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Chemistry for Science Majors Final Exam Questions - 3115 Verified Questions

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Chemistry for Science Majors

Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Chemistry for Science Majors offers an in-depth exploration of fundamental chemical principles, including atomic structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, thermodynamics, and kinetics. This course emphasizes the development of critical-thinking and problem-solving skills through laboratory experiments and real-world applications relevant to scientific fields. Students will gain a solid foundation in both theoretical concepts and practical techniques, preparing them for advanced studies in chemistry and related scientific disciplines.

Recommended Textbook

Chemistry 11th Edition by Raymond Chang

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25 Chapters

3115 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Chemistry: the Study of Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) The recommended daily allowance (RDA)of calcium is 1.2 g.Calcium carbonate contains 12.0% calcium by mass.How many grams of calcium carbonate are needed to provide the RDA of calcium?

A)0.10 g

B)0.14 g

C)1.2 g

D)10 g

E)14 g

Answer: D

Q2) Radio waves travel at the speed of light, which is 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s.How many kilometers will radio messages travel in exactly one year?

A)9.46 × 10<sup>15</sup> km

B)7.30 × 10<sup>8</sup> km

C)7.10 × 10<sup>10</sup> km

D)9.46 × 10<sup>12</sup> km

E)3.33 × 10<sup>-3</sup> km

Answer: D

Q3) Classify the following as a mixture, a compound, or an element: Milk. Answer: Mixture

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Atoms, Molecules, and Ions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Marie Curie suggested the name "radioactivity" to describe the spontaneous emission of particles and/or radiation.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) What are the ions present in the compound CH<sub>4</sub>?

A)C<sup>4+</sup>, H<sup>+</sup>

B)C<sup>4-</sup>, H<sup>+</sup>

C)C<sup>-</sup>, H<sup>+</sup>

D)C<sup>4-</sup> H<sup>4+</sup>

E)no ions present

Answer: E

Q3) The proton is about 1840 times heavier than the electron.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of CH<sub>3</sub>(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>?

Answer: 5

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Chapter 3: Mass Relationships in Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Butane is reacted with oxygen gas to form carbon dioxide and water.Write the balanced reaction (omit state symbols (s), (l), (g), (aq), etc.).

Answer: 2C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub> + 13O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\)8CO<sub>2</sub> + 10H<sub>2</sub>O

Q2) Ammonia reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce ammonium chloride.Identify the balanced reaction that describes this process.

A)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> + HCl \(\rarr\) NH<sub>4</sub>Cl + H

B)NH<sub>3</sub> + HCl \(\rarr\) NH<sub>4</sub>Cl

C)NH<sub>3</sub> + 2HCl \(\rarr\) NH<sub>4</sub>Cl + H

D)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> + 2HCl \(\rarr\)NH<sub>4</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>

E)NH<sub>3</sub> + 2HCl \(\rarr\) NH<sub>4</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>

Answer: B

Q3) Calculate the mass of O in 4.36 g of Cl<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>?

A)30.5 g O

B)48.8 g O

C)11.2 g O

D)69.8 g O

E)2.67 g O

Answer: E

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Reactions in Aqueous Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the element being oxidized in the following reaction. 4Al + 3O<sub>2 </sub>\(\rarr\)2Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>

Q2) A piece of zinc metal was added to an aqueous solution of lead(II)nitrate.After some time it was observed that the zinc metal appeared to fall apart and a solid had accumulated at the bottom of the reaction vessel. Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.

Q3) Sugar dissolves in water, therefore it is a strong electrolyte. A)True

B)False

Q4) Name and give the formulas for six strong acids.

Q5) What mass of Li<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> is needed to prepare 500.mL of a solution having a lithium ion concentration of 0.175 M?

A)6.75 g

B)10.1 g

C)19.3 g

D)30.4 g

E)3.38 g

Q6) Identify the oxidizing agent in the following reaction. 4Al + 3O<sub>2 </sub>\(\rarr\)2Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) The van der Waals equation is a modification of the ideal gas equation.What two factors does this equation account for?

Q2) What is standard temperature and standard pressure in units of °C and atm?

Q3) If equal masses of O<sub>2</sub>(g)and HBr(g)are in separate containers of equal volume and temperature, which one of these statements is true?

A)The pressure in the O<sub>2</sub> container is greater than that in the HBr container. B)There are more HBr molecules than O<sub>2</sub> molecules.

