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Chemistry for the Life Sciences introduces foundational chemical principles with a special emphasis on their applications in biological systems. Topics include atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, acids and bases, thermodynamics, and reaction kinetics, all tailored to illustrate how these concepts underpin processes in living organisms. The course also examines the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, and explores the chemical basis of metabolism and energy production. Designed for students pursuing biology, medicine, or related fields, this course provides the essential chemical knowledge required to understand and investigate complex life processes.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Steve Russo
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cannot be classified as matter?
A)air
B)temperature
C)fog
D)oxygen molecule
Answer: B
Q2) Cooking vegetables with steam is a chemical process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The "disappearance" of mothballs is an example of ________.
A)melting
B)evaporation
C)condensation
D)sublimation
Answer: D
Q4) Tap water is a homogeneous mixture, while freshly distilled water is a compound.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the measured value 6.73 pounds, what is the degree of uncertainty?
A)+/- 10 pounds
B)+/- 1 pound
C)+/- 0.1 pound
D)+/- 0.01 pound
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following temperatures are not possible?
A)2000 °C
B)-425 °F
C)-425 °C
D)5 K
Answer: C
Q3) How many cm<sup>2</sup> are there in 5.20 in<sup>2</sup> ?
A)33.5
B)13.2
C)2.05
D)0.806
Answer: A
Q4) Solve the equation PV = nRT for the n-variable.
Answer: n = (PV)/(RT)
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which species has 16 protons, 18 neutrons and 18 electrons?
A)(<sup>34</sup>S<sup>2+</sup>)
B)(<sup>34</sup>S<sup>2-</sup>)
C)(<sup>36</sup>Ar<sup>2+</sup>)
D)(<sup>36</sup>Se<sup>2-</sup>)
Answer: B
Q2) Which cation may have atomic number 20 and a charge of +2?
A)C<sup>+</sup><sup>2</sup>
B)Mg<sup>+</sup><sup>2</sup>
C)Ca<sup>+</sup><sup>2</sup>
D)S<sup>+</sup><sup>2</sup>
Answer: C
Q3) Two isotopes of the same element differ only in the number of protons found in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) uranium-235
Answer: atomic number 92, mass number 235, symbol U
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Sample Questions
Q1) The valence shell ________.
A)always contains eight electrons
B)is the lowest energy shell in an atom
C)is the outermost occupied shell in an atom
D)is always the same for anions and cations
Q2) Which s orbital is the largest?
A)1s
B)2s
C)-2s
D)-1s
Q3) The speed of light is about 186,000 miles per minute.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following elements is the largest size halogen?
A)He
B)Br
C)F
D)Kr
Q5) Write the complete electronic ground state configuration for tellurium (Te). Make sure the terms in your answer are listed in order of increasing energy.
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following compounds contains oxygen?
A)potassium cyanide
B)calcium peroxide
C)ammonium sulfide
D)ferrous chloride
Q2) Another name for the hydrogen sulfate anion is bisulfate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fe(OH)<sub>2 </sub>may also be called ferrous hydroxide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following does not have a charge of -1?
A)bicarbonate
B)bisulfate
C)hydrogen phosphate
D)nitrite
Q5) Only helium among the Group VIIIA elements has two valence electrons, A)True
B)False
Q6) H<sub>2</sub>Se

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bonds will have the largest difference in electronegativity?
A)HBr
B)NaF
C)H<sub>2</sub>
D)HS<sup>-</sup>
Q2) The bond angle in ammonia is 109°.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would you expect to be the most polar molecule?
A)H<sub>2</sub>S
B)H<sub>2</sub>Se
C)H<sub>2</sub>Te
D)H<sub>2</sub>O
Q4) CBr<sub>4</sub>
Q5) SO<sub>2</sub>
Q6) O<sub>3</sub> (ozone)
Q7) NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q8) NO<sup>+</sup>
Q9) CS<sub>2</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) silicon carbide, SiC, m.p.: 2700 °C
Q2) The force(s)responsible for holding the DNA molecule in a very long twisted zipper is
A)hydrogen bonding
B)London forces
C)dipolar forces
D)interionic forces
Q3) The terms "dispersion forces" and "London forces" are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following will have the lowest boiling point?
A)H<sub>2</sub>S
B)H<sub>2</sub>Te
C)H<sub>2</sub>Se
D)H<sub>2</sub>O
Q5) The gas to liquid change of state is called ________.
A)sublimation
B)condensation
C)evaporation
D)melting

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sulfide is water insoluble?
A)lead (II)sulfide
B)potassium sulfide
C)ammonium sulfide
D)sodium sulfide
Q2) An alternative name for lye is potassium hydroxide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a combustion reaction, oxygen is typically one of the reactants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bond formation releases energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is the least soluble in water?
A)sodium sulfate
B)lead (II)nitrate
C)potassium chloride
D)calcium sulfate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has its empirical formula different than its molecular formula?
A)CH<sub>2</sub>S
B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>7</sub>N<sub>3</sub>
C)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>6</sub>N<sub>3</sub>
D)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>7</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
Q2) The balanced equation involves the corresponding coefficients ________.
A)2: 2: 3
B)1: 2: 3
C)2: 1: 3
D)3: 3: 2
Q3) What is the theoretical mass of carbon dioxide produced from four moles of NaHCO<sub>3</sub>?
A)1 g
B)22 g
C)44 g
D)88 g
Q4) The molecular formula is the simplest formula using whole numbers.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is reduction?
A)loss of electrons
B)increase in oxidation number
C)gain of electrons
D)two of the above
Q2) Which element is oxidized in the reaction 3 P + 5 HNO<sub>3</sub> + 2
H<sub>2</sub>O 5 NO + 3 H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> ?
A)phosphorus
B)nitrogen
C)oxygen
D)No elements were either oxidized or reduced.
Q3) The sum of the oxidation states of all atoms in a formula must add up to the overall charge of the formula.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In which of the following is oxygen not at the -2 oxidation state?
A)water
B)methanol
C)hydrogen peroxide
D)carbon dioxide

