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This course provides nursing students with foundational knowledge of chemistry essential for understanding biological processes and pharmacology in healthcare. Topics covered include atomic structure, chemical bonding, solutions, acids and bases, and organic compounds relevant to human physiology. Emphasis is placed on the practical application of chemical principles to nursing practice, such as drug interactions, fluid and electrolyte balance, and metabolic pathways, enabling students to make informed decisions in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 7th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Q1) The numerical value for (5.6 × 10<sup>4</sup>)÷ (7.89 × 10<sup>2</sup>)is equal to,with the proper number of significant figures:
A)70.976
B)71
C)7.098 × 10<sup>1</sup>
D)71.0
E)70.98
Answer: B
Q2) Of the elements listed,the most abundant by mass percent in the earth's crust is A)silicon.
B)aluminum.
C)hydrogen.
D)iron.
E)sodium.
Answer: A
Q3) Is 25 kilometers per liter good gas mileage for a VW Rabbit diesel? Hint: How do we measure mileage in the English system?
Answer: It's good: 59 miles/gal.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electron configuration for phosphorus is
A)1s<sup>2 </sup>1p<sup>6 </sup>2s<sup>2 </sup>2p<sup>5</sup>.
B)1s<sup>2 </sup>2s<sup>2 </sup>2p<sup>6 </sup>3p<sup>5</sup>.
C)1s<sup>2 </sup>2s<sup>2 </sup>2p<sup>6 </sup>3s<sup>4 </sup>3p<sup>1</sup>.
D)2s<sup>2 </sup>2p<sup>6 </sup>3s<sup>2 </sup>3p<sup>5</sup>.
E)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>3</sup>.
Answer: E
Q2) For the isotope <sup>71</sup>Ga,Z = ________ and A = ________.
A)31; 40
B)71; 31
C)71; 40
D)31; 71
E)31; 69.723
Answer: D
Q3) Naturally occurring iron contains 5.82% <sup>54</sup>Fe,91.66 % <sup>56</sup>Fe,2.19% <sup>57</sup>Fe,and 0.33% <sup>58</sup>Fe.The respective atomic masses are 53.940 amu,55.935 amu,56.935 amu,and 57.933 amu.Calculate the average atomic mass of iron.
Answer: 55.847 amu.
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Q1) What is the name of Mg<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>?
A)trimagnesium diphosphate
B)magnesium diphosphate
C)trimagnesium phosphate
D)magnesium phosphate
E)magnesium phosphorus oxide
Answer: D
Q2) What fourth period element is represented by the dot structure shown?
X:
A)K
B)Ca
C)V
D)As
E)Ti
Answer: B
Q3) How are noble gases related to the octet rule?
Answer: Noble gases,except helium,illustrate the stability of elements with a full outer shell (an octet).These elements are unreactive because their valence shell is filled.Helium is also grouped with these elements because it is unreactive due to its filled 1s shell.
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Q1) In a covalent compound the bond length can be defined as
A)the distance between any two pairs of electrons.
B)the distance between the two largest atoms.
C)the distance between two nuclei when the repulsion is greatest.
D)the distance between two nuclei when the attraction is greatest.
E)the distance between two nuclei when repulsion and attraction are balanced.
Q2) Which property could describe a covalent compound?
A)It conducts electricity when melted.
B)It is a gas at room temperature.
C)It is composed of a non-metal and a metal.
D)It conducts electricity when dissolved in water.
E)none of the above
Q3) A chemical bond formed when two atoms share six electrons is a ________ bond; it is best described as ________.
A)double; covalent
B)double; ionic
C)single; covalent
D)single; ionic
E)triple; covalent
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the reaction shown is correctly balanced,the coefficients are:
Li + Br<sub>2</sub> LiBr
A)1,1,1
B)1,2,2
C)1,2,1
D)2,2,1
E)2,1,2
Q2) Which reaction is an example of an acid-base reaction?
