
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Chemistry for Non-Majors is designed to introduce students with limited or no background in science to the fundamental concepts and applications of chemistry. This course explores basic chemical principles, including atomic structure, bonding, reactions, states of matter, and the role of chemistry in everyday life. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on activities, students develop an understanding of how chemistry impacts fields such as health, the environment, and industry, enabling informed decisions on scientific issues relevant to modern society. No prior chemistry experience is required.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Nivaldo J. Tro
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Q1) A good definition of chemistry is:
A)the science that seeks to understand what matter does by studying what atoms and molecules do.
B)the science that seeks to understand what living organisms do by studying the molecules that make up the organism.
C)the science that seeks to understand what the universe does by studying interactions of molecules with atoms.
D)the science that seeks to understand the interactions of molecules for the sake of advancing human control over nature.
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Antoine Lavoisier observed that burning objects in a closed container resulted in a loss of mass.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Scientific numbers are reported so that every digit is certain except the last,which is estimated.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The prefix nano represents the multiplier 0.000000001.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) How many significant digits should be reported in the answer to the following calculation?
(4.921)+ (16.2)=

E)none of the above
Answer: A
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Q1) Electrical energy is associated with the flow of electrical charge.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Given the table of specific heat values below,what is the identity of a 26.2 g metal sample that increases by 8.5°C when 100.0 J of energy is absorbed? Element

A)Fe
B)Al
C)Au
D)Ag
E)none of the above
Answer: A
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Q1) The charges on electrons and neutrons cancel each other to give neutral atoms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The elemental symbol for manganese is Mg.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the correct chemical symbol for mercury?
A)Hm
B)Hy
C)Me
D)My
E)none of the above
Q4) An isotope represented as S-34
A)is an isotope of sodium.
B)contains exactly 18 neutrons.
C)has 34 protons.
D)must have exactly 18 electrons.
E)none of the above
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Q1) The correct name for HNO<sub>3</sub> is hydronitric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the formula for an ionic compound made of barium and nitrogen?
A)Ba<sub>3</sub>N<sub>2</sub>
B)Ba<sub>2</sub>N<sub>3</sub>
C)BaN
D)Ba<sub>2</sub>N<sub>4</sub>
E)none of the above
Q3) The name of KNO<sub>3</sub> is potassium nitratide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about chemical formulas is FALSE?
A)The subscripts represent the relative number of each type of atom in the compound.
B)The subscripts represent the relative mass of each type of atom in the compound.
C)The subscripts do not change for a given compound.
D)Different compounds made of the same elements have different subscripts.
E)All of the statements are true.
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Q1) A molecule that has an empirical formula of HO and a molar mass of 34.02 gram must have a molecular formula of H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mass of one mole of carbon dioxide is ________ g.
A)28.01
B)384.4
C)32.00
D)44.01
E)none of the above
Q3) How many moles of fluorine are in 3.2 moles of xenon hexafluoride?
A)22.4
B)12.8
C)19.2
D)16
E)none of the above
Q4) One mole of chlorine gas has a mass of 35.45 grams.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A reaction which forms a solid product is an example of a(n)________.
A)oxidation-reduction reaction
B)combustion reaction
C)precipitation reaction
D)gas evolution reaction
E)none of the above
Q2) What type of reaction is the generic equation AB + CD \(\to\) AD + CB?
A)synthesis/combination
B)decomposition
C)single displacement
D)double-displacement
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT evidence that a chemical reaction has occurred?
A)color change when chemicals are contacted with each other
B)solid formation when chemicals are contacted with each other
C)gas formation when chemicals are contacted with each other
D)emission of light when chemicals are contact with each other
E)All of the above are evidence of a chemical reaction.
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Q1) What is the limiting reactant for the reaction below given that you start with 10.0 grams of Al and 19.0 grams of O<sub>2</sub>?
Reaction: 4Al + 3O<sub>2</sub> 2Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
A)Al
B)O<sub>2</sub>
C)Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
D)both Al and O<sub>2</sub>
E)not enough information
Q2) What is the theoretical yield in grams of CuS for the following reaction given that you start with 15.5 g of Na<sub>2</sub>S and 12.1 g CuSO<sub>4</sub>?
Reaction: Na<sub>2</sub>S + CuSO<sub>4</sub><sub> </sub> Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + CuS
A)0.0758
B)0.198
C)18.93
D)7.25
E)not enough information
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true about "p" orbitals?
A)A subshell contains three "p" orbitals.
B)These orbitals are shaped like dumbbells.
C)A 3p orbital has a higher energy than a 2p orbital.
D)All three of these statements are true.
E)none of the above
Q2) "When filling orbitals of equal energy,electrons fill them singly first with parallel spins."
This is known as:
A)Hund's rule.
B)Pauli exclusion principle.
C)Bohr's model.
D)Ground state.
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following atoms is the largest?
A)Li
B)Na
C)K
D)Rb
E)Cs
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Q1) Which of the following compounds have resonance structures?
A)CH<sub>4</sub>
B)H<sub>2</sub>O
C)NH<sub>3</sub>
D)O<sub>3</sub>
E)None of the compounds have resonance structures.
Q2) Water and oil do not mix because water molecules are nonpolar and molecules that compose oil are generally polar.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following has a tetrahedral electron geometry and a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry?