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Sample Questions
Q1) Assuming that the temperature and quantity of a gas sample remain constant, what will be the final pressure of a 1.6 L sample of a gas originally at 330 K and 4.84 atm, when the volume is reduced
To 840 mL?
A)9.22 atm
B)4.61 atm
C)18.44 atm
D)3.66 atm
Q2) STP conditions stand for ________.
A)0 K, 1 atm
B)0 °C, 760 cm Hg
C)0 °C, 760 mm Hg
D)0 K, 76 cm Hg
Q3) How many moles of gas are found in a container that occupies a volume of 5.50 L with a pressure of 0.335 atm at 25 °C?
A)0.0753
B)0.898
C)13.3
D)1.11

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Sample Questions
Q1) NH<sub>3</sub> will dissolve in BF<sub>3</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) 10.0 mL 0.5 M sulfuric acid neutralizes ________ mL 0.5 M ammonium hydroxide.
A)5.0
B)10.
C)20. D)40.
Q3) Hydrocarbons, such as pentane C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>, are water soluble.
A)True
B)False
Q4) 500 mL 0.4 M calcium nitrite contains ________ moles of calcium ions and ________ moles of nitrite ions.
A)0.4; 0.2
B)0.2; 0.4
C)0.4; 0.6
D)0.2; 0.2
Q5) The solvent in a saline solution is water.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) The reactants must collide with an energy the energy of activation for the reaction to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The greater the concentration of the reactants, the greater the rate of the reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Adding a catalyst increases the rate of reaction by providing the additional energy needed to overcome a large energy of activation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If the products have a higher energy than the reactants ________.
A)the reaction is exothermic
B)the reaction is endothermic
C)the reactants have less energy than the products
D)both B and C
Q5) A high energy of activation leads to more products favored in the reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The solubility product expression for silver(I)sulfate is ________.
A)K<sub>sp</sub> = [Ag<sup>+</sup>] × [SO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>]
B)K<sub>sp</sub> = [2 Ag<sup>+</sup>] × [SO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>]
C)K<sub>sp</sub> = [Ag<sup>+</sup>]<sup>2</sup> × [SO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>]
D)K<sub>sp</sub> = [2Ag<sup>+</sup>]<sup>2</sup> × [SO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup>]
Q2) Consider the equation 2NH<sub>3</sub> (g) N<sub>2</sub> (g)+ 3H<sub>2</sub> (g). Increasing the volume will ________.
A)shift the reaction to the right
B)shift the reaction to the left
C)have no effect
D)cannot be determined, since the temperature is unknown
Q3) Refer to the equilibrium shown above. Adding KSCN will ________.
A)turn the solution red.
B)turn the solution less red.
C)turn the solution clear.
D)have no effect on the color.
Q4) H<sub>2</sub> (g)+ F<sub>2</sub> (g) 2HF (g)
Q5) SO<sub>2</sub> (g)+ NO<sub>2</sub> (g) SO<sub>3</sub> (g)+ NO (g)
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conjugate pairs would form a good buffer?
A)HCl/Cl<sup>-</sup>
B)OH<sup>-</sup>/H<sub>2</sub>O
C)NH<sub>3</sub>/NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
D)HNO<sub>3</sub>/NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q2) The base in the forward reaction NH<sub>3</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O
NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> + OH<sup>-</sup> is ________.
A)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
B)H<sub>2</sub>O
C)NH<sub>3</sub>
D)OH<sup>-</sup>
Q3) Which of the following is the weakest base?
A)ammonia, K<sub>b</sub> = 1.7 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup>
B)aniline, K<sub>b</sub> = 4.2 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>10</sup>
C)trimethylamine, K<sub>b</sub> = 7.4 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup>
D)methylamine, K<sub>b</sub> = 4.4 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup>
Q4) PH<sub>3</sub> cannot be described as a Bronsted-Lowry base.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What were the defining characteristics of bases as known to the alchemists?
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Sample Questions
Q1) <sup>3</sup>H + <sup>2</sup>H ______ + <sup>1</sup>n
Q2) Nuclear radiation can cause biological damage by the weakening or breaking of bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many radioactive nuclei release energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation, such as gamma rays.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Binding energy is ________.
A)the amount of mass that is converted to energy during a nuclear reaction
B)the amount of mass produced during a nuclear reaction
C)the amount of energy released when an atom forms from its subatomic particles
D)the amount of energy absorbed when an atom forms from its subatomic particles
Q5) An alpha particle is neutral.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Both the proton and neutron have the same mass number.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2</sub> is a primary amine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the chemical formula of 2,3-dimethylhexane?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
B)C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>18</sub>
C)C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub>
D)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>18</sub>
Q3) Diamond is a hydrocarbon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which hydrocarbon has the lowest boiling point?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
Q5) Methanol is the compound used in automobile radiators as antifreeze.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Draw the structure of butanal.
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Q1) Think for a moment about the terms "polymer" and "polysaccharide". Is it right to refer to polysaccharides as "nature's polymers"? Why or why not?
Q2) Which of the following is not an amine base present in DNA?
A)thymine
B)alanine
C)cytosine
D)guanine
Q3) Human DNA molecules consist of just a single strand, just like protein molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The complete human genetic "blueprint" (the human genome)was determined many years ago, and is really not all that complicated.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lysine is considered an essential amino acid.
A)True
B)False
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