C)The average velocity of the O<sub>2</sub> molecules is less than that of the HBr molecules.

D)The average kinetic energy of HBr molecules is greater than that of O<sub>2</sub> molecules.

E)The pressures of both gases are the same.

Q4) On a spring morning (20.°C)you fill your tires to a pressure of 2.25 atmospheres.As you ride along, the tire heats up to 45°C from the friction on the road.What is the pressure in your tires now in units of atmospheres?

Q5) Calculate the density of SO<sub>2</sub> gas, in grams per liter, at 55°C and 1.5 atm.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Thermochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the first law of thermodynamics:

A)Energy is neither lost nor gained in any energy transformations.

B)Perpetual motion is possible.

C)Energy is conserved in quality but not in quantity.

D)Energy is being created as time passes.We have more energy in the universe now than when time began.

Q2) A 26.2 g piece of copper metal is heated from 21.5°C to 201.6°C.Calculate the amount of heat absorbed by the metal.The specific heat of Cu is 0.385 J/g·°C.

Q3) The heat of solution of KCl is 17.2 kJ/mol and the lattice energy of KCl(s)is 701.2 kJ/mol.Calculate the total heat of hydration of 1.00 mol of gas phase K<sup>+</sup> ions and Cl<sup>-</sup> ions.

A)-718 kJ

B)-684 kJ

C)684 kJ

D)718 kJ

E)None of these.

Q4) Chemical reactions in a bomb calorimeter occur at constant pressure.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Quantum Theory and the Electronic Structure of Atoms

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the following set of quantum numbers? n = 4 l = 3 m<sub>l</sub> = -2 m<sub>s</sub> = +1/2

A)0

B)1

C)2

D)6

E)10

Q2) A ground-state atom of vanadium has ___ unpaired electrons and is _____.

A)0, diamagnetic

B)2, diamagnetic

C)3, paramagnetic

D)5, paramagnetic

E)4, diamagnetic

Q3) What is the wavelength, in meters, of an alpha particle with a kinetic energy of 8.0 × 10<sup>-13</sup> J.(mass of an alpha particle = 4.00150 amu; 1 amu = 1.67 × 10<sup>-27</sup> kg)

Q4) The frequency of the emitted light from a cesium atom is an intensive property. A)True

B)False

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Periodic Relationships Among the Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) The alkali metal elements are found in _______ of the periodic table.

A)Group 1A

B)Group 2A

C)Group 3A

D)Period 7

E)Period 1

Q2) Consider the following reaction 2A + 3F<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\)2AF<sub>3</sub>.What is the formula for the reaction product if we substitute iodine for fluorine?

A)A<sub>2</sub>I<sub>3</sub>

B)A<sub>3</sub>I<sub>2</sub>

C)AI<sub>3</sub>

D)A<sub>3</sub>I

E)AI

Q3) Which of the following is the electron configuration for the bromide ion? A)[Ar]

B)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>7</sup> C)[Kr]

D)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>10</sup>5p<sup>7</sup> E)[Xe]

Q4) Write the ground-state electron configuration for O<sup>2-</sup>.

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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonding I: Basic Concepts

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the formal charge on phosphorus in a Lewis structure for the phosphate ion that satisfies the octet rule?

A)-2

B)-1

C)0

D)+1

E)+2

Q2) Use the Born-Haber cycle to calculate the lattice energy of KCl(s)given the following data: \(\Delta\)H(sublimation)K = 79.2 kJ/mol

I<sub>1</sub> (K)= 418.7 kJ/mol

Bond energy (Cl-Cl)= 242.8 kJ/mol

EA (Cl)= 348 kJ/mol

\(\Delta\)H<sup> f </sup><sub> </sub>(KCl(s))= -435.7 kJ/mol

A)-165 kJ/mol

B)288 kJ/mol

C)629 kJ/mol

D)707 kJ/mol

E)828 kJ/mol

Q3) Write the Lewis dot symbol for the chloride ion.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Chemical Bonding Ii: Molecular Geometry and Hybridization

of Atomic Orbitals

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to VSEPR theory, which one of the following molecules is trigonal bipyramidal?

A)SF<sub>4</sub>

B)XeF<sub>4</sub>

C)NF<sub>3</sub>

D)SF<sub>6</sub>

E)PF<sub>5</sub>

Q2) The geometry of the CS<sub>2</sub> molecule is best described as A)linear.

