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This course offers an in-depth exploration of human development from infancy through adolescence, emphasizing the biological, cognitive, and socioemotional changes that occur throughout these stages. Students will examine major developmental theories, research methods, and factors influencing growth, such as family, culture, and education. Key topics include language acquisition, identity formation, emotional regulation, peer relationships, and the impact of contemporary issues on young people. By the end of the course, students will have a comprehensive understanding of the complexities of development and its implications for supporting healthy growth in children and adolescents.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 3rd edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) Children and adolescents from immigrant families are
A) more likely than their agemates to commit delinquent and violent acts.
B) the fastest growing sector of the U.S. youth population.
C) more likely than their agemates to have early sex.
D) more likely than their agemates to miss school due to illness.
Answer: B
Q2) The __________ is the one the investigator expects to cause changes in another variable.
A) independent variable
B) dependent variable
C) correlation coefficient
D) control group
Answer: A
Q3) In the United States,adolescents from immigrant families
A) view school success as both their own and their parents' success.
B) are more likely than those from native-born families to be obese.
C) report lower self-esteem than those from native-born families.
D) are more likely than their agemates to use drugs.
Answer: A
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Q1) When Harry,Ron,and Hermione are all exposed to an environment with a moderate level of stimulation,
A) they will all experience the same increase in intelligence.
B) they will all obtain an average intelligence score.
C) they will each respond differently to the same environment.
D) Hermione will outperform Harry and Ron on intelligence measures.
Answer: C
Q2) According to the concept of __________,our genes influence the environments to which we are exposed.
A) canalization
B) gene-environment correlation
C) heritability estimation
D) natural selection
Answer: B
Q3) Following mitosis,
A) each new body cell contains unique genetic information.
B) cells divide in half to form the fertilized ovum.
C) each cell loses its cytoplasm.
D) each new body cell contains the same number of chromosomes.
Answer: D
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Q1) Janelle is a first-time mother.The first stage of her labor will probably last between __________ hours.
A) 2 and 4
B) 5 and 7
C) 8 and 10
D) 12 and 14
Answer: D
Q2) The embryonic disk
A) becomes the new organism.
B) is the outer ring of cells on a blastocyst.
C) has a good chance of survival outside the womb.
D) is a protective membrane that surrounds the amnion.
Answer: A
Q3) The sense of vision
A) is well-developed at birth.
B) is the least developed of a newborn's senses.
C) becomes adultlike a few days after birth.
D) is more developed at birth than the sense of hearing.
Answer: B

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Q1) Intermodal
A) sensitivity is crucial for perceptual development.
B) relationships are seldom mastered until the second half of the first year.
C) stimulation is too overwhelming for newborns.
D) perception develops slowly over the first several years.
Q2) Following habituation,when a new stimulus causes responsiveness to return to a high level,
A) the increase is called recovery.
B) the increase is called extinction.
C) a familiarity preference is established.
D) heart rate and respiration rate both decline.
Q3) The Greens have just learned that the boy they plan to adopt is suffering from kwashiorkor.What can you tell them about this disease? Are there long-term consequences?
Q4) According to the cognitive perspective of perceptual development,babies
A) impose meaning on what they perceive.
B) look for ways in which the environment affords possibilities for action.
C) analyze stable relationships in the environment.
D) actively search for discontinuous stimuli.
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Q5) Define and describe the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends in body growth.
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Q1) Most mental tests focus on
A) the process of development.
B) cognitive products.
C) how children's thinking changes.
D) environmental influences on intelligence.
Q2) The IQs of 96 percent of individuals fall between _____ and _____.
A) 60; 100
B) 70; 130
C) 85; 110
D) 100; 140
Q3) In a series of studies using the violation-of-expectation method,Renée Baillargeon and her collaborators claimed to have found evidence for
A) mental representations in babies between 6 and 12 months of age.
B) mental representations in babies between 12 and 15 months of age.
C) object permanence in the first few months of life.
D) tertiary circular reactions in the first few months of life.
Q4) According to the core knowledge perspective,babies are born with a set of innate knowledge systems.List and describe core domains of thought.
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Q5) Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the information-processing perspective.

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Q1) __________ refers to quickness and intensity of emotional arousal,attention,and motor activity.
A) Temperament
B) Reactivity
C) Effortful control
D) Self-regulation
Q2) Define temperament.Describe the difficult child,according to Thomas and Chess.
Q3) Postpartum depression
A) emerges or strengthens after childbirth and fails to subside.
B) in a parent has little or no impact on a child's development.
C) affects fewer than one percent of new mothers and fathers.
D) subsides as the new mother gains confidence in caring for her baby.
Q4) Which of the following are basic emotions?
A) guilt, sadness, and fear
B) happiness, anger, and disgust
C) envy, guilt, and interest
D) pride, surprise, and happiness
Q5) Describe categorical self development.How does it relate to gender typing?
Q6) How does paternal depression affect child development?
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Q1) Research suggests that children with autism
A) are especially skilled at distinguishing facial expressions and engaging in social referencing.
