Chemistry for Nursing Question
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Course Introduction
Chemistry for Nursing introduces students to the fundamental principles of chemistry with a focus on their practical applications in nursing and healthcare. Topics include the structure and properties of matter, chemical reactions, solutions, acids and bases, and the role of biomolecules in the human body. Emphasis is placed on understanding medication interactions, body fluid chemistry, and the biochemical processes essential to physiology and patient care. This course equips nursing students with the chemical knowledge necessary to safely and effectively administer medications, interpret laboratory results, and understand the biochemical basis of health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry for Today General Organic and Biochemistry 8th Edition by Seager
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Matter, measurements, and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a 200 gram sample of water is partially frozen forming 40 g of ice,than 80% of the original sample is still a liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Ethanol (ethyl alcohol)has a density of 0.789 g/mL at 25°C.If 75.5 g of ethanol is needed for a reaction,what volume in mL should be added to the reaction container?
A) 95.7 mL
B) 59.6 mL
C) 0.0105 mL
D) 78.9 mL
Answer: A
Q3) A patient weights 220 lbs.A medication for this patient is supposed to be taken 3 mg per kg per day.The correct dose for this patient is 3000 mg per day.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Atoms and Molecules
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Q1) Which of the following uses the unit of "u" or "amu"?
A) atomic weights of atoms
B) relative masses of atoms
C) molecular weights of molecules
D) more than one response is correct
Answer: D
Q2) Isotopes of the same element always have the same atomic mass.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Individuals,ages 19-70,should include at least 1000 mg of calcium in their daily diet.What is the minimum number of one-gram calcium supplement tablets you would need to take each day to meet this requirement if a tablet is 40% by mass calcium?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Electronic Structure and the Periodic Law
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a transition element?
A) tungsten
B) holmium
C) radon
D) cesium
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a reasonable explanation as to why atomic radii become smaller as one moves to the right for the representative elements in a period?
A) The charge of the nucleus increases,pulling the shells closer.
B) More densely packed shells are always smaller.
C) Elements become less metallic.
D) Atomic radii actually increase as you move to the right.
Answer: A
Q3) The electron configuration for each shell starts with an s subshell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Forces Between Particles
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Q1) Dispersion forces are among the strongest interparticle forces.
A)True
B)False
Q2) NH<sub>3</sub> (ammonia)exhibits what type of structure?
A) triangle
B) pyramid with square base
C) pyramid with triangular base
D) none of these
Q3) What medicinal value does ZnO have?
A) sun screen
B) relieves diaper rash
C) relieves poison ivy
D) all of these
Q4) The formula weight of an ionic compound is analogous to a molecular weight of a covalent compound.
A)True
B)False
Q5) HCl and HBr can exhibit hydrogen bonding with each other.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Chemical Reactions
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Q1) Barium sulfate is often ingested to aid in the diagnosis of GI tract disorders.The equation for its production is Ba<sup>2+</sup> + SO \(\rarr\) BaSO<sub>4</sub>(s).What type of equation is this?
A) a total ionic equation
B) a full equation
C) an oxidation-reduction equation
D) a net ionic equation
Q2) Which of the following is a single replacement reaction?
A) CuO + H<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) Cu + H<sub>2</sub>O
B) HBr + KOH \(\rarr\) H<sub>2</sub>O + KBr
C) SO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>
D) 2HI \(\rarr\) I<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Single replacement reactions are always
A) redox reactions.
B) nonredox reactions.
C) combination reactions.
D) decomposition reactions.
Q4) Most reactions give a percent yield of almost 100%.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The States of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cohesive forces are the attractive forces associated with potential energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does the kinetic energy of a particle change if the particle's velocity is increased by a factor of 3?
A) kinetic energy increases by a factor of 3
B) kinetic energy decreases by a factor of 3
C) kinetic energy increases by a factor of 9
D) kinetic energy increases by a factor of 2
Q3) As a healthy individual,you have a blood pressure of 117 over 65.What are the units associated with blood pressure?
A) Pa
B) torr
C) mm Hg
D) atm
Q4) There is no such thing as an ideal gas,although helium and nitrogen come close.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Solutions and Colloids
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Sample Questions
Q1) An isotonic salt solution is 0.90% (w/w)NaCl in water.How many grams of NaCl are contained in 1.00 kg of such a solution?
A) 0.090
B) 0.90
C) 9.0
D) 90
Q2) The solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A mixture of sand and water would be an example of a colloidal suspension.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary intermolecular attractions between CH<sub>3</sub>-OH and H<sub>2</sub>O are
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) dispersion forces.
C) covalent bonds.
D) dipolar forces.
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Chapter 8: Reaction Rates and Equilibrium
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Q1) CFC's such as CF<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>,are associated with the increase in chemical activity that degrades ozone.Which of the following relates to this phenomenon?
A) This is not serious because the only area of the planet involved is at the poles and there is very little life to be affected by the increase in UV.