A)Br<sub>2</sub>O
B)GeH<sub>4</sub>
C)SO<sub>2</sub>
D)PF<sub>3</sub>
E)none of the above
Q4) The Lewis structure of water has two sets of lone pair electrons.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Suppose a balloon was released from the ground and rose to such a height that both the atmospheric pressure and atmospheric temperature decreased.Which statement is TRUE?
A)Both the temperature and pressure changes act to increase the balloon's volume.
B)Both the temperature and pressure changes act to decrease the balloon's volume.
C)The temperature change acts to increase the balloon's volume.
D)The pressure change acts to decrease the balloon's volume.
E)none of the above
Q2) Hydrogen gas produced in the laboratory by the reaction of zinc and hydrochloric acid was collected over water at 25°C.The barometric pressure at the time was 742.5 mm Hg.What is the pressure of dry hydrogen gas if the vapor pressure of water at 25°C is 23.8 mm Hg?
A)742.5 mm Hg
B)718.7 mm Hg
C)766.3 mm Hg
D)760.0 mm Hg
E)none of the above
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Q1) Evaporation and condensation are opposite processes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many kJ of heat are needed to completely melt 17.3 g of H<sub>2</sub>O,given that the water is at its melting point? The heat of fusion for water is 6.02 kJ/mole.
A)0.961
B)5.79
C)1.04
D)6.26
E)none of the above
Q3) Evaporation is:
A)increased by increasing temperature.
B)an endothermic process.
C)the opposite process as condensation.
D)a cooling process for humans when they sweat.
E)all of the above
Q4) Water has unusual physical properties which enable life to exist on earth.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Warm beer goes flat quicker than cold beer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Calculate the molality of a solution prepared by dissolving 19.9 g of KCl in 750.0 mL of water.
A)0.200
B)0.356
C)4.99
D)0.267
E)none of the above
Q3) Hexane,a nonpolar solvent,will dissolve which of the following substances?
A)sodium chloride
B)oil
C)ammonium acetate
D)vinegar (acetic acid)
E)none of the above
Q4) A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the concentration of H<sup>+</sup> in a 0.121 M HCl solution?
A)1.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>14</sup> M
B)< 0.121 M
C)0.121 M
D)not enough information
E)none of the above
Q2) A 35.0 mL sample of 0.225 M HBr was titrated with 42.3 mL of KOH.What is the concentration of the KOH?
A)0.157 M
B)0.303 M
C)0.272 M
D)0.186 M
E)none of the above
Q3) The Bronsted-Lowry definition of an acid is:
A)a proton donor.
B)a proton acceptor.
C)produces H in solution.
D)produces OH in solution.
E)none of the above
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Q1) In an exothermic reaction,you can consider the emitted heat as a reactant in this system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following changes will increase the reaction rate?
A)an increase in the concentration of the products
B)a decrease of the reaction temperature
C)allowing more time for the reaction
D)an increase in the concentration of reactants
E)all of the above
Q3) The rate of a reaction increases with increasing concentrations of reactants because you have more collisions occurring in a given time period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is TRUE about a chemical system in equilibrium?
A)No reaction takes place.
B)Temperature changes have no effect on reaction rate.
C)Addition of more reactants have no effect on reaction rate.
D)Reaction rate remains stable as long as temperature and pressure are stable.
E)none of the above
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Q1) Which battery system is based on half reactions involving zinc metal and manganese dioxide?
A)alkaline batteries
B)fuel cells
C)lead-acid storage batteries
D)dry-cell batteries
E)none of the above
Q2) Reactions involving the transfer of electrons are called redox reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the balanced oxidation half-reaction for the following unbalanced redox reaction:
Ca(s)+ Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq) \(\to\) Ca<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ Ag(s)
A)Ca Ca<sup>2+</sup> + 2 e<sup>-</sup>
B)Ag<sup>+</sup> Ag + e<sup>-</sup>
C)2 e<sup>-</sup> + Ca Ca<sup>2+</sup>
D)2 Ag<sup>+</sup> + 2 e<sup>-</sup> 2Ag
E)none of the above
Q4) Suggest two methods to reduce corrosion of a metal such as iron and briefly explain how each method works.
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Q1) Radioactivity is the emission of tiny,invisible radio signals by the nuclei of certain atoms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All unstable elements have the same rates of radioactive decay.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nuclear power plants produce energy by fission reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nuclear fusion:
A)is the formation of heavier elements from lighter ones.
B)releases a larger amount of heat than nuclear fission.
C)is the energy source of the sun and stars.
D)produces non-radioactive elements.
E)all of the above
Q5) Radioactive particles can pass through matter.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
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Q1) Which of the following compounds will undergo an addition reaction?
A)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) The generic condensed structural formula for carboxylic acids is RCOOH.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of hydrocarbon is classified as being saturated?
A)alkanes
B)alkenes
C)alkynes
D)all of these
E)none of the above
Q4) The formula of propanoic acid is: CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>COOH.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The portion of the cell that contains the genetic information is called:
A)cytoplasm.
B)membrane.
C)nucleus.
D)mitochondria.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which base is found in RNA but NOT in DNA?
A)uracil
B)thymine
C)guanine
D)cytosine
E)adenine
Q3) Monosaccharides typically rearrange in aqueous solution to form double helix structures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carbohydrates provide short term energy storage in cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?
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