Chemistry for Life Sciences Review Questions - 3452 Verified Questions

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Chemistry for Life Sciences

Review Questions

Course Introduction

Chemistry for Life Sciences introduces students to the fundamental concepts of chemistry as they relate to biological systems. The course covers essential topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, reactions, thermodynamics, acids and bases, and solutions, emphasizing their application to processes in living organisms. Students will explore how chemical principles underpin cellular function, metabolism, and genetics, gaining a solid foundation for advanced study in fields such as biochemistry, pharmacology, and molecular biology. Practical laboratory sessions complement the theoretical content, allowing students to develop analytical skills and apply chemical techniques relevant to the life sciences.

Recommended Textbook

Chemistry A Molecular Approach 4th Edition by Nivaldo J. Tro

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Chapter 1: Matter, measurement, and Problem Solving

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the melting point of molybdenum metal is 2623°C,what is its melting point in Kelvin?

A) 1454 K

B) 2350 K

C) 2896 K

D) 4753 K

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) A scientific law is fact.

B) Once a theory is constructed, it is considered fact.

C) A hypothesis is speculation that is difficult to test.

D) An observation explains why nature does something.

E) A scientific law summarizes a series of related observations.

Answer: E

Q3) Define an atom.

Answer: An atom is the submicroscopic particle that constitutes the fundamental building block of ordinary matter.

Q4) Define random error.

Answer: Random error has an equal probability of being too high or too low.

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Chapter 2: Atoms and Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) The number 6.022 × 10<sup>23</sup> is called ________.

Answer: Avogadro's number

Q2) Which of the following statements about subatomic particles is TRUE?

A) A neutral atom contains the same number of protons and electrons.

B) Protons have about the same mass as electrons.

C) Electrons make up most of the mass of an atom.

D) Protons and neutrons have opposite, but equal in magnitude, charges.

E) Neutrons and electrons are found in the nucleus of an atom.

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following elements is a noble gas?

A) As

B) C

C) F

D) Co

E) He

Answer: E

Q4) The atomic number is equal to the number of ________.

Answer: protons

Q5) Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na.

Answer: sodium

4

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Chapter 3: Molecules,compounds,and Chemical Equations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5.33 × 10<sup>22</sup> molecules of hexane.The density of hexane is 0.6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86.17 g/mol.

A) 8.59 mL

B) 13.5 mL

C) 7.40 mL

D) 12.4 mL

E) 11.6 mL

Answer: E

Q2) Which of the following is the correct chemical formula for a molecule of chlorine?

A) Cl

B) Cl<sup>-</sup>

C) Cl<sup>+</sup>

D) Cl<sub>2</sub>

Answer: D

Q3) Describe a structural formula.

Answer: In a structural formula,lines are used to represent covalent bonds to show how the atoms in the molecule are connected to each other.

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Chapter 4: Chemical Quantities and Aqueous Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Choose the statement below that is TRUE.

A) A weak acid solution consists of mostly nonionized acid molecules.

B) The term "strong electrolyte" means that the substance is extremely reactive.

C) A strong acid solution consists of only partially ionized acid molecules.

D) The term "weak electrolyte" means that the substance is inert.

E) A molecular compound that does not ionize in solution is considered a strong electrolyte.

Q2) Determine the oxidation state of magnesium in MgO.

A) -5

B) +3

C) +1

D) +2

E) -4

Q3) Identify the species reduced. 2 Al<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ 2 Fe(s) 2 Al(s)+ 3 Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)

A) Al<sup>3+</sup>

B) Fe

C) Al

D) Fe<sup>2+</sup>

E) This is not an oxidation-reduction reaction.

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Chapter 5: Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Define pressure.

A) force used to compress a gas

B) force applied to a gas to condense it

C) force exerted per unit area by gas particles as they strike the surfaces around them

D) force exerted by solids to the surrounding area

E) force used to melt a solid

Q2) The density of a gas is 1.43 g/L at STP.What is the gas?