A)H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> (aq) H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ CO<sub>2</sub> (g)
B)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> (aq) CaSO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ 2 H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
C)6 HCl(aq)+ 2 Al(s) 2 AlCl<sub>3</sub> (aq)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub> (g)
D)FeCl<sub>3</sub> (aq)+ 3 KOH(aq) Fe(OH)<sub>3</sub> (s)+ 3 KCl(aq)
E)2 Hg(l)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 HgO(s)
Q3) Which of the following is not soluble in water?
A)potassium sulfide
B)iron(II)bromide
C)iron(III)hydroxide
D)iron(III)nitrate
E)ammonium sulfate

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Q1) Calculate the number of moles of aspirin,C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>4</sub>,in a 4.0 gram tablet.
A)2.2 × 10<sup>-4</sup>
B)2.2
C)4.6 × 10<sup>-3</sup>
D)0.022
Q2) The molar mass of butane,C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>,is ________ grams.
A)22.01
B)49.05
C)52.08
D)58.12
E)68.24
Q3) The molar mass of Fe(OH)<sub>3</sub> is ________ g.
A)72.86
B)74.88 C)89.87 D)104.86 E)106.87
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Q1) All of the statements concerning free energy and spontaneity are true except A)if the value of G for a reaction is 55.2 kcal,the value of G for the reverse reaction will be -55.2 kcal.
B)if the value of G for a reaction is negative,the reaction is said to be spontaneous. C)a reaction which is nonspontaneous at low temperature cannot be spontaneous at higher temperatures.
D)enthalpy and entropy are of equal importance in determining the spontaneity of a reaction.
E)the speed of a reaction is not influenced by its spontaneity.
Q2) A solid sample at room temperature spontaneously sublimes forming a gas.This change in state is accompanied by which of the changes in the sample?
A)Entropy and energy decrease.
B)Entropy and energy increase.
C)Entropy decreases and energy increases.
D)Entropy increases and energy decreases.
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Q1) The amount of energy associated with changing a liquid into a gas is called the
A)heat of vaporization.
B)heat of fusion.
C)heat of combustion.
D)joule.
E)calorie.
Q2) In comparing gases with liquids,gases have ________ compressibility and ________ density.
A)greater; smaller
B)greater; greater
C)smaller; smaller
D)smaller; greater
E)none of the above
Q3) A solid compound which has no definite crystalline structure and a poorly defined melting point is referred to as a(an)________ solid.
A)ionic
B)molecular
C)network covalent
D)amorphous
E)metallic
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Q1) A substance represented by a formula written as MS1U1B1xS1U1B0
A)colloid.
B)solid hydrate.
C)solute.
D)solvent.
E)suspension.
Q2) In a mixture of 5 mL water,10 mL alcohol,and 50 mL acetone the solvent(s)is(are)________.
A)acetone
B)alcohol
C)water
D)acetone and alcohol
E)alcohol and water
Q3) Which is not an example of a solution?
A)the mixture of gases in a SCUBA diving tank
B)a coin made from nickel and copper
C)spring water purchased at a supermarket
D)antifreeze in a car radiator
E)none of the above
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Q1) Which net ionic equation correctly represents the neutralization of a solution of barium hydroxide by a solution of nitric acid?
A)Ba<sup>2+</sup> + 2 NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Ba(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
B)H<sup>+</sup> + NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> HNO<sub>3</sub>
C)Ba<sup>2+</sup> + 2 OH<sup>-</sup> Ba(OH)<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sup>+</sup> + OH<sup>-</sup> H<sub>2</sub>O
E)Ba(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O Ba<sup>2+</sup> + 2 NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q2) What is the conjugate base of water?
A)H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
B)H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> (aq)
C)OH<sup>-</sup> (aq)
D)H<sup>+</sup> (aq)
E)O<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> (aq)
Q3) The classification of an acid or a base as weak or strong is determined by A)the solubility of the acid or base.
B)the extent of dissociation of the dissolved acid or base.
C)the concentrations of the acid or base.
D)more than one choice is correct.
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Q1) Which of these can be considered as the combination of a proton and an electron?
A)alpha particle
B)neutron
C)beta particle
D)gamma ray
E)positron
Q2) Which type of radiation is attracted toward a positive plate?
