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Chemistry for Nursing Textbook Exam Questions - 1213 Verified Questions

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Chemistry for Nursing

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Chemistry for Nursing is an essential course designed to provide nursing students with a foundational understanding of chemical principles relevant to health and clinical care. The course covers topics such as the structure and properties of matter, chemical reactions, solutions and concentrations, acids and bases, and the role of biomolecules in the human body. Emphasis is placed on the application of chemistry concepts to physiological systems, medication administration, fluid and electrolyte balance, and diagnostic testing. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and real-world examples, students develop the chemical literacy necessary to make informed decisions in nursing practice and improve patient outcomes.

Recommended Textbook

General Organic and Biochemistry An Applied Approach 2nd Edition by James Armstrong

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17 Chapters

1213 Verified Questions

1213 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Measurements in Science and Medicine

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77 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The normal range (adult) for specific gravity of urine is 1.010 - 1.048 g/mL.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Aluminum has a density of 2.70 g/ mL. What volume is occupied by a block of aluminum that weighs 4.32 kg?

A)0.000625 mL

B)0.625 mL

C)1.60 mL

D)1.60 L

Answer: D

Q3) To convert micrograms to grams, you should multiply by 1,000,000 g/ g.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) The lowest temperature ever recorded on earth was -128.6°F. The temperature is equivalent to - 89.2 .

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Atoms, Elements, and Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the horizontal rows of the periodic table called?

A)cycles

B)periods

C)groups

D)columns

Answer: B

Q2) If 1 mol of an element has a mass of 63.54 g, the symbol for this element is A)Eu.

B)Zn.

C)Cu.

D)Xe.

Answer: C

Q3) Write the name of the following element. Sn

Answer: tin

Q4) Based on the text periodic table and using the correct number of significant figures, enter the appropriate number in the blank. There are _______mol is 54.05 g of boron.

Answer: 5.000

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Chapter 3: Chemical Bonds

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many moles of oxygen are in 1.00 mol of carbon monoxide?

A)1 mol

B)2 mol

C)4 mol

D)3 mol

Answer: A

Q2) Acetylene contains_____________________nonbonding electrons.

Answer: 0

zero

Q3) Neither O or F can from triple bonds.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) In the formation of this ionic compound, the _____________________atom attains a -2 charge.

Answer: S sulfur

Q5) The central atom in phosgene is_____________________.

Answer: C

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Energy and Physical Properties

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Sample Questions

Q1) The use of the energy in food by the body to cause a muscle to contract is an example of

A)conversion of heat energy into potential energy.

B)conversion of kinetic energy into potential energy.

C)conversion of potential energy into kinetic energy.

D)conversion of kinetic energy into heal energy.

Q2) Which of the following is the smallest unit of thermal energy?

A)calorie

B)Calorie

C)joule

D)kilojoule

Q3) Which of the following molecules is most likely to be a gas at room temperature?

A)PH<sub>3</sub>

B)PCl<sub>3</sub>

C)PBr<sub>3</sub>

D)PI<sub>3</sub>

Q4) The melting point of a solid composed of the particles shown in the image will be

Q5) This substance is water-soluble. A solution of this compound in water would be classified as a(n)_______________________.

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Solution Concentration

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Sample Questions

Q1) Solution A is 0.10 M in lactose and 0.050 M in urea. Solution B is 0.15 M in KCl. Water will flow to the ______________________compartment.

Q2) How many grams of solid KCl are needed to prepare 250.0 mL of 0.235 M solution?

A)9.32 g

B)31.3 g

C)15.6 g

D)4.38 g

Q3) The solubility of Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> will probably increase with increasing temperature.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A red blood cell is placed in the solution in container C. The cell will undergo

Q5) Which of the following is associated with cells in a hypertonic solution?

A)crenation

B)hemolysis

C)reverse osmosis

D)none of these

Q6) The vitamin that would be the most hydrophobic is ______.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) When you inhale (breathe in), oxygen is entering your respiratory system and when you exhale (breathe out), carbon dioxide is leaving your respiratory system.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following reactions is correctly balanced?

A)N<sub>2</sub> + H 2NH<sub>3</sub>

B)2H<sub>2</sub>O + C CO + 2H<sub>2</sub>

C)Zn + 2HCl H<sub>2</sub> + ZnCl<sub>2</sub>

D)CO + O<sub>2</sub> CO<sub>2</sub>

Q3) Consider the following reaction.

NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) NaCl(aq) + H<sub>2</sub>O(l)

If 25.0 mL of a 0.100 M solution of NaOH reacted with excess HCl, how many moles of NaCl could form?