A) H<sub>2</sub>

B) F<sub>2</sub>

C) Kr<sub> </sub>

D) O<sub>2</sub>

E) N<sub>2</sub>

Q3) Which of the following samples has the greatest density at STP?

A) O<sub>2</sub>

B) Xe

C) CO<sub>2</sub>

D) SF<sub>6</sub>

E) All of these samples have the same density at STP.

Q4) Give the major gas in dry air.

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Chapter 6: Thermochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the enthalpy change (in kJ)of a chemical reaction that raises the temperature of 250.0 mL of solution having a density of 1.25 g/ml by 9.20°C? (The specific heat of the solution is 3.74 J/g K.)

A) -7.20 kJ

B) 12.7 kJ

C) 8.80 kJ

D) -10.8 kJ

E) 6.40 kJ

Q2) A balloon is inflated from 0.0100 L to 0.600 L against an external pressure of 10.00

atm.How much work is done in joules? 101.3 J = 1 L × atm

A) -59.8 J

B) 59.8 J

C) 0.598 J

D) -0.598 J

E) -598 J

Q3) Where does the energy absorbed during an endothermic reaction go?

Q4) Give the temperature and pressure for the standard state for a liquid.

Q5) Explain the difference between H and DE.

Q6) Define chemical energy.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: The Quantum-Mechanical Model of the Atom

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ is/are used to image bones and internal organs.

A) Ultraviolet light

B) Gamma rays

C) Microwaves

D) X-rays

E) Radio waves

Q2) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 575 nm appears as yellow light to the human eye.The energy of one photon of this light is 3.46 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>9</sup> J.Thus,a laser that emits 1.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup> J of energy in a pulse of light at this wavelength produces ________ photons in each pulse.

A) 2.7 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>7</sup>

B) 7.8 × 10<sup>-24</sup>

C) 2.2 × 10<sup>1</sup><sup>9</sup>

D) 3.8 × 10<sup>1</sup><sup>6</sup>

E) 6.5 × 10<sup>1</sup><sup>3</sup>

Q3) Describe how a neon light works.

Q4) Define constructive interference.

Q5) Give an example of a p orbital.

Q6) Sketch one of the 3p orbitals below.How are they different from the 2p orbitals?

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Periodic Properties of the Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Give the number of valence electrons for Pb.

A) 4

B) 2

C) 28

D) 12

E) 26

Q2) Place the following in order of decreasing IE<sub>1</sub>. Cs Mg Ar

A) Cs > Mg > Ar

B) Mg > Ar > Cs

C) Ar > Mg > Cs

D) Cs > Ar > Mg

E) Mg > Cs > Ar

Q3) Give the number of valence electrons for Te.

A) 1

B) 7

C) 3

D) 5

E) 6

Q4) Why do successive ionization energies increase?

Q5) Define electron affinity.

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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonding I: Lewis Theory

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Sample Questions

Q1) A single covalent bond contains

A) 0 pairs of neutrons.

B) 1 pair of electrons.

C) 2 pairs of electrons.

D) 1 pair of protons.

E) 4 pairs of protons.

Q2) Choose the compound below that should have the lowest melting point according to the ionic bonding model.

A) LiF

B) LiCl

C) CsI

D) KBr

E) RbBr

Q3) Of the following elements,which has the lowest electronegativity?

A) O

B) P

C) Na

D) Nb

E) W

Q4) List the most electronegative atom.

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Chapter 10: Chemical Bonding Ii: Molecular Shapes,valence

Bond Theory,

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the electron geometry (eg),molecular geometry (mg),and polarity of SO<sub>3</sub>.

A) eg = tetrahedral, mg = trigonal pyramidal, polar

B) eg = tetrahedral, mg = tetrahedral, nonpolar

C) eg = trigonal planar, mg = trigonal planar, nonpolar

D) eg = trigonal bipyramidal, mg = trigonal pyramidal, nonpolar

E) eg = trigonal pyramidal, mg = bent, nonpolar

Q2) Identify the hybridization for the carbons in benzene,C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>.

A) sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>

B) sp<sup>3</sup>d

C) sp<sup>3</sup>

D) sp

E) sp<sup>2</sup>

Q3) Give the hybridization for the S in SO<sub>3</sub>.

A) sp

B) sp<sup>3</sup>

C) sp<sup>2</sup>

D) sp<sup>3</sup>d

E) sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Liquids,solids,and Intermolecular Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) Choose the compound that exhibits hydrogen bonding as its strongest intermolecular force.

A) CI<sub>4</sub>

B) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>

C) CH<sub>3</sub>OH

D) CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>

E) None of the above compounds exhibits hydrogen bonding.

Q2) Place the following compounds in order of decreasing strength of intermolecular forces.

I.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH< sub>3</sub> II.(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCH<sub>3</sub> III.(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

A) III > II > I

B) I > III > II

C) I > II > III

D) II > III > I

E) III > I > II

Q3) Why do O,F and N,when bonded to H,form such strong intermolecular attractions to neighboring molecules? Make sure to be specific.

Q4) Define volatile.

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Chapter 12: Solids and Modern Materials

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Sample Questions

Q1) To obtain the best chocolate,the chocolate is

A) cooled quickly.

B) heated quickly.

C) heated and cooled under controlled conditions.

D) dropped into ice water.

E) not monitored with temperature.

Q2) Identify the element with the largest band gap.

A) lead

B) silicon

C) germanium

D) carbon

E) tin

Q3) Identify two-dimensional graphite.

A) buckyball

B) diamond

C) graphene

D) fullerene

E) charcoal

Q4) Give the edge length in terms of r for a simple cubic cell.

Q5) Describe the difference between the conduction band and the valence band.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A solution of CsF in water has X<sub>CsF</sub> = 0.0700.What is the molality?

A) 3.55 m CsF

B) 3.89 m CsF

C) 4.18 m CsF

D) 7.53 m CsF

Q2) Identify the colligative property.

A) vapor pressure lowering

B) freezing point depression

C) boiling point elevation

D) osmotic pressure

E) all of the above

Q3) Give the term for the amount of solute in moles per kilogram of solvent.

A) molality

B) molarity

C) mole fraction

D) mole percent

E) mass percent

Q4) Calculate the osmotic pressure,in torr,of a solution containing 3.00 mg of a sugar (342 g/mole)in 15.0 mL of water at 25°C.

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Chapter 14: Chemical Kinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rate constant for a second-order reaction is 0.54 M<sup>-1</sup>s<sup>-1</sup>.What is the half-life of this reaction if the initial concentration is 0.33 M?

A) 0.089 s

B) 1.8 s

C) 0.31 s

D) 5.6 s

E) 1.3 s

Q2) In the hydrogenation of double bonds,a catalyst is needed.In the second step,the reactants diffuse on the surface until they approach each other.This step is known as A) adsorption.

B) diffusion.

C) reaction.

D) desorption.

E) none of the above

Q3) What is a catalyst and what function does it serve?

Q4) Define the frequency factor.

Q5) Explain what the exponential factor in the Arrhenius equation represents.

Q6) Define half-life.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) The equilibrium constant is given for one of the reactions below.Determine the value of the missing equilibrium constant. N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(g) 2 NO<sub>2</sub>(g)K<sub>c</sub> = 1.46 3 N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(g) 6 NO<sub>2</sub>(g)K<sub>c</sub> = ?

A) 1.46

B) 0.322

C) 3.11

D) 1.13

E) 5.40

Q2) What is n for the following equation in relating K<sub>c</sub> to K<sub>p</sub>? 2 NCl<sub>3</sub>(g) N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 3 Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)

A) 4

B) -3

C) 2

D) -1

E) 0

Q3) How will equilibrium be affected,with the same number of moles of gas on both sides,if the pressure is increased?

