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This course provides a comprehensive foundation in general, organic, and biochemistry, tailored specifically for pre-medical students. Emphasizing fundamental chemical principles, the curriculum explores atomic structure, chemical bonding, states of matter, energetics, reaction mechanisms, and kinetics. Building on these basics, the course delves into organic functional groups, biomolecules, and metabolic pathways relevant to human physiology and medicine. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving sessions, students gain the analytical and conceptual skills necessary for advanced study in health sciences, preparing them for entrance exams and the scientific demands of medical school.
Recommended Textbook Organic Chemistry 7th Edition by William H. Brown
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Sample Questions
Q1) Draw bond-line structures of all of the aldehydes that have the formula C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O.
Answer: 11ea7d75_f5da_6eee_b9bd_81285f2ae678_TB1813_00_TB1813_00
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true about the carbonate anion, CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>?
A)All of the oxygen atoms bear the same amount of charge
B)All of the carbon-oxygen bonds are the same length
C)The carbon atom bears the negative charge
D)It is basic
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following compounds is a carboxylic acid?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>COOH
B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub> C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO
Answer: A
Q4) Draw bond-line structures of all of the tertiary (3<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>) alcohols that have the formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>O.
Answer: 11ea7d75_f5da_9601_b9bd_b3fece83c861_TB1813_00_TB1813_00
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Q1) Which of the following alkanes has the highest boiling point?
A)propane
B)butane
C)pentane
D)hexane
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following compounds can adopt a chair conformation in which there are no axial methyl groups?
A)1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
B)cis-1,2-dimethylcyclohexane
C)trans-1,2-dimethylcyclohexane
D)cis-1,3-dimethylcyclohexane
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding the properties of alkanes?
A)alkanes are nonpolar
B)alkanes burn in air to give H<sub>2</sub>O and CO<sub>2</sub>
C)alkanes are highly miscible with water
D)the strongest intermolecular force between alkane molecules is the van der Waals interaction
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true regarding pairs of enantiomers?
A)They have identical melting points
B)They have identical boiling points.
C)They rotate plane polarized light in opposite directions
D)They react at identical rates with chiral reagents
Answer: D
Q2) How many isomers (constitutional and stereoisomers) exist for dimethylcyclohexane?
A)3
B)5
C)6
D)9
Answer: D
Q3) In muscle tissue only (+)-lactic acid is found but in sour milk both (+)-lactic acid and (-)-lactic acid are present. This difference might be explained by the fact that the production of lactic acid in muscle tissue is catalyzed by biological catalysts or enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the approximate pK<sub>a</sub> value of HCl?
A)-7
B)5
C)16
D)51
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of a Brønsted-Lowry base?
A)proton donor
B)proton acceptor
C)electron pair donor
D)electron pair acceptor
Q3) Which of the following compounds is the strongest acid?
A)CF<sub>3</sub>OH
B)CF<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>2</sub>OH
C)CF<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>2</sub>OH
D)CF<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
Q4) Which of the following anions is the strongest base?
A)NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
B)NH<sub>3</sub>
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH=N<sup>-</sup>
D)CH<sub>3</sub>C\(\equiv\)N

Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) What types of units make up terpenes?
A)isoprene
B)propene
C)vitamin A
D)pentadiene
Q2) Which of the following substituents has the highest priority according to the Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system used in assigning E and Z configurations of carbon-carbon double bonds?
A)"-CH(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>"
B)"-CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>"
C)"-CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>"
D)"-CH<sub>2</sub>Br"
Q3) Which of the following molecular formulae corresponds to a compound with a hydrogen deficiency of 2?
A)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
B)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O
C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>15</sub>N
D)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>10</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>
Q4) What is the value of the index of hydrogen deficiency of a molecule with the formula C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>10</sub>?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Product _____would be formed via a primary carbocation.
Q2) Upon ozonolysis, _____________ will produce only acetone, (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>C=O. (Enter an IUPAC name.)
Q3) Product _____ is the non-Markovnikov product.
Q4) _____________is the starting material required to produce 3-methyl-1-butanol using the hydroboration-oxidation reaction. (Enter an IUPAC name.)
Q5) What type of reactive intermediate is formed in the reaction of an alkene with HBr to give a bromoalkane?
A)carbocation
B)carbanion
C)radical
D)cyclic bromonium ion
Q6) Which of the following reactions of alkenes is not stereospecific?
A)bromination (treatment with Br<sub>2</sub> in CHCl<sub>3</sub>)
B)hydrogenation (treatment with H<sub>2</sub>/Pt)
C)acid-catalyzed hydration (treatment with aqueous H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>)
D)bromohydrin formation (treatment with Br<sub>2</sub>/H<sub>2</sub>O)
Q7) Product _____ would be formed by a carbocation experiencing the greatest degree of hyperconjugation stabilization.