B)trigonal planar.

C)tetrahedral.

D)bent.

E)trigonal pyramidal.

Q3) Two p<sub>y</sub> orbitals from two different atoms can interact to form a pi bonding molecular orbital.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The N - N - H bond angles in hydrazine N<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub> are 112°.What is the hybridization of the nitrogen orbitals predicted by valence bond theory?

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Chapter 11: Intermolecular Forces and Liquids and Solids

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Sample Questions

Q1) The atomic planes in a graphite crystal are separated by 335 pm.At what angle would you find the first-order (n = 1)diffraction of 0.154 nm X-rays from a graphite crystal?

A)0.232°

B)2.63°

C)13.3°

D)27.4°

E)66.8°

Q2) A face-centered cubic unit cell is the repeating unit in which type of crystal packing?

A)hexagonal close-packed

B)cubic close-packed

C)body centered

D)simple

E)all of the above

Q3) Which would be expected to be more viscous C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub> or C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>10</sub>(OH)<sub>2</sub>?

Q4) Which would have the stronger intermolecular forces of attraction H<sub>2</sub>S or H<sub>2</sub>Se?

Q5) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in HF(l).

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Chapter 12: Physical Properties of Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The solubility of gases in water always decreases with increasing temperature.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to Raoult's law, which statement is false?

A)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.

B)The solubility of a gas increases as the temperature decreases.

C)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.

D)The greater the pressure of a gas over a solution the greater its solubility.

E)Ionic solutes dissociate in solution causing an enhancement of all colligative properties.

Q3) Which of the following compounds should be soluble in CCl<sub>4</sub>?

A)NaCl

B)H<sub>2</sub>O

C)NaOH

D)C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub>

E)None of these

Q4) Which of the following concentration units will not change with temperature: molarity, percent mass, mole fraction, and molality.

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Chapter 13: Chemical Kinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) For the chemical reaction A \(\rarr\) B + C, a plot of [A]<sub>t</sub> versus time is found to give a straight line with a negative slope.What is the order of reaction with respect to A?

A)zero

B)first

C)second

D)third

E)Such a plot cannot reveal the order of the reaction.

Q2) A certain reaction, reaction A \(\rarr\) products, is first order with respect to A.Starting with [A] = 0.250M, it takes 45 min to reduce the concentration of A to 0.110M.What is its rate constant for this reaction?

A)7.9 x 10<sup>-3</sup> min<sup>-1</sup>

B)1.1 x 10<sup>-1</sup> min<sup>-1</sup>

C)3.0 x 10<sup>-4</sup> min<sup>-1</sup>

D)1.8 x 10<sup>-2</sup> min<sup>-1</sup>

E)3.1 x 10<sup>-3</sup> min<sup>-1</sup>

Q3) Given the rate law for a reaction, rate = k[A][B]<sup>2</sup>, where rate is measured in units of M s<sup>-1</sup>, what are the units for the rate constant k?

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15

Chapter 14: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) A reaction with an equilibrium constant K<sub>c</sub> = 1.5 x 10<sup>21</sup> would consist of which of the following at equilibrium:

A)approximately equal reactants and products

B)some reactants and products with reactants slightly favored

C)some reactants and products with products slightly favored

D)essentially all reactants

E)essentially all products

Q2) A reaction with an equilibrium constant K<sub>c</sub> = 1.5 x 10<sup>-25</sup> would consist of which of the following at equilibrium:

A)approximately equal reactants and products

B)some reactants and products with reactants slightly favored

C)some reactants and products with products slightly favored

D)essentially all reactants

E)essentially all products

Q3) What conditions are used in the Haber process to enhance the yield of ammonia? Explain why each condition affects the yield in terms of the Le Châtelier principle.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the conjugate base of HSO<sub>4</sub><sup> -</sup>

A)OH<sup>-</sup>

B)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

C)H<sub>2</sub>O

D)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>

E)SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>

Q2) Which of the following is not a conjugate acid-base pair?

A)H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>

B)H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>- </sup>and HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>

C)H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> and HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>

D)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2- </sup>and PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>

E)H<sub>2</sub>O and H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>

Q3) In aqueous solutions at 25°C, the sum of the ion concentrations ([H<sup>+</sup>] + [OH<sup> -</sup>])equals 1 × 10<sup> - 14</sup>.