A)
B) C) D) and E)none of these
Q3) What percentage of a radioactive sample remains after four half-lives have passed?
A)0%
B)6.25%
C)12.5%
D)25%
E)50%
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Q1) All of the following statements are general properties of organic compounds except A)the bonds are covalent.
B)they have relatively low boiling points.
C)they have limited or no water solubility.
D)they usually behave as electrolytes in solution.
E)they have relatively low melting points.
Q2) The name of the hydrocarbon with three carbon atoms and having only single bonds between carbon atoms is A)decane.
B)butane.
C)propane.
D)ethane.
E)methane.
Q3) Explain the term "functional group." How do organic chemists use the functional group concept?
Q4) Describe the unique characteristics of carbon that make it the basis of such a large number of organic compounds.
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Q1) The starting material for polymerization reactions is a(an)
A)alkane.
B)catalyst.
C)isomer.
D)monomer.
E)dimer.
Q2) The term used to describe the geometry of a carbon atom involved in a triple bond is
A)distorted tetrahedral.
B)linear.
C)perpendicular.
D)tetrahedral.
E)trigonal planar.
Q3) Which molecule represents 4-ethyl-2-hexyne?
A)(CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CHC CCH(CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3 </sub>)<sub>2</sub>
B)(CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CHC CCH<sub>3</sub>
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>C CCH<sub>3</sub>
D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>C CCH<sub>3</sub > E)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>C CCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub >
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Q1) Which alcohol should be used to produce 2-methyl-3-pentene by dehydration?
A)2-methyl-3-pentanol
B)4-methyl-2-pentanol
C)4-methyl-1-pentanol
D)2-methyl-1-pentanol
E)1-propanol and 2-propanol
Q2) The product of dehydration of an alcohol is an A)alkane.
B)alkene.
C)aromatic.
D)ether.
E)aldehyde.
Q3) The common name of CH<sub>2</sub>(OH)CH<sub>2</sub>OH is A)grain alcohol.
B)wood alcohol.
C)rubbing alcohol.
D)ethylene glycol (antifreeze).
E)glycerol.
Q4) Describe and explain the change in water solubility of straight-chain primary alcohols as molar mass increases.
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Q1) Which formula best represents the form an amine takes in acidic solution?
A)RNH<sub>2</sub>
B)RNH<sup>-</sup>
C)RNH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)RNH<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
E)RNH<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>
Q2) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point.List and describe the criteria that must be considered in answering this question. Compounds
1.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH 2.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>NHCH<sub>3</sub> 3.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3 </sub>4.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>N(CH<sub>3</sub>)CH<sub>3</sub> 5.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH(OH)CH<sub>3</sub>
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Q1) Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?
A)aldehyde
B)amine
C)carboxylic acid
D)ester
E)ketone
Q2) The result of a hydrolysis reaction is what?
A)getting the chemicals wet
B)having an oxidation reduction reaction result in hydration of the molecule
C)splitting of a molecule into the component substances
D)one that forms water upon reaction
E)addition of water across a double bond
Q3) All of the following are properties of acetone except A)volatility.
B)flammability.
C)intoxication.
D)solvent for organic substances.
E)nutrient.
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Q1) The most common reactions of carboxylic acids or their derivatives involve
A)addition across the double bond between carbon and oxygen.
B)replacement of the oxygen atom in the carbonyl group.
C)replacement of the group bonded to the carbonyl atom.
D)oxidation of the R group.
E)reduction of the R group.
Q2) Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the same carbon atom?
A)aldehyde
B)amide
C)carboxylic acid
D)ester
E)ketone
Q3) Which of the following bonds is not present in a carboxylic acid functional group?
A)C=C
B)C=O
C)C-O
D)O-H
E)none of the above
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Q1) In the tetrapeptide Ala-Cys-Val-Leu,the N-terminal amino acid is ________.
A)Ala
B)Cys
C)Val
D)Leu
E)none of the above
Q2) By convention,the N-terminal end of a protein is usually placed on the ________ of a protein structure.