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Q1) Addition of H<sub>2</sub> to 2-pentyne in the presence of the Lindlar's catalyst will produce ___-2-pentene.
Q2) Which atomic orbitals overlap to form the carbon-carbon triple bond of an alkyne?
A)2s + 2s; sp + sp; 2p + 2p
B)sp + sp; sp + sp; 2p + 2p
C)sp + sp; 2p + 2p; 2p + 2p
D)sp<sup>2</sup> + sp<sup>2</sup>; sp + sp; 2p + 2p
Q3) Which sequence of reactions can be used to convert (Z) 2-pentene to 2-pentyne
A)Treatment with Br<sub>2</sub>; followed by treatment with NaNH<sub>2</sub>
B)Treatment with Br<sub>2</sub>, H<sub>2</sub>O; followed by treatment with NaOH
C)Treatment with Br<sub>2</sub>; followed by treatment with H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
D)Treatment with HBr; followed by treatment with NaOH
Q4) How many terminal alkynes are there with the molecular formula C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>12</sub>?
A)5
B)7
C)8
D)9
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true about the allyl radical
A)The carbon-carbon bond lengths are identical.
B)The unpaired electron density is shared between carbons 1 and 2.
C)It undergoes reaction with bromine to give a single product.
D)It is formed by abstraction of a hydrogen atom from the methyl group of propene.
Q2) What type of orbitals overlap to provide stability to the tert-butyl radical by hyperconjugation?
A)3<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C 2p atomic orbital + 3<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C sp<sup>2</sup> atomic orbital
B)3<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C 2p atomic orbital + methyl C-H \(\sigma\) molecular orbital
C)3<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C sp<sup>2</sup> atomic orbital + methyl C-H \(\sigma\) molecular orbital
D)3<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C 2p atomic orbital + methyl C 2s atomic orbital
Q3) The number of possible monobromination products of cyclopentane is______.
Q4) The number of possible monobromination products, including cis-trans isomers, of methylcyclopentane is ______.
Q5) The name of one of the minor products of this reaction is____________________.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of S<sub>N</sub>1 reactions?
A)the electrophilic carbon undergoes inversion of stereochemistry
B)the rate is proportional to the concentration of substrate
C)the reaction proceeds faster in a more polar solvent
D)the rate is independent of the concentration of nucleophile
Q2) Which of the following reactions corresponds to a substitution?
A)tert-butanol \(\rarr\) tert-butyl chloride
B)tert-butanol \(\rarr\) 2-methylpropene
C)3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol \(\rarr\)2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
D)cyclohexene \(\rarr\)1,2-dichlorocyclohexane
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true regarding the S<sub>N</sub>2 reaction of (R)-2-bromobutane with sodium cyanide?
A)the reaction proceeds with inversion of configuration
B)the rate is proportional to the concentration of sodium cyanide
C)the rate is proportional to the concentration of (R)-2-bromobutane
D)the rate of the reaction is independent of the identity of the solvent
Q4) The mechanism for these reactions is _______.
Q5) In the reactions a and b if concentration of OH<sup>-</sup> and SH<sup>-</sup>, respectively, were doubled, the rate of the reactions would ___________.
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Q1) What is the approximate C-C-O bond angle of ethanol?
A)90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
B)109.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
C)120<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
D)180<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
Q2) The starting material would be classified as a __________ alcohol.
Q3) Including stereoisomers, the number alkene isomers produced by the acid-catalyzed dehydration of 3-methyl-3-hexanol is _____.
Q4) When a secondary (2°) alcohol is treated with Jones reagent the product of the reaction is a ketone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the major organic product obtained upon heating a mixture of 2-butanol and 85% H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>?
A)1-butene
B)cis-2-butene
C)trans-2-butene
D)2-methylpropene (isobutylene)
Q6) The mechanism of this reaction would be classified as ______.
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Q1) When cyclopentene is treated with peroxyacetic acid, the product that forms is
Q2) What type of mechanism accounts for the cleavage of tert-butyl methyl ether upon treatment with HBr?
A)S<sub>N</sub>1
B)S<sub>N</sub>2
C)E1
D)E2
Q3) A protecting group changes the reactivity of a functional group to one that is inert to reaction conditions without becoming a permanent part of the molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of tert-butyl methyl ether with excess HBr?
