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Chemistry for Non-Majors provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles and applications of chemistry for students without a strong science background. The course explores essential topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, states of matter, and basic chemical reactions, all within the context of real-world phenomena and everyday life. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of chemistry in environmental issues, health, and technology, helping students develop scientific literacy and an appreciation for the role of chemistry in society. Laboratory sessions are designed to reinforce theoretical concepts through hands-on experiments and observations.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry 10th Edition by Raymond Chang
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Q1) Name two types of mixtures.
Answer: Homogeneous mixture and heterogeneous mixture
Q2) An object will float at the surface of a liquid if the mass of the object is less than the mass of the liquid that it displaces. A spherical vessel (diameter = 5.00 cm)when empty has a mass of 12.00 g. What is the greatest volume of water that can be placed in the vessel and still have the vessel float at the surface of benzene? (Given: density of water = 1.00 g/cm<sup>3</sup>; density of benzene = 0.879 g/cm<sup>3</sup>)
A)45.5 mL
B)448 mL
C)53.4 mL
D)57.5 mL
E)65.4 mL
Answer: A
Q3) Classify the following as a physical or chemical change: Food spoils.
Answer: Chemical
Q4) Classify the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture: Table salt (non-iodized).
Answer: Compound
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Q1) Atoms of the same element with different mass numbers are called A)ions.
B)neutrons.
C)allotropes.
D)chemical families.
E)isotopes.
Answer: E
Q2) The mineral hausmannite is a compound of manganese-55 and oxygen-16. If 72% of the mass of hausmannite is due to manganese, what is the empirical formula of hausmannite?
A)MnO
B)Mn<sub>3</sub>O
C)Mn<sub>3</sub>O<sub>4</sub>
D)Mn<sub>4</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
E)MnO<sub>3</sub>
Answer: C
Q3) Name the straight chain hydrocarbon that contains eight carbon atoms.
Answer: octane
Q4) Name the following ternary compound: Al(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
Answer: aluminum nitrate

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Q1) In the Haber process, hydrogen gas reacts with nitrogen gas to produce ammonia.How many kilograms of hydrogen would be required to react completely with 1.0 kg of nitrogen, and how many kilograms of ammonia would be formed?
Answer: 0.22 kg hydrogen required, 1.2 kg ammonia produced
Q2) A 1.375 g sample of mannitol, a sugar found in seaweed, is burned completely in oxygen to give 1.993 g of carbon dioxide and 0.9519 g of water. The empirical formula of mannitol is A)CHO
B)CH<sub>7</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
C)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>2</sub>O
D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>7</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
E)CH<sub>2</sub>O
Answer: D
Q3) Calculate the mass of sodium chlorate that must be decomposed to form 6.5 g of oxygen.
2NaClO<sub>3</sub>(s)\(\rarr\)2NaCl(s)+ 3O<sub>2</sub>(g)
Answer: 14 g
Q4) Calculate the mass of 3.7 moles of Br<sub>2</sub>. Answer: 590 g
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Q1) Give an example of a monoprotic acid.
Q2) Sugar dissolves in water, therefore it is a strong electrolyte. A)True
B)False
Q3) Zinc dissolves in hydrochloric acid to yield hydrogen gas: Zn(s)+ 2HCl(aq)\(\rarr\)ZnCl<sub>2</sub>(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>(g)
When a 12.7 g chunk of zinc dissolves in 500.mL of 1.450M HCl, what is the concentration of hydrogen ions remaining in the final solution?
A)0.776 M
B)0.388 M
C)0.674 M
D)1.06 M
E)0 M
Q4) Identify the following compound as an electrolyte or nonelectrolyte: H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>.
Q5) Identify the following as either a good or poor conductor of electricity: an aqueous solution of Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>.
Q6) Define solution, solute, and solvent.
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Q1) A gas evolved during the fermentation of sugar was collected.After purification its volume was found to be 25.0 L at 22.5°C and 702 mmHg.How many moles of gas were collected?
A)0.95 mol
B)1.05 mol
C)12.5 mol
D)22.4 mol
E)724 mol
Q2) A pressure that will support a column of Hg to a height of 256 mm would support a column of water to what height? The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm<sup>3</sup>; the density of water is 1.00 g/cm<sup>3</sup>.