B) The catalyzing of the ozone breakdown decreases the amount of UV at the surface of the planet.
C) The process by which the ozone is degraded is catalytic and can be controlled by the reduction of CFC's.
D) All of these responses are correct.
Q2) Refer to Equilibrium.Cool the mixture.
A) shifts left
B) shifts right
C) no effect
D) can shift to right or left
Q3) Catalysts may lower the activation energy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Acids,bases,and Salts
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Q1) The salt of a strong acid with a strong base could behave as a buffer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sodium nitrate in water will produce a basic solution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pH of a solution of baking soda,NaHCO<sub>3</sub>,would be expected to be above 7.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The molar concentration of OH in a water solution is 1.0 *10<sup>-</sup><sup>9</sup>.The pH of the solution is _____ .
A) 9.00
B) 5.00
C) > 9.00
D) < 5.00
Q5) Ammonium chloride in water will produce an acidic solution. A)True B)False
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Chapter 10: Radioactivity and Nuclear Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following consists of a stream of charged particles?
A) alpha rays
B) beta rays
C) gamma rays
D) More than one response is correct.
Q2) Ionizing radiation produced fee radicals in living tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the emissions can be the cause of radiation sickness?
A) (\(\alpha\) particles)
B) (\(\beta\) particles)
C) neutrons
D) all of them
Q4) Which of the following is not attracted or repelled by electrical charges?
A) alpha rays
B) beta rays
C) gamma rays
D) More than one response is correct.
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Chapter 11: Organic Compounds: Alkanes
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Q1) Alkanes are ____ in water and ____ than water.
A) insoluble,less dense
B) soluble,less dense
C) insoluble,more dense
D) soluble,more dense
Q2) How many structural isomers of C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>16</sub> have five carbon atoms in the longest carbon chain?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q3) Identify the correct statement.Cycloalkanes are
A) compounds that have a flat molecular structure.
B) saturated hydrocarbons.
C) compounds that cannot have the hydrogens removed and replaced by chlorine.
D) None of these statements is correct.
Q4) An organic food is defined as something that contains organic chemicals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
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Q1) The alkynes belong to an extensive family of compounds that have a large biological significance,especially when discussing digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An alkene with one multiple bond can be converted to an alkane by hydration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Alkenes must have at least two carbon atoms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is the formula for an alkene?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>CHCH<sub>2</sub>
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>
C) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>
D) More than one response is correct.
Q5) Alkenes can only have one double bond.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Alcohols, phenols, and Ethers
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Q1) The molecules of compound 1 can hydrogen bond with each other but those of compound 2 cannot.
CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-OH
CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-SH
1 2
A)True
B)False
Q2) The boiling point for ethers should be much higher than alkanes of similar formula mass.This is due to the fact that the C-O bond is much more polar that the C-C bond.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would be only very slightly soluble in water?
A) 1-propanol
B) 2-propanol
C) 1,5-pentanediol
D) 1-hexanol
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Chapter 14: Aldehydes and Ketones
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Q1) The name 4,5-dichlorocyclohexanone should be
A) 1,2-dichlorocyclohexanone.
B) 2,3-dichlorocyclohexanone.
C) 3,4-dichlorocyclohexanone.
D) 4,5-dichlorocyclohexanone.
Q2) Acetone can strongly hydrogen bond to itself.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Another name for acetaldehyde is 2-propane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the consequence of the ability of aldehydes and ketones to form hydrogen bonds?
A) They are both highly colored when in the solid state.
B) They both have boiling points less than the comparable weight alcohol.
C) They prefer to hydrogen bond molecules of the same formula and will not dissolve well in water.
D) There is more than one correct response.
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Chapter 15: Carboxylic Acids and Esters
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Q1) Except for citrus fruits,carboxylic acids are not very common in fruits and vegetables.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Even though aspirin is named acetylsalicylic acid,aspirin contains the ester configuration due to the chemical reaction of a carboxyl group of the salicylic acid and acetic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At pH 2,the predominant form of a carboxylic acid is the carboxylate anion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alpha hydroxy acids can be found in which of the following?
A) apples
B) sour milk
C) sugar beets
D) all the choices
Q5) An ester is equivalent to the inorganic term salt.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Amines and Amides
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Q1) Which of the following four-carbon amides would be the least soluble in water?
A) simple amides
B) monosubstituted amides
C) disubstituted amides
D) all would be equally soluble
Q2) The amine salts are ionic compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nitrogen-containing functional groups in medications are more common than other functional groups.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following substances act as a neurotransmitter?
A) catechol
B) dopamine
C) norepinephrine
D) More than one response is correct.
Q5) Amines release the ammonium ion on hydrolysis.
A)True
B)False
18
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Chapter 17: Carbohydrates
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Q1) A polysaccharide containing \(\beta\)(1\(\rarr\)4)linkages is _____ .