Q4) Explain dynamic equilibrium.Use the generic reaction A(g) B(g)to explain.

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Chapter 16: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an Arrhenius base?

A) CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H

B) RbOH

C) CH<sub>3</sub>OH

D) KBr

E) More than one of these compounds is an Arrhenius base.

Q2) Determine the pH of a 0.62 M NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub> solution at 25°C.The K<sub>b</sub> for NH<sub>3</sub> is 1.76 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.

A) 2.48

B) 9.27

C) 11.52

D) 4.73

E) 9.45

Q3) Which of the following acids will have the strongest conjugate base?

A) HCl

B) HClO<sub>4</sub>

C) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

D) HCN

E) KF

Q4) Describe a molecule that can be a Lewis acid.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Aqueous Ionic Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the molar solubility of Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub> in a basic solution with a pH of 12.50? K<sub>sp </sub>for Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub> is 5.6 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup>.

A) 1.8 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>10</sup> M

B) 5.6 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>9</sup> M

C) 2.4 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

D) 1.1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M

Q2) Which of the following compounds solubility will NOT be affected by a low pH in solution?

A) AgCl

B) Sr(OH)<sub>2</sub>

C) CaF<sub>2</sub>

D) CuS

E) SrCO<sub>3</sub>

Q3) Describe what happens at neutral pH for aluminum hydroxide.

A) Al(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub><sup>3+</sup> precipitates.

B) Al(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>2</sub>(OH)<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> dissolves.

C) Al(OH)<sub>3</sub> precipitates.

D) Al precipitates.

E) Al dissolves.

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Chapter 18: Free Energy and Thermodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is true if ln K is 1?

A) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is positive and the reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction.

B) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is negative and the reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction.

C) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is negative and the reaction is spontaneous in the reverse direction.

D) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is positive and the reaction is spontaneous in the reverse direction.

E) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is zero and the reaction is at equilibrium.

Q2) Above what temperature does the following reaction become nonspontaneous?

FeO(s)+ CO(g) CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ Fe(s) H = -11.0 kJ; S = -17.4 J/K

A) 632 K

B) 298 K

C) 191 K

D) This reaction is nonspontaneous at all temperatures.

E) This reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures.

Q3) Why can endothermic reactions be spontaneous?

Q4) Define entropy.

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Chapter 19: Electrochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) To prevent rust,nails are coated with A) zinc.

B) salt.

C) calcium.

D) sodium.

E) lithium.

Q2) Explain the significance of the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE)in the tabulation of standard reduction potentials of other species.

Q3) Balance the following redox reaction if it occurs in acidic solution.What are the coefficients in front of H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>and H<sub>2</sub>O in the balanced reaction?

MnO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(aq) Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ CO<sub>2</sub>(g)

A) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 5, H<sub>2</sub>O = 8

B) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 1, H<sub>2</sub>O = 1

C) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 5, H<sub>2</sub>O = 1

D) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 1, H<sub>2</sub>O = 4

E) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 3, H<sub>2</sub>O = 2

Q4) Why is sugar water NOT a good conductor of current?

Q5) What is electrolysis?

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Chapter 20: Radioactivity and Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The splitting of a heavy nucleus to form two or more lighter ones is called

A) radioactive cleavage.

B) nuclear fission.

C) nuclear fusion.

D) radioactive merge.

E) half-life.

Q2) An archaeologist graduate student found a leg bone of a large animal during the building of a new science building.The bone had a carbon-14 decay rate of 14.8 disintegrations per minute per gram of carbon.Living organisms have a decay rate of 15.3 disintegrations per minute.How old is the bone?

A) 53.3 years

B) 275 years

C) 111 years

D) 25 years

E) 83 years

Q3) Explain the concept of "magic numbers."