A)1.00 * 10<sup>2</sup> ft
B)18.8 mm
C)33.8 ft
D)76.0 cm
E)348 cm
Q3) At standard temperature and pressure, a given sample of water vapor occupies a volume of 2.80 L. How many moles of water vapor are present?
Q4) What is the definition of a "gas"?
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Q1) The total heat of hydration of 1 mol of gas phase Li<sup>+</sup> ions and Cl<sup> -</sup> ions is -865 kJ. The lattice energy of LiCl(s)is 828 kJ/mol. Calculate the heat of solution of LiCl.
A)37 kJ/mol
B)1,693 kJ/mol
C)-1,693 kJ/mol
D)-37 kJ/mol
E)None of these.
Q2) Given H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ (1/2)O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\rarr\) H<sub>2</sub>O(l),
\(\Delta\)0H° = -286 kJ/mol, determine the standard enthalpy change for the reaction 2H<sub>2</sub>O(l)\(\rarr\)2H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g).
A)(\(\Delta\)H° = -286 kJ/mol)
B)(\(\Delta\)H° = +286 kJ/mol)
C)(\(\Delta\)H° = -572 kJ/mol)
D)(\(\Delta\)H° = +572 kJ/mol)
E)(\(\Delta\)H° = -143 kJ/mol)
Q3) What is the standard enthalpy of formation of H<sub>2</sub>(g)at 25°C?
Q4) The specific heat of silver is 0.235 J/g·°C. How many joules of heat are required to heat a 75 g silver spoon from 20°C to 35°C?
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Q1) The scattering of helium atoms by a solid can be used to gain information about the lattice of atoms, provided the wavelength of the helium atoms is comparable to the dimensions of the lattice.What is the wavelength, in picometers, of a helium-4 atom with a kinetic energy of 0.10 eV.(mass of <sup>4</sup>He = 4.0026 amu; 1 amu = 1.67 * 10<sup>-24</sup> g; 1 eV = 1.602 * 10<sup>-19</sup> J; h = 6.626 * 10<sup>-34</sup> J.s)
Q2) Calculate the frequency of the light emitted by a hydrogen atom during a transition of its electron from the n = 6 to the n = 3 principal energy level. Recall that for hydrogen E<sub>n</sub> = -2.18 * 10<sup>-18</sup> J(1/n<sup>2</sup>).
A)1.64 * 10<sup>15 </sup>/s
B)9.13 * 10<sup>13 </sup>/s
C)3.65 * 10<sup>14 </sup>/s
D)1.82 * 10<sup>-19 </sup>/s
E)2.74 * 10<sup>14</sup>/s
Q3) An AM radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 1270 kHz.Calculate the wavelength of the broadcast signal in meters.(c = 2.9979 * 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
Q4) What is the total number of electrons possible in the 2p orbitals?
Q5) Write the ground state electron configuration for the selenium atom.
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Q1) The cobalt(III)ion, Co<sup>3+</sup>, has how many 3d electrons?
A)0
B)7
C)6
D)5
E)4
Q2) The general electron configuration for noble gas atoms is
A)ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>6</sup>
B)ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>5</sup>
C)ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>4</sup>
D)ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>3</sup>
E)ns<sup>2</sup>
Q3) Which of the following make an isoelectronic pair: Cl<sup>-</sup>, O<sup>2-</sup>, F, Ca<sup>2+</sup>, Fe<sup>3+</sup>?
A)Ca<sup>2+</sup> and Fe<sup>3+</sup>
B)O<sup>2-</sup> and F
C)F and Cl<sup>-</sup>
D)Cl<sup>-</sup> and Ca<sup>2+</sup>
E)None of the above.
Q4) Write the ground-state electron configuration for S<sup>2-</sup>.
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Q1) The bond in which of the following pairs of atoms would have the greatest percent ionic character (i.e., most polar)?
A)C - O
B)S - O
C)Na - I
D)Na - Br
E)F - F
Q2) Write a Lewis structure for the chlorate ion, ClO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>, that obeys the octet rule, showing all non-zero formal charges, and give the total number of resonance structures for ClO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> that obey the octet rule.
Q3) Which one of these polar covalent bonds would have the greatest percent ionic character?
A)H -Br
B)H - Cl
C)H - F
D)H- I
Q4) Write the Lewis structure of boron trifluoride.
Q5) Write the chemical equation for which the enthalpy of reaction is the lattice energy of KCl(s).