B) are more advanced than their agemates in make-believe play.
C) have difficulty with false-belief tasks long after they reach the intellectual level of an average 4-year-old.
D) have smaller-than-average brains.
Q2) Because of their activity level,__________ are more likely to be injured than
A) shy children; outgoing children
B) boys; girls
C) girls; boys
D) underactive children; overactive children
Q3) Between ages 2 and 6,most children learn about _____ new words each
A) 2; day
B) 5; day
C) 5; week
D) 10; week
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Q4) Describe the development of writing.What does a preschooler's early printing look like?
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Q1) Discuss the emergence of empathy in early childhood.How does this capacity affect prosocial,or altruistic,behavior?
Q2) Four-year-old Cain watches an adult dress a boy doll in girl's clothing.Cain is likely to insist that the doll
A) is a boy wearing a dress.
B) is androgynous.
C) is now a girl.
D) looks pretty.
Q3) Which of the following statements about child maltreatment is true?
A) Child abuse is a modern problem and is especially common in nonindustrialized nations.
B) Parents commit more than 80 percent of abusive incidents.
C) Neglect includes ridicule, humiliation, and intimidation.
D) Nonparent relatives commit about 30 percent of abusive incidents.
Q4) All theories of moral development recognize that conscience begins to take shape
A) prenatally.
B) at birth.
C) in early childhood.
D) in late childhood.

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Q5) How do parents influence gender typing in early childhood?
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Q1) During the elementary school years,vocabulary
A) doubles.
B) triples.
C) increases fourfold.
D) increases tenfold.
Q2) Obese children report __________ than normal-weight children.
A) fewer school difficulties
B) more suicidal thoughts
C) less aggression
D) less social isolation
Q3) As a result of improvements in __________,school-age children can better phrase things in order to get their way.
A) pragmatics
B) vocabulary
C) grammar
D) syntax
Q4) Compare and contrast the whole-language approach and the phonics approach to teaching reading.How do children learn best?
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Q5) Discuss physical education in the United States and its impact on child development.

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Q1) By age 6 to 7,children in diverse Western cultures have formed at least __________ broad self-evaluations.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
Q2) Sibling rivalry can be reduced if
A) parents make an effort not to compare their children.
B) children know that sibling conflict in the home will lead to punishment.
C) the mother pays attention to one child and the father pays attention to the other child.
D) children are encouraged to develop common activities and interests.
Q3) Children in self-care,who regularly look after themselves for some period of time after school,__________ than children in after-school programs.
A) have fewer emotional difficulties
B) are less likely to bend to peer pressure
C) show greater academic achievement
D) are more likely to engage in antisocial behavior
Q4) Describe how child-rearing practices affect the development of self-esteem.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about homosexuality is true?
A) Bisexuality is a transient state.
B) Most homosexual adolescents are "gender-deviant" in dress and behavior.
C) About 50 to 60 percent of adolescents who report having engaged in homosexual acts identify as heterosexual.
D) Attraction to members of the same sex is limited to teenagers who identify as lesbian, gay, or bisexual.
Q2) Girls __________ are more likely to become lesbian or bisexual.
A) who are later in birth order
B) who are "gender-deviant" in dress or behavior
C) exposed prenatally to very high levels of androgens or estrogens
D) who have a higher-than-average number of older brothers
Q3) Children born to teenage mothers
A) often become adolescent parents.
B) have a better chance of graduating high school than children of adult mothers.
C) fare better if the teenage parent drops out of high school.
D) score higher on intelligence tests than children of adult mothers.
Q4) Discuss the impact that child-rearing styles have on academic achievement in adolescence.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about factors related to juvenile delinquency is true?
A) SES and ethnicity are strongly related to teenagers' self-reports of antisocial acts.
B) Girls account for about one in three adolescent arrests for violence.
C) Families of delinquent youths tend to be low in warmth, high in conflict, and characterized by harsh, inconsistent discipline and low monitoring.
D) Teenagers tend to commit crimes in high-SES neighborhoods where parents are more likely to be absent after school and in the early evening.
Q2) Many studies have tested Carol Gilligan's claim that Kohlberg's approach underestimates the moral maturity of females,but
A) most do not support her contention.
B) the results are too inconclusive to reach a consensus.
C) measuring an "ethic of care" is too difficult to be reliable.
D) most have used invalid measures.
Q3) Discuss the impact of religious involvement on moral development in adolescence.
Q4) Describe how sibling interactions adapt to development at adolescence.
Q5) Discuss changes in self-esteem in adolescence.
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Q1) According to Gisella Labouvie-Vief,adulthood involves movement from hypothetical to __________ thought.
A) relativistic
B) epistemic C) pragmatic
D) dualistic
Q2) Research suggests that foods __________ in __________ can forestall free-radical damage.
A) high; saturated fat
B) rich; vitamins
C) low; sodium
D) low; sugar
Q3) Victims of ongoing sexual coercion
A) are less likely to engage in negative health behaviors.
B) report fewer symptoms of illness across almost all body systems.