Q4) What is the "mass defect"?

Q5) Describe what is meant by the term "valley of stability"?

Q6) List two problems associated with nuclear power.

Q7) How does a dosimeter measure exposure to radioactivity?

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Chapter 21: Organic Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Write a balanced chemical reaction to represent the combustion of pentane.

A) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + 8 O<sub>2</sub> 5 CO<sub>2</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O

B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + 5 O<sub>2</sub> 3 CO<sub>2</sub> + 4 H<sub>2</sub>O

C) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + H<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>4</sub> + 2 C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>

D) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + H<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>4</sub> + C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>

E) 2 CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 3 CH<sub>4</sub> + 2 H<sub>2</sub>O

Q2) Identify the compound that can smell like rotten fish.

A) acetic acid

B) trimethylamine

C) benzaldehyde

D) acetone

E) ethanol

Q3) Why doesn't benzene typically undergo addition reactions like the alkenes do?

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Chapter 22: Biochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary protein structure?

A) tripeptide

B) glyceride

C) -helix

D) amino acid

E) fatty acid

Q2) Identify a base that is NOT in RNA.

A) adenine

B) cytosine

C) thymine

D) guanine

E) uracil

Q3) Which of the following link together amino acid units?

A) glycosidic linkages

B) sulfide linkages

C) peptide bonds

D) hydrogen bonds

E) ester linkages

Q4) What is a codon?

Q5) Why are lipids well-suited as structural components of cell membranes?

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Chemistry of the Nonmetals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the form of carbon that is used for gems.

A) coal

B) charcoal

C) gasoline

D) diamond

E) fullerene

Q2) Which of the following are major components of Earth's crust?

A) oxygen and silicon

B) calcium and silicon

C) oxygen and hydrogen

D) oxygen, magnesium and carbon

E) oxygen, hydrogen and carbon

Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) Each boron nitride unit contains six valence electrons.

B) Carbon nanotubes and boron nitride nanotubes are not similar.

C) Boron nitride contains BN units that are isoelectric with carbon.

D) Boron nitrides conduct an electrical current.

E) The size and electronegativity of a carbon atom are not close to the average of those properties for a boron atom and a nitrogen atom.

Q4) Describe the Frasch process for obtaining sulfur.

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Metals and Metallurgy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Powder metallurgy is

A) refining of metal ores using reduction reactions.

B) refining of metal ores using cold.

C) forming metal parts using electricity.

D) refining of metal ores using reactions with basic solutions.

E) forming metal parts using heat and small crystals of metal.

Q2) Hydrometallurgy is

A) refining of metal ores using oxidation reactions.

B) refining of metal ores using cold.

C) refining of metal ores using reactions with aqueous solutions.

D) forming metal parts using heat and large crystals of metal.

E) forming tiny metal crystals using acid and water spray.

Q3) Chromates are strong

A) oxidizers.

B) bases.

C) acids.

D) metals.

E) reducers.

Q4) What is an advantage of hydrometallurgical processes over pyrometallurgical processes?

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Chapter 25: Transition Metals and Coordination Compounds

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

72 Verified Questions

72 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72351

Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the geometry of [Zn(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>+2</sup>.

A) tetrahedral

B) octahedral

C) linear

D) square planar

E) trigonal planar

Q2) The complex ion,[Ni(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>,has a maximum absorption near 580 nm.Calculate the crystal field splitting energy (in kJ/mol)for this ion.

A) 114 kJ/mol

B) 292 kJ/mol

C) 343 kJ/mol

D) 206 kJ/mol

E) 485 kJ/mol

Q3) Name the following: Fe[AlF<sub>6</sub>]

A) ironaluminumhexafluoride

B) iron(II) hexafluoroaluminum

C) iron(III) hexafluoroaluminate

D) iron(I) aluminumhexafluoride

E) aluminumhexafluoroferrate

Page 27

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