A) cellulose
B) glycogen
C) amylose
D) amylopectin
Q2) The hydrolysis of cellulose and starch would give the same monosaccharide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cellulose is a polysaccharide composed of glucose units.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which polysaccharide usually makes up 80-90% of plant starch?
A) chitin
B) amylopectin
C) heparin
D) hyaluronic acid
Q5) sec-butyl alcohol has two stereoisomers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of a lipid?
A) Most lipids are soluble in water.
B) Most lipids are waxy.
C) Lipids are found only in animals.
D) Most lipids are high density.
Q2) This molecule is a triester of glycerol in which all three alcohol groups are esterified.
A) phosphoglyceride
B) micelle
C) phospholipid
D) triglyceride
Q3) Both fats and oils produce glycerol and fatty acids when hydrolyzed in an acid solution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the products of hydrolysis of a fat is a(n)_____.
A) aldehyde
B) glycerol
C) ester
D) ketone
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Chapter 19: Proteins
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Q1) Some proteins owe their functions to the three dimensional shape they have;what is responsible for holding the shape of a protein?
A) occurs spontaneously and remains constant
B) the length of the protein
C) R-group interactions
D) is established on the basis of the hydrophobic and hydrophilic forces that develop
Q2) Cross links between peptide chains resulting from interactions of the side chains contribute to which type of protein structural feature?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) more than one response is correct
Q3) The digestion of peptides is an oxidation reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All twenty common amino acids contain at least one chiral carbon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Enzymes
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Q1) Which of the following terms is a general definition of an enzyme?
A) catalyst
B) lipid
C) carbohydrate
D) activator
Q2) Which statement does not apply to the lock and key theory?
A) It explains the functioning of enzymes.
B) It explains the need for a specific three dimensional structure found in proteins.
C) It explains the reason why a particular enzyme is involved with one substrate.
D) It explains why a substrate-enzyme complex is so difficult to separate.
Q3) A neighbor comes to you having just moments ago ingested an unknown amount of antifreeze.You are miles from the nearest hospital.Which of the following is your best course of action after calling 911?
A) To make their last moments as pleasant as possible.
B) Give them enough whiskey to nearly get them intoxicated.
C) Give them methanol to detoxify the antifreeze.
D) Do nothing because antifreeze is not toxic to people.
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Chapter 21: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis
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Q1) DNA segments in eukaryotic cells which carry information for protein synthesis are called _____ .
A) introns
B) exons
C) heterogeneous DNA
D) heterogeneous nuclear DNA
Q2) Which of the following helps to serve as a site for protein synthesis?
A) DNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) mRNA
Q3) Recombinant DNA in genetic engineering is
A) DNA with an unusual ability to recombine.
B) bacterial DNA.
C) denatured DNA.
D) DNA formed by combining portions of DNA from two different organisms.
Q4) Ligases are usually used to cleave DNA molecules in genetic engineering.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Energy for Life
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Q1) Several micronutrients are components of enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a trace mineral in the body?
A) copper
B) calcium
C) potassium
D) more than one response is correct
Q3) Although other substances are considered to be macronutrients,carbohydrates are the only macronutrient humans must have daily.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Consuming vitamin water is not a cost effective way of supplementing vitamins in ones diet.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The 2000-Calorie diet was chosen as the standard because all humans require 2000 calories daily.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) What is the final acceptor of electrons during electron transport?
A) NAD<sup>+</sup>
B) NADH
C) FAD
D) O<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Chemiosmotic hypothesis is the postulate that a(n)____ flow across the inner mitochondrial membrane during operation of the electron transport chain provides energy for ATP production.
A) electron
B) proton
C) neutron
D) electrical
Q3) The main source of energy for the brain is _____ .
A) glucose
B) fatty acids
C) glycogen
D) glycerol
Q4) Epinephrine is a peptide hormone.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Lipid and Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct with reference to cholesterol?
A) Cholesterol is a lipid that can be found in the blood.
B) Cholesterol is not soluble and water and will precipitate out of the blood
C) Cholesterol is important in the formation of cell membranes.
D) All of these responses are correct.
Q2) Phenenylketonuria (PKU)is a genetic disorder where an individual is unable to produce the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.This results in the inability of the body to convert phenylalanine to what substance?
A) phenylpyruvate
B) tyrosine
C) acetoacetate
D) (\(\beta\)-hydroxybutyrate)
Q3) Transaminases play a role in amino acid synthesis as well as in nitrogen disposal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pyruvate can furnish an amino group in amino acid biosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Body Fluids
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Q1) Which of the following is an important factor in maintaining electrolyte balance?
A) protein balance
B) fatty acid balance
C) carbohydrate balance
D) water balance
Q2) Which of the following is an abnormal constituent of urine?
A) creatinine
B) chloride
C) phosphate
D) ketone bodies
Q3) Hematuria is a condition where which elevated levels of which of the following is present in urine?
A) hemoglobin
B) bile pigments
C) red blood cells
D) protein
Q4) CO<sub>2</sub> is transported in the blood primarily as carbaminohemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
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