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Q1) Use VSEPR theory to predict the geometry of the PCl<sub>3</sub> molecule.
A)linear
B)bent
C)trigonal planar
D)trigonal pyramidal
E)tetrahedral
Q2) The bond angles in SF<sub>5</sub><sup>+</sup> are expected to be
A)90°.
B)120°.
C)90° and 120°.
D)90° and 180°.
E)90°, 120°, and 180°.
Q3) According to VSEPR theory, which one of the following molecules should have a geometry that is trigonal bipyramidal?
A)SF<sub>4</sub>
B)XeF<sub>4</sub>
C)NF<sub>3</sub>
D)SF<sub>6</sub>
E)PF<sub>5</sub>
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Q4) According to the VSEPR theory, the geometrical structure of PF<sub>5</sub> is

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Q1) The normal boiling point of methanol (CH<sub>3</sub>OH)is 64.6°C. Given that the vapor pressure of methanol is 75.0 torr at 15.2°C, calculate the molar enthalpy of vaporization of methanol.
A)0.383 kJ/mol
B)3.00 kJ/mol
C)38.0 kJ/mol
D)27.5 kJ/mol
E)74.7 kJ/mol
Q2) Which one of the following crystallizes in a metallic lattice?
A)C
B)NaMnO<sub>4</sub>
C)K
D)LiClO<sub>4</sub>
E)K<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>
Q3) Ethanol and dimethyl ether have the same molecular formula, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O.Ethanol boils at 78.4°C.Dimethyl ether boils at -23.7°C.Their structural formulas are, respectively, CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH and CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>. Explain why the boiling point of the ether is so much lower than the boiling point of ethanol.
Q4) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in HCl(g).
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Q1) What is the molarity and molality of a solution that is 10.00 % by mass potassium hydrogen carbonate (KHCO<sub>3</sub>, 100.11 g/mol)and has a density of 1.0650 g/mL?
Q2) For dilute aqueous solutions, the concentration units molarity and molality have almost the same values.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oxygen gas makes up 21 % of the atmosphere by volume.What is the solubility of O<sub>2</sub>(g)in water at 25°C if the atmospheric pressure is 741 mmHg? The Henry's law constant for oxygen gas at 25°C is 1.3 * 10<sup>-</sup><sup>3</sup> mol/L·atm.
A)2.7 * 10<sup>-4</sup> M
B)1.3 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
C)6.2 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
D)9.6 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
E)0.96 M
Q4) Define solvation.
Q5) The solubility of oxygen in water is about 4.5 * 10<sup>-2</sup> g/L.The water portion of an adult's total blood supply is about 5 liters.How many grams of oxygen could dissolve in 5 liters of water?
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Q1) The activation energy for the following reaction is 60.kJ/mol. Sn<sup>2+</sup> + 2Co<sup>3+</sup> F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 Sn<sup>4+</sup> + 2Co<sup>2+</sup> <sup> </sup>By what factor (how many times)will the rate constant increase when the temperature is raised from 10°C to 28°C?
A)1.002
B)4.6
C)5.6
D)2.8
E)696
Q2) At 25°C, by what factor is the reaction rate increased by a catalyst that reduces the activation energy of the reaction by 1.00 kJ/mol?
A)1.63
B)123
C)1.04
D)1.50
E)2.53
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Q1) What conditions are used in the Haber process to enhance the yield of ammonia? Explain why each condition affects the yield in terms of the Le Châtelier principle.
Q2) Describe why addition of a catalyst does not affect the equilibrium constant for a reaction.
Q3) The dissociation of solid silver chloride in water to produce silver ions and chloride ions has an equilibrium constant of 1.8 * 10<sup>-18</sup>.Based on the magnitude of the equilibrium constant, is silver chloride very soluble in water? Why?
Q4) Which of these statements is true about chemical equilibria in general?
A)At equilibrium the total concentration of products equals the total concentration of reactants, that is, [products] = [reactants].
B)Equilibrium is the result of the cessation of all chemical change.
C)There is only one set of equilibrium concentrations that equals the K<sub>c</sub> value.
D)At equilibrium, the rate constant of the forward reaction is equal to the rate constant for the reverse reaction.
E)At equilibrium, the rate of the forward reaction is equal to as the rate of the reverse reaction.