A)tert-butyl alcohol and methanol
B)tert-butyl bromide and methanol
C)tert-butyl alcohol and bromomethane
D)tert-butyl bromide and bromomethane
Q5) A crown ether named 18-crown-6 has a total of carbons and oxygens .
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______
CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH(CH<sub>3</sub>)
A)4000 to 2500 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
B)2500 to 2000 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
C)2000 to 1500 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
D)below 1500 cm<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
Q2) A C=O bond undergoes stretching at a lower frequency than C=C.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following regions in the electromagnetic spectrum corresponds to the radiation with the longest wavelength?
A)radio waves
B)ultraviolet
C)infrared
D)visible
Q4) Which of the following bonds undergoes stretching at the highest frequency?
A)O-H
B)C-H
C)C=O
D)C\(\equiv\)C

Page 14
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Q1) How many signals appear in the proton-decoupled <sup>13</sup>C NMR spectrum of 1,4-dibromobenzene? A)1 B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) ______ 1
Q3) Which of the following combinations of peaks appears in the <sup>1</sup>H NMR spectrum of butane?
A)a triplet and a doublet
B)a triplet and a quartet
C)a triplet and a sextet
D)two singlets
Q4) What is the hydrogen deficiency index for a compound with a molecular formula of C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q5) ______ 1

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Q1) Which of the following alcohols does not give a prominent M - 15 ion?
A)isopropyl alcohol
B)tert-butyl alcohol
C)2-hexanol
D)3-pentanol
Q2) Which C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O carbonyl-containing compound shows a molecular ion peak at m/z 100 and significant fragment peaks at m/z 85, 58, 57, 43 and 42 in the EI mass spectrum?
Q3) In mass spectrometry, which of the following phrases is shortened to the acronym "MALDI"?
A)mass analysis by light-detected ions
B)matrix assisted laser desorption ionization
C)many atom loss-detecting ionization
D)molecular and light detecting instrument
Q4) Which of the following sets of molecular ions does an alkyl chloride possess?
A)two molecular ions in a 2:1 ratio separated by two mass units
B)two molecular ions in a 1:1 ratio separated by two mass units
C)three molecular ions in a 1:2:1 ratio separated by two mass units
D)two molecular ions in a 3:1 ratio separated by two mass units
Q5) The base peak in this spectrum occurs at a m/z of ______.
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Q1) In a coupling reaction using a Gilman reagent, both of the Gilman reagent alkyl groups are transferred in the reaction
A)True
B)False
Q2) The name of the product of the reaction of 2-chlorobutane with 1.) Li, 2.) CuI, 3.) 1-bromobutane would be _______________________.
Q3) Substance ____ is the electrophile in the reaction.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q4) The percent ionic character of a C-Mg bond is less than that of a C-Cu bond. A)True
B)False
Q5) Both Grignard reagents and Gilman reagents are synthetically useful because they form new carbon to carbon bonds.
A)True B)False
Q6) Substance A is termed a ___________reagent.
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Q1) The nucleophile in this reaction is _____.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)Reaction of benzophenone with methanol in the presence of acid gives a acetal
B)Reaction of butanal with ethanol in the presence of base gives an acetal
C)Reaction of benzaldehyde with ethanol in the presence of acid gives an acetal
D)Reaction of acetone with methanol in the presence of base gives a hemiacetal
Q3) The first step in the reaction mechanism is the protonation of the ________group.
Q4) Many nucleophilic addition reactions of aldehydes and ketones are catalyzed by acid or base. Bases catalyze hydration by converting the water to hydroxide ion, a much better nucleophile
A)True
B)False
Q5) The product of this reaction is called a(n)___________.
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Q1) The 2,3,4,5-tetramethylbenzene will be recovered from the _______ layer.
Q2) What is the approximate pK<sub>a</sub> value of acetic acid
A)-2
B)5
C)15
D)35
Q3) Ethyl propanoate (CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>COOCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>) can be prepared by the reaction of ethanol with ____________ acid.
Q4) Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing acid strength (more acidic > less acidic)?
A)FCH<sub>2</sub>COOH > CH<sub>3</sub>COOH > F<sub>2</sub>CHCOOH
B)FCH<sub>2</sub>COOH > CH<sub>3</sub>COOH > CH<sub>3</sub>OH
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH > ClCH<sub>2</sub>COOH > BrCH<sub>2</sub>COOH
D)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH > ClCH<sub>2</sub>COOH > CH<sub>3</sub>OH
Q5) Which of the following is the most soluble in water?
A)hexane
B)1-pentanol
C)pentanal
D)butanoic acid
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Q1) The substance that is classified as an anhydride is _____.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the key mechanistic steps in the reaction of an acid chloride and an alcohol to form an ester?