A)True

B)False

Q4) If the pH of stomach acid is 1.0, what is the hydroxide ion concentration in this solution?

Q5) Write the formula for the conjugate acid of H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Acid-Base Equilibria and Solubility Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following yields a buffer solution when equal volumes of the two solutions are mixed?

A)0.050 M H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> and 0.050M HCl

B)0.050M H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> and 0.025 M HCl

C)0.050M NaH<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> and 0.025M NaOH

D)0.050M Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4 </sub>and 0.050M M NaOH

E)0.050M Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> and 0.025M NaOH

Q2) What volume of 0.0500 M sodium hydroxide should be added to 250.mL of 0.100 M HCOOH to obtain a solution with a pH of 4.50? [K<sub>a</sub>(HCOOH)= 1.7 × 10<sup>-4</sup>]

A)540 mL

B)420 mL

C)80.mL

D)340 mL

E)500.mL

Q3) How many moles of NaF must be dissolved in 1.00 liter of a saturated solution of PbF<sub>2</sub> at 25°C to reduce the [Pb<sup>2+</sup>] to 1.0 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M? The K<sub>sp</sub> for PbF<sub>2</sub> at 25 °C is 4.0 × 10<sup>-8</sup>.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Entropy Free Energy and Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these species would you expect to have the highest standard entropy (S°)?

A)CH<sub>4</sub>(g)

B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>(g)

C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>(g)

D)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>(g)

E)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>(g)

Q2) Under what conditions (always, never, high temperature only, low temperature only)is the reaction O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\rarr\) 2O(g)expected to be spontaneous?

Q3) The standard entropy of any pure substance is 0 J/mol.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of these species would you expect to have the lowest standard entropy (S°)?

A)Br<sub>2</sub>(l)

B)Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)

C)F<sub>2</sub>(g)

D)H<sub>2</sub>(g)

E)I<sub>2</sub>(s)

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19

Chapter 18: Electrochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be considered a Lead Storage Battery?

A)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>(g)+ 5O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\rarr\) 3CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 4H<sub>2</sub>O(l)

B)Pb(s)+ PbO<sub>2</sub>(s)+ 4H<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ 2SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)\(\rarr\) 2PbSO<sub>4</sub>(s)+ 2H<sub>2</sub>O(l)

C)Zn(s)+ 2NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>(aq)+ 2MnO<sub>2</sub>(s)\(\rarr\)Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2NH<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ Mn<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>(s)

D)Zn(Hg)+ HgO(s)\(\rarr\) ZnO(s)+ Hg(l)

E)2Fe(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 4H<sup>+</sup>(aq)\(\rarr\)2Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2H<sub>2</sub>O(l)

Q2) Consider the reaction Fe + Sn<sup>2+</sup>(1 × 10<sup>-3</sup> M)\(\rarr\)Fe<sup>2+</sup>(1.0 M)+ Sn.Calculate the voltage theoretically generated by the cell.

Q3) How many grams of copper are deposited on the cathode of an electrolytic cell if an electric current of 2.00 A is passed through a solution of CuSO<sub>4</sub> for a period of 19.0 min?

Q4) Will H<sub>2</sub>(g)form when Fe is placed in 1.0 M HCl?

Q5) Will H<sub>2</sub>(g)form when Ag is placed in 1.0 M HCl?

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Chapter 19: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Polonium-208 is an alpha emitter with a half-life of 2.90 years.How many milligrams of polonium from an original sample of 2.00 mg will remain after 8.00 years?

A)0.147 mg

B)0.296 mg

C)0.725 mg

D)6.77 mg

E)1.90 mg

Q2) The dose unit of ionizing radiation is called the rad.The rad is defined in terms of A)the half-life of a radioisotope.

B)the energy deposited per gram of an object.

C)the biological damage produced.

D)the accumulation of fission products.

E)the number of ions per centimeter.

Q3) The rates of radioactive decay processes, like the rates of chemical reactions, are sensitive to temperature changes.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What nuclear fuel is produced in a breeder reactor?

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Chemistry in the Atmosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) Heat is radiated from Earth to space predominately in the form of:

A)infrared radiation.

B)radioactivity.

C)visible light.

D)solar flares.

E)UV radiation.

Q2) List three primary pollutants removed from automobile exhaust by catalytic converters.

Q3) The CO<sub>2</sub> content of Earth's atmosphere is approximately

A)4%

B)0.4%

C)0.04% (400 ppm)

D)40 ppm

E)4 ppm

Q4) Which one of the following can function as a greenhouse gas?