A)right side
B)left side
C)center
D)bottom
E)top
Q3) Members of which class of biomolecules are the building blocks of proteins?
A)glycerols
B)monosaccharides
C)fatty acids
D)amino acids
E)nucleic acids
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Q1) A compound that is necessary for the synthesis of another compound is called a(an)
A)allosteric inhibitor.
B)cofactor.
C)precursor.
D)proenzyme.
E)zymogen.
Q2) A synthetase can be classified as a(an)________ because its function is joining two molecules together.
A)ligase
B)isomerase
C)oxidoreductase
D)transferase
E)hydrolase
Q3) All of the following vitamins are fat soluble except
A)Vitamin A.
B)Vitamin K.
C)Vitamin C.
D)Vitamin D.
E)Vitamin E.
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Q1) In addition to producing ATP,the citric acid cycle produces ________ as high energy molecules and ________ as its major chemical waste product.
A)oxidized coenzymes; H<sub>2</sub>O
B)oxidized coenzymes; CO<sub>2</sub>
C)reduced coenzymes; H<sub>2</sub>O
D)reduced coenzymes; CO<sub>2</sub>
E)ADP; O<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Which statement concerning coenzymes and redox reactions is incorrect?
A)Oxidation can be considered as loss of hydrogen or gain of oxygen.
B)Reduction can be considered as gain of hydrogen or loss of oxygen.
C)NAD<sup>+</sup> is the oxidized form of NADH.
D)An oxidation reaction cannot occur unless a reduction reaction also occurs.
E)FAD is the reduced form of FADH<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) Which statement is true concerning the relationship between FAD and FADH<sub>2</sub>?
A)FADH<sub>2</sub> is the oxidized form of FAD.
B)FADH<sub>2</sub> is the reduced form of FAD.
C)The conversion of FADH<sub>2</sub> to FAD is an acid/base reaction.
D)The conversion of FADH<sub>2 </sub>to FAD is a cyclization reaction.
E)none of the above
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Q1) Molecules such as erythrose and threose,which are stereoisomers but not mirror images,are referred to as a pair of ________.D- and L-threose are mirror images and are referred to as a pair of ________.
A)enantiomers; diastereomers
B)diastereomers; enantiomers
C)anomers; diastereomers
D)diastereomers; anomers
E)anomers; enantiomers
Q2) Glycogen is produced by ________,and its major function is ________.
A)animals; energy storage
B)animals; as a structural component
C)plants; as a structural component
D)plants; energy storage
E)none of the above
Q3) How many stereoisomers of an aldopentose can exist?

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Q1) A high energy phosphate molecule involved in gluconeogenesis is ________.
A)UDP
B)UTP
C)GDP
D)GTP
E)ADP
Q2) The chemical resulting from steps 3-5 of glycolysis which is oxidized in step 6 is
A)glucose.
B)acetyl-SCoA.
C)glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
D)citrate.
E)oxaloacetate.
Q3) The enzyme that catalyzes cleavage of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate and D-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is ________.
A)aldolase
B)D-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphatase
C)phosphofructokinase
D)hexokinase
E)none of the above
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Q1) Biomolecules can be classified as lipids on the basis of
A)a common structure consisting of long hydrocarbon chains.
B)the presence of many hydroxyl groups and at least one carbonyl group.
C)the presence of at least one amine group and one carboxylic acid group on each molecule.
D)the physical properties of odor,color,and melting point within certain guidelines.
E)the physical property of solubility in nonpolar organic solvents.
Q2) Which molecule is an unsaturated fatty acid?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>14</sub>COOH
B)CH<sub>3</sub>(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>7</sub>CH=CH(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>7</su b>COOH
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH=CHCH<sub>2</sub>COOH
D)(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CH(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>3</sub>COOH
E)none of the above
Q3) Compare the three mechanisms for moving materials across cell membranes.Be sure to mention gradients,energy considerations,actual method of transport,and types of materials transported in your answer.
Q4) Sketch a lipid bilayer and identify its hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions.
Q5) Describe the similarities and differences between soaps and emulsifying agents.