A)elimination followed by addition
B)addition followed by decarboxylation
C)addition followed by elimination
D)substitution followed by addition
Q3) Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing leaving group ability in nucleophilic acyl substitutions (better leaving group > worse leaving group)?
A)Cl<sup>-</sup> > NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> > CH<sub>3</sub>O<sup>-</sup>
B)NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> > CH<sub>3</sub>O<sup>-</sup> > Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)Cl<sup>-</sup>> CH<sub>3</sub>O<sup>-</sup> > NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)CH<sub>3</sub>O<sup>-</sup> > Cl<sup>-</sup> > NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q4) Both amides and nitriles are acyl derivatives of carboxylic acids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An imide is represented by the structure numbered ____.
Q6) The substance that is the most reactive toward nucleophilic acyl substitution is _____.
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Q1) Which of the following are intermediates in the acid catalyzed aldol reaction of propanal to form 2-methyl-2-pentenal?
1)enol
2)enolate
3)tetrahedral carbonyl intermediate
4)aldol
A)only 1 and 2
B)only 1, 3 and 4
C)only 2, 3 and 4
D)1, 2, 3 and 4
Q2) How many different \(\beta\)-hydroxyaldehydes and \(\beta\)-hydroxyketones, including constitutional isomers and stereoisomers, are formed upon treatment of a mixture of acetone and acetophenone with base?
A)4
B)6
C)9
D)12
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Q1) What is the kinetic product obtained from the addition of 1 mole of bromine to 1,3-butadiene?
A)3,4-dibromo-1-butene
B)(E)-1,4-dibromo-2-butene
C)(Z)-1,4-dibromo-2-butene
D)(Z)-2,3-dibromo-2-butene
Q2) Draw two resonance structures of the reactive intermediate that accounts for the formation of 1,2- and 1,4-addition products upon reaction of 1,3-butadiene with one equivalent of HBr.
Q3) What are the units of absorbance, A, in ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy?
A)J.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
B)nm.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
C)J.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>.M<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>
D)none, A is a dimensionless quantity
Q4) Which of 1,3-cyclohexadiene and 1,4-cyclohexadiene has the greatest heat of hydrogenation (i.e., the most exothermic reaction with H<sub>2</sub> in the presence of a catalyst). Provide a brief explanation for your choice ?
Q5) How would you be able to distinguish between 1,3-cyclohexadiene and 1,4-cyclohexadiene using ultraviolet spectroscopy?
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Q1) Which orbital contains the lone pair on the nitrogen atom of pyrrole?
A)s
B)p
C)sp
D)sp<sup>2</sup>
Q2) List all of the requirements of a molecule for it to be considered aromatic.
Q3) What is the hybridization of the oxygen atom of furan?
A)s
B)sp
C)sp<sup>2</sup>
D)sp<sup>3</sup>
Q4) Phenols are stronger acids than alcohols because of the resonance stabilization of alkoxide ions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) This anion has______ \(\pi\) electrons.
Q6) The NMR data would seem to indicate that this compound is ____________.
Q7) Assuming that the sulfur atom is sp<sup>2</sup>-hybridized, there are _____ \(\pi\)-electrons in the sulfathiazole ring.
Page 23
Q8) If named as an annulene, the name would be [ __ ] annulene.
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Q1) What type of intermediate is formed in the reaction between chlorobenzene and tert-butyl chloride and AlCl<sub>3</sub> to give 4-chloro-1-tert-butylbenzene?
A)Meisenheimer complex
B)benzyne
C)cyclohexadienyl cation
D)benzyl radical
Q2) Which of the following undergoes the most rapid nitration upon treatment with HNO<sub>3</sub>/H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>?
A)toluene
B)benzene
C)bromobenzene
D)nitrobenzene
Q3) What is the electrophile in the reaction of benzene with a mixture of nitric acid and sulfuric acid?
A)HONO
B)NO<sup>+</sup>
C)NO<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
D)benzene
Q4) The compound that is the most reactive to nitration is ______.
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Q1) Provide a line-bond structure of N-methylaniline.
Q2) Which of the following is the weakest base?
A)aniline
B)3-nitroaniline
C)4-nitroaniline
D)4-methoxyaniline
Q3) The ammonia ion of substance ____ will have the largest pK<sub>a</sub>.
Q4) Provide a line-bond structure of N,N-dimethylcyclopentanamine.
Q5) The reaction of a 2<sup>o</sup> amine with nitrous acid gives a nitrosamine. A)True
B)False
Q6) Substance _____ is a primary alkyl amine.
Q7) Provide a brief explanation, based on features of the molecules, for the following difference in pK<sub>a</sub> values?
CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2</sub> > PhNH<sub>2</sub> 10.64 4.63
Q8) The ammonia ion of substance ____ will have the smallest pK<sub>a</sub>.
Q9) Substance _____ is aniline.
Q10) Substance _____ is pyridine.
Q11) Substance _____ is pyrrole. Page 25
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Q1) ______involves the use of stannates.
A)Heck reaction
B)Stille coupling
C)Suzuki coupling
D)Sonogashira coupling
E)Alkene metathesis
Q2) Which of the following is not a pericyclic reaction?
A)Cope rearrangement
B)Claisen rearrangement
C)Suzuki coupling
D)Diels-Alder reaction
Q3) Cross-coupled reactions involve a transmetallation step.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following terms describes the mechanism of a Diels-Alder reaction?
A)electrophilic addition
B)nucleophilic addition
C)pericyclic addition
D)conjugate addition
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Q1) Which of the following is vitamin C?
A)D-glucose
B)D-mannitol
C)L-ascorbic acid
D)L-sorbose
Q2) A glycoside is formed upon reaction of glucopyranose with NaBH<sub>4</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The correct name for the cyclic structure is__________________________.
Q4) The difference between the pyranose and furanose forms of a given aldohexose is the ring size.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The anomer of ribose is drawn is _______. (alpha or beta)
Q6) Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
A)amylose
B)amylopectin
C)glycogen
D)ribulose
Q7) The enantiomer of ribose is drawn is _______. (D or L)
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Q1) Briefly describe the chemical reaction that is used to "harden" a vegetable oil to give a fat.
Q2) Describe how the structure of a phospholipid differs from that of a trigyceride fat, and what influence this difference has on the interaction of these molecules with water.
Q3) Salts of long chain fatty acids are called detergents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why do hydrogenated fats have higher boiling points than the triglycerides from which they are derived?
Q5) How many triglycerides (including stereoisomers) are there which contain two molecules of stearic acid, and one of myristic acid?
A)3
B)6
C)9
D)12
Q6) Female sex hormones like estrone are called _____________.
Q7) What are the roles of LDL and HDL? Which one is "good" cholesterol, which one is bad"?
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Q1) Which of the following is a definition of the isoelectric point of an amino acid?
A)The pH at which an amino acid has no net charge
B)The pH at which the \(\alpha\)-NH<sub>2</sub> group is completely protonated
C)The melting point of an amino acid
D)The conductivity of a 1 M solution of an amino acid in water
Q2) Hydrogen bonds, \(\alpha\)-helices, and pleated sheets are properties of structure of proteins.
Q3) Which of the following natural amino acids is an R-isomer?
A)cysteine
B)serine
C)valine
D)phenylalanine
Q4) Provide the structure of Ser-Phe-Asp.
Q5) The number of different combinations that are possible for a tripeptide containing one of each of the following amino acids: Phe, Val, Asp is ______.
Q6) The Edman degradation is used to identify the ___-terminal amino acid of a peptide.
Q7) Provide the structure of Ser-Ala.

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Q1) Provide the structure of a G-C base pair, showing hydrogen bonds as dotted lines.
Q2) Where is the amino acid linked to the ribose unit of transfer RNA in the process of transferring the amino acid to ribosomes?
A)the base
B)C2'-OH
C)3'-OH
D)5'-OH
Q3) What tetrapeptide is coded by the following sequence of mRNA?
5'-AUG-GUA-AUG-UUG-3'
A)Met-Val-Met-Leu
B)Ala-Val- Leu-Met
C)Met-Val-Ala-Leu
D)Ala-Ala-Met-Leu
Q4) Relative to the secondary structure of DNA, the helices are left handed and the two strands run in same directions relative to their 3'and 5' ends.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Provide the structure of 2-deoxyribose.
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Q1) Ziegler-Natta catalysts, used to prepare linear polymer molecules, consist of: organoaluminum compounds and transition metal salts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of polymerization is used to make high density polyethylene (HDPE)?
A)anionic
B)cationic
C)radical
D)Ziegler-Natta
Q3) Provide the structure of poly(ethylene succinate).
Q4) Which of the following relationships is not true?
A)T<sub>g</sub> < T<sub>m</sub>
B)M<sub>w</sub> \(\ge\)M<sub>n</sub>
C)polydispersity index \(\le\) 1
D)M<sub>n</sub> = (average degree of polymerization, n) * (molecular weight of repeat unit)
Q5) A good initiator for a free radical addition polymerization is acetyl chloride.
A)True
B)False
Q6) This polymer would be classified as a poly______.
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