A)Ar

B)H<sub>2</sub>

C)N<sub>2</sub>

D)O<sub>2</sub>

E)NO

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Metallurgy and the Chemistry of Metals

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Q1) In n-type semiconductors

A)the energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band is very large.

B)impurities that donate electrons are added to provide conduction electrons.

C)a valence band overlaps the empty conduction band.

D)impurities that provide "positive holes" are added to a pure semiconductor.

Q2) Cast iron as it is prepared in a blast furnace is a product of high purity.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In the Hall process, ____________ is reduced ____________.

A)nickel; electrolytically

B)aluminum; electrolytically

C)nickel; by reaction with metallic sodium

D)aluminum; by reaction with metallic sodium

E)copper; electrolytically

Q4) Aluminum is an active metal, but does not corrode as iron does because

A)Al does not react with O<sub>2</sub>.

B)a protective layer of Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> forms on the metal surface.

C)Al is harder to oxidize than is Fe.

D)the enthalpy of formation of aluminum oxide is negative.

E)aluminum has a high tensile strength.

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Chapter 22: Nonmetallic Elements and Their Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) Alkali metal hydrides are very reactive with water, forming H<sub>2</sub> gas.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Write a balanced chemical equation to show the production of chlorine by the chlor-alkali process.

Q3) Which of these reactions is an example of nitrogen fixation?

A)2N<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\)2N<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub>

B)NH<sub>3</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> + OH<sup>-</sup>

C)N<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2NO

D)2NO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) HNO<sub>2</sub> + HNO<sub>3</sub>

E)2NO + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2NO<sub>2</sub>

Q4) Which of these substances is being considered as a replacement fuel for gasoline?

A)D<sub>2</sub>O

B)H<sub>2</sub>

C)NO<sub>2</sub>

D)F<sub>2</sub>

E)He

Q5) Write the chemical formula of the peroxide ion.

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Chapter 23: Transition Metal Chemistry and Coordination Compounds

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Q1) Which of the following complexes has optical (chiral)isomers?

A)[Co(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>4</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>]<sup>+</sup>

B)[Co(en)Cl<sub>4</sub>]<sup> -</sup>

C)[Co(en)(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>4</sub>]<sup> 3+</sup>

D)[Co(en)<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>]<sup>+</sup>

E)Co(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>3</sub>Cl<sub>3</sub>

Q2) How many 3d electrons does a V<sup>3+</sup> ion have?

A)6

B)5

C)4

D)3

E)2

Q3) In K<sub>4</sub>[Fe(CN)<sub>6</sub>], how many 3d electrons does the iron atom have?

A)3 B)4 C)5

D)6 E)7

Q4) Write the chemical formula of the dibromobis(oxalato)cobaltate(III)ion.

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Chapter 24: Organic Chemistry

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Q1) The group of atoms that is responsible for the characteristic properties of a family of organic compounds is called a/an

A)reaction center.

B)functional group.

C)binding site.

D)enzyme.

E)polyatomic ion.

Q2) The expected product from the addition of HCl to CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH=CH<sub>2</sub> is

A)CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH=CHCl

B)CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CCl=CH<sub>2</sub>

C)CH<sub>3</sub>-CHCl-CH=CH<sub>2</sub>

D)CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>Cl

E)CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CHCl-CH<sub>3</sub>

Q3) Which of the following compounds are isomers of each other?

I.pentane

II.2-methylbutane

III.2,3-dimethylbutane

IV.2,2-dimethylpropane

V.1-hexene

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Chapter 25: Synthetic and Natural Organic Polymers

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Q1) A protein that has been reversibly denatured has

A)temporarily lost part or all of its secondary or tertiary structure.

B)temporarily lost part or all of its primary structure.

C)been genetically modified due to errors in the nucleotides in the parent DNA.

D)temporarily lost its amino acid residues.

E)temporarily lost the hydrogen bonding between nitrogenous bases.

Q2) A protein is

A)a polysaccharide.

B)a saturated ester of glycerol.

C)one of the units making up a nucleic acid.

D)a polymer of amino acids.

E)an aromatic hydrocarbon.

Q3) Which one of these materials is a copolymer?

A)Styrene-butadiene

B)polyvinyl chloride

C)polypropylene

D)poly-cis-isoprene

E)polyethylene

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