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Q1) A solution with a pH of 8 has a hydrogen ion concentration [H<sup>+</sup>] that is 30 times greater than that of a solution of pH 11.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 0.14 M HNO<sub>2</sub> solution is 5.7% ionized. Calculate the H<sup>+</sup> ion concentration.
A)8.0 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
B)0.057 M
C)0.13 M
D)0.14 M
E)0.80 M
Q3) A 8.0 M solution of formic acid (HCOOH)is 0.47% ionized.What is the K<sub>a</sub> of formic acid?
Q4) Write the chemical formula for phosphoric acid.
Q5) In aqueous solutions at 25°C, the sum of the ion concentrations ([H<sup>+</sup>] + [OH<sup> -</sup>])equals
1 * 10<sup> - 14</sup>.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Will a precipitate (ppt)form when 300.mL of 2.0 * 10<sup>-5</sup> M AgNO<sub>3</sub> are added to 200.mL of 2.5 * 10<sup>-9</sup> M NaI? Answer yes or no, and identify the precipitate if there is one.
A)Yes, the ppt is AgNO<sub>3</sub>(s).
B)Yes, the ppt is NaNO<sub>3</sub>(s).
C)Yes, the ppt is NaI(s).
D)Yes, the ppt is AgI(s).
E)No, a precipitate will not form.
Q2) Write an equation showing the net reaction that occurs when a strong base is added to a CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>/HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> buffer solution (for carbonic acid, K<sub>a1</sub> = 4.2 * 10<sup>-7</sup>, K<sub>a2</sub> = 2.4 * 10<sup>-8</sup>):
Q3) All indicators are weak acids that are one color in acidic solution and another color in basic solution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The solubility of a salt increases as its K<sub>sp</sub> increases.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which one of the following indoor air pollutants has adverse health effects because it is radioactive?
A)formaldehyde
B)carbon monoxide
C)carbon dioxide
D)radon
Q2) Which one of the following would slow the rate of increase of atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub>?
A)Building and operating more coal-fired power plants.
B)More use of catalytic converters in cars to produce complete combustion.
C)Use of hydrogen fuel produced using solar or nuclear energy.
D)Conversion of nuclear power plants to methane-burning power plants.
E)Clearing and burning the tropical rain forests.
Q3) Which region of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
A)thermosphere
B)mesosphere
C)stratosphere
D)troposphere
Q4) List three primary pollutants removed from automobile exhaust by catalytic converters.
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Q1) Which of these species would you expect to have the lowest standard entropy (S°)?
A)Br<sub>2</sub>(l)
B)Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)
C)F<sub>2</sub>(g)
D)H<sub>2</sub>(g)
E)I<sub>2</sub>(s)
Q2) Aluminum forms a layer of aluminum oxide when exposed to air which protects the bulk metal from further corrosion. 4Al(s)+ 3O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)2Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>(s)
Calculate \(\Delta\)G° for this reaction, given that \(\Delta\)G°<sub>f</sub> of aluminum oxide is -1576.4 kJ/mol.
A)-3152.8 kJ/mol
B)-1576.4 kJ/mol
C)-788.2 kJ/mol
D)1576.4 kJ/mol
E)3152.8 kJ/mol
Q3) How does the entropy change when a gas is converted to a liquid?
Q4) Predict the sign of \(\Delta\)S for the process N<sub>2</sub>(g, 10 atm)\(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>(g, 1atm).
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Q1) Using a table of standard reduction potentials, determine which of these reactions (if any)is/are nonspontaneous in the direction indicated at 25°C.
A)2Fe<sup>3+</sup> + 2Cl<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) 2Fe<sup>2+</sup> + Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)
B)2Fe<sup>3+</sup> + 2Br<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) 2Fe<sup>2+</sup> + Br<sub>2</sub>(l) C)2Fe<sup>3+</sup> + 2I<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) 2Fe<sup>2+</sup> + I<sub>2</sub>(s)
D)A and B
E)All are spontaneous.
Q2) Complete and balance the following redox equation using the smallest whole-number coefficients. What is the coefficient of Sn in the balanced equation? Sn + HNO<sub>3</sub> \(\to\) SnO<sub>2</sub> + NO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O (acidic solution)
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) Will H<sub>2</sub>(g)form when Fe is placed in 1.0 M HCl?
Q4) Will H<sub>2</sub>(g)form when Cu is placed in 1.0 M HCl?
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Q1) Write the chemical formula of fluorite.