A)25.0 mol

B)0.100 mol

C)0.00250 mol

D)2.50 mol

Q4) The copper metal is ground into a very fine powder. ______________________

Q5) The temperature of the reaction is decreased. _____________________

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Chapter 7: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Buffer ______________________ would be the most effective buffer in basic solutions.

A)H<sub>3</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> B)HC<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>

C)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub>O<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup> D)HC<sub>3</sub>H<sub>5</sub>O<sub>3</sub> E)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> F)H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub> G)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>5</sub>O<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>

Q2) Metabolic acidosis resulting from vigorous exercise is associated with increased production of which of the following?

A)citric acid

B)formic acid

C)lactic acid

D)phosphoric acid

Q3) If HNO were added to the buffer solution the pH of the solution would __________.

Q4) If you dissolve 0.10 mol of a generic acid HA in 1.0 L of solution, the pH is 3.5. Is HA a strong or weak acid? Explain your answer.

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Chapter 8: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) A common questions asked of every patient admitted to a hospital is 'Have you experienced an unexpected/unintentional weight loss of 15 or more pounds in the last three months'. Why do think this is an important question to ask? What could it be alluding to?

Q2) A scintillation counter is more sensitive in measuring radiation than a Geiger counter.

A)True

B)False

Q3) This type of radiation is useful for diagnostic imaging:

Q4) The half-life of a sample depends on the identity of the isotope and not the amount present while activity does depend on the amount of the sample.

A)True

B)False

Q5) X-rays have radiation properties (effects) most similar to ____________________radiation.

Q6) Write the nuclear symbol for sulfur-32.

Q7) Write the nuclear equation for the alpha decay of radium-226.

Q8) Write the nuclear equation for the positron emission of carbon-11.

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Chapter 9: Hydrocarbons: An Introduction to Organic Molecules

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the hydrogen atom numbered "1" replaced by a methyl group, the IUPAC name of the new compound would be ____________.

Q2) The following molecule contains two functional groups, a haloalkane group and an alkyne.

CH<sub>3</sub>-CHBr-CH=CH<sub>2</sub>

A)True

B)False

Q3) Structure C is classified as a(n) _________________________.

Q4) One of the reasons that carbon forms such a large number of compounds is due its ability to form long chains and rings.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Structure ______________________ would have chemical and physical properties closest to that of 2-hexene.

Q6) Carbon atoms involved in double bonds exhibit a trigonal planar arrangement. A)True

B)False

Q8) Draw the condensed structural formula of 3-ethyl-3-methylhexane. Page 11

Q7) Structure ______________________is most likely to be least reactive.

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Chapter 10: Hydration, Dehydration, and Alcohols

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of 1-pentanol, 2-pentanol and 3-pentanol, which compound(s) can yield only a single alkene product when dehydrated?

A)only 1-pentanol

B)both 1-pentanol and 2-pentanol

C)both 1-pentanol and 3-pentanol

D)all of them

Q2) The -OH group in an alcohol is basic.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When phenol dissolves in water, the solution is A)basic.

B)acidic.

C)neutral

Q4) Draw the condensed structural formula and the line bond formula for 1-hexanol and explain how this structure differs from that of 3-hexanol.

Q5) Structure ________________________ would produce a mixture of products on dehydration.

Q6) Structure ______________________would produce a single product on dehydration.

Q7) Structure _____________________cannot be dehydrated.

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Chapter 11: Carbonyl Compounds and Redox Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The common name for propanone is acetone.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Assuming that molar masses are comparable, which of the following compounds would you expect to have the highest boiling point?

A)aldehyde

B)alkene

C)alcohol

D)alkane

Q3) Step 6 converts the -CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>- of succinate to the -CH=CH- of fumarate. This reaction would be classified as a(n) ______________________ reaction.

Q4) Structure _____________________ could serve as both a hydrogen bond donor and a hydrogen bond acceptor.

Q5) Structure ____________________ would named heptanoic acid.

Q6) When our bodies need a sudden burst of energy, glucose is converted into carbon dioxide and water.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Organic Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Compounds such as morphine (an amine) are often administered to a patient as a salt because the salt is more soluble in body fluids.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In decarboxylation reactions, the carboxylic acid group produces carbon dioxide.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the basis for classifying amines as primary, secondary, or tertiary?

A)the number of carbon atoms bonded directly to the nitrogen atom

B)the number of carbon atoms bonded to a carbon bearing nitrogen

C)the number of nitrogen atoms present

D)the number of hydrogen atoms present

Q4) In the formation of a thioester bond, the involved hydrogen atoms:

A)are transferred to FAD.