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Q1) The complete metabolism of one molecule of myristic acid,a fatty acid with 14 atoms of carbon,would require ________ turns of the beta-oxidation cycle.
A)6
B)7
C)12
D)14
E)16
Q2) When energy from stored triacylglycerols is needed,they are ________,and then transported in the bloodstream via ________ as fatty acids.
A)hydrolyzed; high-density lipoproteins
B)hydrolyzed; albumins
C)oxidized; chylomicrons
D)oxidized; albumins
E)polymerized; high-density lipoproteins
Q3) Which of the following is considered to be the so-called "good cholesterol"?
A)HDL
B)LDL
C)VLDL
D)Chylomicrons
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Q1) DNA is primarily located in what part of the cell?
A)cytoplasm
B)mitochondrion
C)nucleus
D)ribosome
E)cell membrane
Q2) The purine bases are
A)fused 5 and 6 membered ring systems containing 4 ring nitrogens.
B)6 membered ring systems containing 2 ring nitrogens.
C)6 membered ring systems containing 4 ring nitrogens.
D)fused 5 and 6 membered ring systems containing 2 nitrogens.
E)none of the above
Q3) The number of hydrogen bonds between cytosine and thymine in DNA is

Q4) Distinguish between the forms of RNA that exist in a typical cell.
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Q5) Explain the term base pairing and its relationship to replication of DNA.
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Q1) Explain the difference between polymorphisms and mutations.
Q2) According to the current working draft of the human genome,which of the following statements is(are)correct?
I.The human genome contains at least 100,000 genes.
II.One gene can code for several different proteins.
III.Approximately 50% of the genome is "junk" DNA.
IV.At least 200 human genes are identical to genes of bacteria.
A)None of the statements is correct.
B)All of the statements are correct.
C)I,II,and IV are correct.
D)II,III,and IV are correct.
E)I,III,and IV are correct.
Q3) A mutagen is
A)an error in base sequence that is repeated in each replication or transcription of DNA.
B)something that causes an error in the nucleotide sequence in DNA.
C)something that causes abnormal growth in embryos.
D)something that causes abnormal and excessive cell division.
E)excessive cell division leading to growth of tumors.
Q4) Discuss the importance of telomeres in cell death and in cancer.
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Q1) Which is the correct order for the steps in digestion and absorption of proteins?
I.hydrolysis by pancreatic lipases
II.denaturation by stomach acid
III.hydrolysis by pepsin
IV.active transport into the bloodstream
A)I,II,III,IV
B)IV,II,III,I
C)II,I,III,IV
D)II,III,I,IV
E)III,II,IV,I
Q2) One of the most important functions of amino acids is for the synthesis of A)glucose.
B)pyruvate for energy.
C)body proteins.
D)purines and pyrimidines.
Q3) Explain the difference between ketogenic and glucogenic amino acids.Identify the amino acids in each category.
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Q1) Most drugs used as antihistamines prevent allergic reactions by acting as A)a neurotransmitter to enhance the response of histamine receptor sites.
B)allosteric inhibitors of the destruction of histamine.
C)competitors for reuptake of histamine.
D)antagonists to the histamine receptor sites.
E)none of these
Q2) Hormones are produced in the ________ system.
A)digestive
B)endocrine
C)excretory
D)nervous
E)circulatory
Q3) Chemical messengers deliver information by interacting with ________ in or at the target cell.
A)receptors
B)antibodies
C)antigens
D)hormones
E)neurotransmitters
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Q1) acidosis
A)any substance that is foreign to the body and therefore causes an immune response
B)a protein molecule that identifies foreign substances and mediates certain immune responses
C)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is higher than normal and the pH is lower
D)fluid inside cells
E)fluid outside of cells,such as blood plasma or interstitial fluid
F)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is lower than normal and the pH is higher
Q2) The minor,but important,fluid that lubricates joints is A)plasma.
B)lymph.
C)cerebrospinal fluid.
D)urine.
E)synovial fluid.
Q3) Comment on the tertiary structure of the defensive proteins immunoglobulins and fibrin.Explain how the structure of each protein contributes to its function.
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