Q2) Volatile impurities are removed from ores by means of A)roasting.
B)amalgamation.
C)electrolysis.
D)flotation.
E)zone refining.
Q3) Which of these elements when doped into silicon would give an n-type semiconductor?
A)C
B)Ga
C)P
D)Ge
E)B
Q4) In p-type semiconductors,
A)the semiconductors are "ultra purified" to increase conductivity.
B)the valence and conduction bands are formed exclusively from "p orbitals."
C)the semiconductors are "patented" for use in commercial applications.
D)acceptor impurities are added to provide "positive holes" that increase the electrical conductivity of the semiconductor.
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Q1) Write the formula for the binary hydride you would expect calcium to form.
Q2) Which of these industrial chemicals is produced in the greatest amount annually?
A)HNO<sub>3</sub>
B)H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
C)H<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
E)HClO<sub>3</sub>
Q3) The bond energy of F<sub>2</sub> is anomalously low, in comparison with the other halogens, due to the small size of the fluorine atom. Which of the following periodic properties is also anomalously low in the case of fluorine?
A)first ionization energy
B)electron affinity
C)electronegativity
D)diatomic bond length
E)ionic radius
Q4) Write an equation for a laboratory preparation of nitrogen gas.
Q5) P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>6</sub> and P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>10</sub> are allotropes of phosphorus.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The numbers of geometrical isomers and optical isomers of the complex ion [Co(en)<sub>3</sub>]<sup>3+</sup> are, respectively, A)2 and 2.
B)1 and 1.
C)3 and 2.
D)1 and 2.
E)2 and 4.
Q2) The electron configuration of a Co<sup>3+ </sup>ion is
A)[Ar]3d<sup>6</sup>.
B)[Ar]4s<sup>1</sup>3d<sup>5</sup>.
C)[Ar] 4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>4</sup>.
D)[Ar]3d<sup>5</sup>.
E)[Ar]3d<sup>4</sup>.
Q3) How many 3d electrons does a Mn<sup>2+</sup> ion have?
A)1 B)2 C)3 D)4
E)5
Q4) Write the chemical formula of triammineaquodichlorochromium(III)chloride.
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Q1) What fraction of radioactive atoms remains in a sample after six half-lives?
A)zero
B)1/6
C)1/16
D)1/32
E)1/64
Q2) Lead-209 undergoes beta decay.Write a balanced equation for this reaction.
Q3) On a plot of the number of neutrons versus the number of protons, a nucleus of aluminum-28 lies above the belt of stability. Write an equation for radioactive decay of aluminum-28.
Q4) A typical radius of an atomic nucleus is about
A)100 µm
B)5000 mm
C)100 nm
D)5 \(\times\) 10<sup>-3</sup> pm
E)500 pm
Q5) Tritium is a radioisotope of hydrogen having a half-life of 12.3 years.If you initially had 1.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-7</sup> mole of tritium, how many moles of tritium would be left after 78 years?
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Q6) What nuclear fuel is produced in a breeder reactor?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reaction of ethylene and water yields
A)an aldehyde.
B)an ester.
C)an alcohol.
D)an ether.
E)an organic acid.
Q2) Cycloalkanes have the general formula
A)C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n-4</sub>
B)C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n-2</sub>
C)C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub>
D)C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n+2</sub>
E)C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n+4</sub>
Q3) The reaction of hydrogen chloride gas with propene will yield 1-chloropropane as the main product.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A compound with the formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub> may or may not be a saturated hydrocarbon.Explain.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65127
Sample Questions
Q1) An amino acid is a compound that contains at least
A)one amino group and one amide group.
B)two amino groups and one carboxylic acid group.
C)one hydroxyl group and one methyl group.
D)one carboxylic acid group and one amino group.
E)one methyl group and one amide group.
Q2) The secondary structure of a protein is the
A)configuration of those parts of the chain stabilized by a regular pattern of covalent bonds between C and O groups of the backbone of the chain.
B)configuration of those parts of the chain stabilized by a regular pattern of hydrogen bonds between CO and NH groups of the backbone of the chain.
C)specific order of amino acids in the chain.
D)overall three-dimensional structure of the molecule.
E)overall arrangement of several polypeptide chains into one functional unit.
Q3) Hydrogen bonding, dispersion forces, ionic forces, and dipole-dipole forces all affect the structure of a protein?
A)True
B)False
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