C) tend to be low-income ethnic minorities.
D) may fall into a pattern of extreme passivity and fear.
Q4) Describe how biological aging affects motor performance.
Q5) Describe the psychological impact of attending college.
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Q1) In families with five to ten siblings,
A) intimacy is more important than commitment.
B) sibling bonds are usually weaker in adulthood.
C) loneliness is common even among the married siblings.
D) close sibling bonds may replace friendships.
Q2) Until the 1960s,__________ in Western nations was largely limited to low-SES adults.
A) singlehood
B) cohabitation
C) marrying young
D) having children before age 25
Q3) Mentoring by a __________ predicts progress into management roles and pay gains more strongly for women in male-dominated industries than for men.
A) female member of a professional association
B) female colleague
C) senior male executive
D) male member of a professional association
Q4) Describe the gender differences in same-sex adult friendships.
Q5) Discuss the social clock.How does following a social clock impact development?
Q6) Discuss career development in early adulthood,focusing on career establishment. Page 16
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Q1) Middle adulthood is
A) more about aging mentally than physically.
B) defined by feelings of chaos and crisis.
C) marked by narrowing life options.
D) is the time when career options typically widen.
Q2) Kay displays a committed,involved approach to daily activities.She regards most experiences as controllable and she views change as a challenge.Kay displays
A) a Type A behavior pattern.
B) a Type B behavior pattern.
C) hardiness.
D) resilience.
Q3) In the "middle-age spread," women accumulate fat __________,whereas men accumulate it __________.
A) on the upper abdomen; around the waist
B) around the waist; on the back
C) around the upper arms; around the waist
D) on the back; around the upper arms
Q4) Summarize the reproductive changes that men undergo during the aging process.
Q5) What is hardiness? How do hardy individuals cope with stress?
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Q1) For the first time in her career,43-year-old Schuyler is truly satisfied with her job.Which of the following aspects of Schuyler's job satisfaction is the most likely to have improved?
A) contentment with pay
B) satisfaction with promotions
C) happiness with the work itself
D) contentment with supervision
Q2) Gilles,age 50,tells his brother,"I'd like to maintain my physical health and work on getting emotionally stronger.I want to be a good friend and a role model to my nephews and nieces.I don't want to be that guy who never comes to family get-togethers because he is too busy working.I want to be successful in my career,but not at the expense of my family.Of course,I want to find my own special partner,but if I don't,I know I'll always have you and the kids." Gilles is discussing his
A) future model.
B) internal map.
C) possible selves.
D) generalized goals.
Q3) Discuss divorce in midlife.How do men and women differ in psychological well-being following midlife divorce?
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Q1) Older adults who consider age-related declines inevitable and uncontrollable tend to
A) report more physical and psychological adjustment difficulties.
B) deal especially well with physical changes.
C) use active strategies to combat the changes that come with aging.
D) accept that they have to alter their lifestyle to cope with aging.
Q2) The abnormal ApoE4 gene is the most commonly known risk factor for
A) familial Alzheimer's disease.
B) vascular dementia.
C) sporadic Alzheimer's disease.
D) Parkinson's disease.
Q3) When Joe's grandpa talks to Joe about his high school days,he is exhibiting __________ memory.
A) intermediate
B) implicit
C) associative
D) remote
Q4) Discuss changes in taste,smell,and touch sensitivity in late adulthood.
Q6) Discuss the impact that falls can have in late adulthood. Page 20
Q5) How much sleep do older adults require? Discuss insomnia in late adulthood.
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Q1) In late adulthood,most siblings
A) do not communicate regularly.
B) visit only a few times a year.
C) live within 100 miles of each other.
D) are not close.
Q2) Religious involvement is especially high in African-American communities because
A) family ties are often strained and unfulfilling.
B) there are few other community resources available to them.
C) churches are an important source of financial support for African-American seniors.
D) African-American seniors look to religion as a powerful resource for social support beyond the family.
Q3) Contemporary seniors view retirement as a time
A) when their physical health will decline.
B) that inevitably leads to adjustment problems.
C) of financial stress and anxiety.
D) of opportunity and personal growth.
Q4) Discuss never-married,childless older adults.What unique challenges to they face?
Q5) What is a person-environment fit? How does this concept apply in late adulthood?
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Q1) In many Native American groups,
A) death is met with stoic self-control.
B) dying people believe that it is possible to reach a state beyond the world of suffering.
C) an illness is viewed as a crisis that unites family members.
D) a karakia ceremony is conducted to ask the creator for peace.
Q2) A recent study showed that music vigils for dying patients result in
A) increased wakefulness.
B) more effortful breathing.
C) reduced anxiety.
D) increased stimulation in the hippocampus.
Q3) The development of a national organ transplant program has been hindered in Japan because
A) the standard of death is brain death.
B) the standard of death is absence of heartbeat and respiration.
C) Japanese law does not allow organ donation.
D) those in a persistent vegetative state are considered dead.
Q4) What physical changes occur in the days before death? List the three phases a person moves through during the transition from life to death.
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