at birth, is found to have personality characteristics more similar to his biological mother than to his adoptive mother. How should you interpret these data?
A) Personality appears to be a polygenetic characteristic.
B) Personality characteristics are learned.
C) Personality characteristics are influenced by genes.
D) Personality characteristics appear to be recessive.
Answer: C
Q2) What do we call the structure through which a pregnant woman and an embryo exchange waste and nutrients?
A) the amnion
B) the stem cell
C) the germ disc
D) the placenta
Answer: D
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148 Verified Questions
148 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Piaget, what is equilibration a balance between?
A) primary and secondary circular reactions
B) assimilation and accommodation
C) thought and language
D) social and cognitive skills
Answer: B
Q2) Baby Justin is old enough to start consuming solid foods. What is the first food that is recommended for 6- to 9-month old children like Justin?
A) iron-fortified rice cereal
B) whole milk
C) egg yolks
D) mashed bananas
Answer: A
Q3) Approximately what percentage of the world's population is right-handed?
A) 90%
B) 80%
C) 70%
D) 60%
Answer: A
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75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr. Samuels is an evolutionary psychologist who believes that numerous human behaviours are representative of an individual's successful adaptation to what?
A) one's peers
B) one's level of intelligence
C) one's environment
D) one's age
Q2) Consider the biopsychosocial explanation of attachment. Which forces are involved in parental responses to infant crying and laughing?
A) biological forces
B) psychological forces
C) cognitive forces
D) sociocultural forces
Q3) Stan is playing with his ball, and Billy is playing with his doll, but they are each watching what the other is doing. What are Stan and Billy most likely involved in?
A) cooperative play
B) parallel play
C) simple social play
D) prosocial behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which child is receiving the adequate amount of sleep?
A) Petra, who is 2 years old and sleeps 10 hours.
B) Frankie, who is 3 years old and sleeps 13 hours.
C) Jocelyn, who is 4 years old and sleeps 8 hours.
D) Pedro, who is 6 years old and sleeps 12 hours.
Q2) Which principle of counting states that there must be a single number name for each item counted?
A) the one-to-one principle
B) the stable-order principle
C) the habituation principle
D) the cardinality principle
Q3) According to Piaget, when does preoperational thinking occur?
A) It always follows sensorimotor thinking.
B) It is not experienced by children prior to the age of 10.
C) It always comes before sensorimotor thinking.
D) It is always followed by a period of egocentrism.
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Q1) In terms of controlling the behaviour of a child, what is it best for parents to do?
A) Pay no attention to the child-let the child do whatever he or she wants
B) Totally control the life of the child.
C) Give the child total freedom, while supplying parental support for his or her behaviour.
D) Maintain some control, while allowing some freedom.
Q2) With which person is Rosalind most likely to act altruistically?
A) Demi, whom Rosalind has never met
B) Masja, who was in Rosalind's class last year
C) Hayley, who is Rosalind's little sister
D) Dianne, who is a friend of Rosalind's mother
Q3) When George gets angry with his children, he cannot control his emotions and he often strikes them, often causing bruises and even broken bones. What is George guilty of?
A) sexually abusing his children
B) neglecting his children
C) emotional maltreatment of his children
D) physically abusing his children
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Sample Questions
Q1) If asked to list key symptoms for ADHD, which of the following should you avoid saying?
A) inarticulation
B) overactivity
C) inattention
D) impulsivity
Q2) Who is most associated with a theory of "multiple intelligences" (i.e., existential intelligence, naturalistic intelligence)?
A) John Carroll
B) Alfred Binet
C) Howard Gardner
D) Jean Piaget
Q3) When asked to describe his specialization, Oscar says, "I am mainly interested in developing ways of measuring intelligence and personality factors." What is Oscar most likely to be?
A) a classical-conditioning theorist
B) a Freudian
C) a psychometrician
D) a social-learning theorist
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do only children differ from children with siblings?
A) They are more likely to be introverted.
B) They are more selfish.
C) They are more immature.
D) They have more success in school.
Q2) Which of the following skill sets is improved as a result of children's playing of some video games?
A) linguistic skills
B) interpersonal skills
C) perceptual-spatial skills
D) bodily-kinesthetic skills
Q3) How can Hailey's parents increase her odds of associating with the "brainy crowd" at school?
A) make time with friends contingent on her academic performance
B) hire her a tutor
C) avoid forcing her to make decisions concerning the family
D) monitor her out-of-school behaviour
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of deductive reasoning?
A) If you drink alcohol, you will have a heart attack.
B) 2 + 2 = 5
C) If you love someone, he/she will love you back tenfold.
D) If you play with fire, you're likely to get burned.
Q2) Which concept is best associated with increased content knowledge?
A) increased expertise
B) increased memory capacity
C) increased processing speed
D) increased metacognitive skills
Q3) According to Kohlberg, more advanced reasoning is based upon which of the following factors?
A) religious beliefs
B) personal experiences
C) a personal moral code
D) level of education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is most likely to have the highest self-esteem?