B)are transferred to NAD<sup>+</sup>.

C)remain with the thiol.

D)remain with the aldehyde.

Q5) Structure _________________________ would undergo oxidative decarboxylation.

Q6) Structure _____________________ would from a thioester bond with CoA.

Q7) Structure___________________ contains an amino group.

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Chapter 13: Condensation and Hydrolysis Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The hydrolysis of the following compounds produce energy as given in the parenthesis. Which of these reactions can drive the formation of ATP?

A)glycerol-1-phosphate (2.2 kcal/mol)

B)fructose-6-phosphate (3.8 kcal/mol)

C)glucose-6-phosphate (3.3 kcal/mol)

D)None of the reactions evolves enough energy.

Q2) ______________________ can function as a proton acceptor.

Q3) A carbohydrate is a polymer composed of simple sugar units.

A)True

B)False

Q4) ___________________ has the potential to be administered as a hydrochloride salt.

Q5) Draw structure of the "polymer" of the condensation reaction of four molecules of ethylene glycol (HO-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-OH).

Q6) ATP plays a role in all of the following processes except which one?

A)phosphorylation reactions

B)exothermic reactions

C)membrane transport

D)muscle contraction

Page 16

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Chapter 14: Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) An effector would bind at ______________________.

Q2) How many different amino acids are commonly found in proteins?

A)10

B)20

C)200

D)1000

Q3) The reactants, water and lactose, are represented in the image by __________________ and _________________.

Q4) Which of the following must be supplied by the diet?

A)essential amino acids

B)iron

C)zinc

D)All must be part of the diet.

Q5) Which of the following contains a sulfur atom as part of the side chain?

A)cysteine

B)glycine

C)proline

D)tryptophan

Q6) The enzyme-substrate complex is represented by __________________.

Q7) ___________________ represents lactase.

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Chapter 15: Carbohydrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following explains why ketoses can react with Benedict's solution?

A)Under acidic conditions they are converted to aldoses.

B)Under basic conditions they are converted to aldoses.

C)Under acidic conditions they form open chain structures.

D)Under basic conditions they form open chain structures.

Q2) Cellulose is an example of a structural polysaccharide.

A)True

B)False

Q3) During the complete metabolism of glucose, which of the following is accurate?

A)More ATP is produced during glycolysis than in the citric acid cycle.

B)There is a total of 20 molecules of ATP produce per molecule of glucose.

C)The ultimate form of the carbon atoms is the pyruvate ion.

D)More ATP is produced via reduced coenzymes than directly as ATP.

Q4) Diabetes Mellitus (DM) is the name of the disease where the cells in body are unable to absorb glucose efficiently from the bloodstream.

A)True

B)False

Q5) In an anomeric pairs of monosaccharides, the b form has the -OH below the ring.

A)True

B)False

Page 18

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Chapter 16: Lipids and Membranes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following cannot simply diffuse across a cell membrane without some kind of assistance?

A)CO<sub>2</sub>

B)H<sub>2</sub>O

C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH

D)Ca<sup>2+</sup>

E)All require some type of assistance.

Q2) The concentration of K<sup>+</sup> is greater outside a cell than inside. The movement of this ion into the cell is an example of passive transport.

A)True

B)False

Q3) For this fatty acid, from beta oxidation through the citric acid cycle, ____molecules of NADH total are produced.

Q4) On a mass basis, fats are more efficient sources of energy than carbohydrates but protein metabolism is even more efficient.

A)True

B)False

Q5) During the beta oxidation of the acid, _____molecules of ATP are consumed.

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Chapter 17: Nucleic Acids, Protein Synthesis, and Heredity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the function of rRNA?

A)carries the anticodon in protein synthesis

B)contains an acceptor step

C)helps catalyze protein synthesis

D)smallest of the types of RNA

Q2) The designation TMP indicates that this substance could be part of RNA.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is not an accurate statement?

A)Mature mRNA contains the extrons from replication.

B)Initial transcripts can contain both tRNA and mRNA.

C)The guanine-phosphate cap added to mRNA determines the life span of the molecule.

D)A poly(A) tail of mRNA consists of a long chain of adenine nucleotides.

Q4) The structure represented by C is the ______________________.

Q5) Which of the following does not accurately describe translation?

A)An amino acid is bonded to the acceptor stem of tRNA.

B)The anticodon binds to mRNA.

C)An amino acyl synthetase matches an amino acid to a tRNA.

D)Formation of an amino acyl tRNA requires 4 ATP.

Page 20

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