A) 4-year-old Tony
B) 8-year-old Amanda
C) 12-year-old Bobby
D) 16-year-old Tammy
Q2) Which of the following is an example of sexual violence?
A) being hit or kicked during intercourse
B) being bullied to have sexual intercourse
C) being forced to engage in sexual activity against one's will
D) being threatened that nude pictures of you will be shown on the Internet
Q3) Tim was born in Canada. His father is African and his mother is Japanese. If he is in the third state of ethnic identity development, what is he most likely to consider himself?
A) Canadian
B) African Canadian
C) Japanese
D) Canadian with roots in both Africa and Japan
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kate thinks that no matter what she does, she will not be able to do well in her developmental psychology class. What does this perception illustrate?
A) Kate's self-fulfilling prophecy
B) Kate's life-story
C) Kate's crystallized intelligence
D) Kate's personal control beliefs
Q2) What is BMI?
A) a measure of cholesterol in the blood
B) a personality test
C) a device used to assess binge drinking
D) an index related to total body mass
Q3) A doctor is attempting to determine how healthy you are. She uses a formula that contains information regarding your height and weight. What is she most likely measuring?
A) LDL
B) BMI
C) HDL
D) ADA
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of women who are employed outside the home still perform most of the child-rearing responsibilities?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Q2) Based on statistics, which pair would you expect to have had the most past short-term relationships?
A) William and Kenny, who are a gay male couple
B) Debbie and Alan, who are a heterosexual couple
C) Claire and Brooke, who are a lesbian couple
D) Joan and Chris, who are a bisexual couple
Q3) What is the most common reason as to why couples choose to divorce one another?
A) growing apart
B) substance abuse
C) infidelity
D) incompatibility
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Q1) Belinda is a supervisor for a male-dominated architectural firm. How will her colleagues most likely view Belinda, who is the only female in a managerial position?
A) with respect
B) with envy
C) with admiration
D) with negativity
Q2) Super's theory of occupational development places individuals along a continuum. What does the continuum measure?
A) job satisfaction
B) occupational priorities
C) comparable worth
D) vocational maturity
Q3) John experiences a high level of obsessive passion for his work in the military. As a result of this passion, what is John most likely to experience?
A) early retirement
B) burnout
C) a promotion
D) post-traumatic stress disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sandra is a 54-year-old woman who has a positive attitude towards coping with the challenges she has faced during her lifetime. What powerful personal mechanism does Sandra possess?
A) encapsulation
B) determinism
C) ego resilience
D) adaptability
Q2) What does osteoporosis involve?
A) a loss of bone brittleness
B) a loss of bone porousness
C) a loss of bone hormones
D) a loss of bone mass
Q3) What is the greatest personality resource that enables an individual to avoid a midlife crisis?
A) encapsulation
B) Type A behaviour
C) introversion
D) ego resilience
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs much earlier in an individual with Alzheimer's disease?
A) presence of the APP gene
B) decrease in smell and taste perception
C) increase weight loss
D) decrease psychomotor speed
Q2) After assessing Nalini's brain, her physician comments, "You have significantly reduced amounts of dopamine in your midbrain." What does Nalini most likely have?
A) Huntington's disease
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Parkinson's disease
D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q3) What is the key question in determining whether or not Karen should be concerned about her memory?
A) "Does the memory problem interfere in Karen's life?"
B) "Has Karen ever forgotten to perform a household chore?"
C) "Is there a history of memory problems in Karen's family?"
D) "Does anyone think Karen might have a memory problem?"
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do the majority of people retire?
A) because they chose to
B) because they lost their jobs due to layoff or dismissal
C) because they were experiencing health problems
D) because they had to stay home to care for a loved one experiencing health problems
Q2) When coping with high levels of stress, how do individuals who rely on spiritual support differ from those with little religious commitment?
A) They show lower levels of self-esteem.
B) They demonstrate more discomfort with rigid church dogma.
C) They report higher states of well-being.
D) They add to their burden more.
Q3) Which statement best fits with an individual whose life is characterized by minimal continuity?
A) "Could I get any duller?"
B) "Consistency is my middle name."
C) "I wish that I were more spontaneous."
D) "I am never sure what I am going to do next."
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Q1) Which of the following is one of Kastenbaum's (1999) six key considerations for exploring the hospice option?
A) Has the person been informed at all about the nature and prognosis of his or her condition?
B) Does the person have adequate resources to pay for the hospice?
C) Is a high-quality hospice care program available?
D) Does the person have a DNR order?
Q2) What is most likely to help Anita recover from the loss of her spouse?
A) having many acquaintances
B) feeling supported by friends and confidants
C) being a member of a large family
D) social withdrawal
Q3) What kind of grief is best defined as a set of emotions that an individual may go through between the time he or she becomes aware that a person is terminally ill and that person's death?
A) anticipatory grief
B) anniversary grief
C) normal grief
D) abnormal grief
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