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Chemistry for Life Sciences introduces students to the fundamental concepts of chemistry as they relate to biological systems. The course covers essential topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, reactions, thermodynamics, acids and bases, and solutions, emphasizing their application to processes in living organisms. Students will explore how chemical principles underpin cellular function, metabolism, and genetics, gaining a solid foundation for advanced study in fields such as biochemistry, pharmacology, and molecular biology. Practical laboratory sessions complement the theoretical content, allowing students to develop analytical skills and apply chemical techniques relevant to the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry A Molecular Approach 4th Edition by Nivaldo J. Tro
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the melting point of molybdenum metal is 2623°C,what is its melting point in Kelvin?
A) 1454 K
B) 2350 K
C) 2896 K
D) 4753 K
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) A scientific law is fact.
B) Once a theory is constructed, it is considered fact.
C) A hypothesis is speculation that is difficult to test.
D) An observation explains why nature does something.
E) A scientific law summarizes a series of related observations.
Answer: E
Q3) Define an atom.
Answer: An atom is the submicroscopic particle that constitutes the fundamental building block of ordinary matter.
Q4) Define random error.
Answer: Random error has an equal probability of being too high or too low.
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Q1) The number 6.022 × 10<sup>23</sup> is called ________.
Answer: Avogadro's number
Q2) Which of the following statements about subatomic particles is TRUE?
A) A neutral atom contains the same number of protons and electrons.
B) Protons have about the same mass as electrons.
C) Electrons make up most of the mass of an atom.
D) Protons and neutrons have opposite, but equal in magnitude, charges.
E) Neutrons and electrons are found in the nucleus of an atom.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following elements is a noble gas?
A) As
B) C
C) F
D) Co
E) He
Answer: E
Q4) The atomic number is equal to the number of ________.
Answer: protons
Q5) Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na.
Answer: sodium

4
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Q1) Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5.33 × 10<sup>22</sup> molecules of hexane.The density of hexane is 0.6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86.17 g/mol.
A) 8.59 mL
B) 13.5 mL
C) 7.40 mL
D) 12.4 mL
E) 11.6 mL
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is the correct chemical formula for a molecule of chlorine?
A) Cl
B) Cl<sup>-</sup>
C) Cl<sup>+</sup>
D) Cl<sub>2</sub>
Answer: D
Q3) Describe a structural formula.
Answer: In a structural formula,lines are used to represent covalent bonds to show how the atoms in the molecule are connected to each other.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the statement below that is TRUE.
A) A weak acid solution consists of mostly nonionized acid molecules.
B) The term "strong electrolyte" means that the substance is extremely reactive.
C) A strong acid solution consists of only partially ionized acid molecules.
D) The term "weak electrolyte" means that the substance is inert.
E) A molecular compound that does not ionize in solution is considered a strong electrolyte.
Q2) Determine the oxidation state of magnesium in MgO.
A) -5
B) +3
C) +1
D) +2
E) -4
Q3) Identify the species reduced. 2 Al<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ 2 Fe(s) 2 Al(s)+ 3 Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)
A) Al<sup>3+</sup>
B) Fe
C) Al
D) Fe<sup>2+</sup>
E) This is not an oxidation-reduction reaction.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define pressure.
A) force used to compress a gas
B) force applied to a gas to condense it
C) force exerted per unit area by gas particles as they strike the surfaces around them
D) force exerted by solids to the surrounding area
E) force used to melt a solid
Q2) The density of a gas is 1.43 g/L at STP.What is the gas?
A) H<sub>2</sub>
B) F<sub>2</sub>
C) Kr<sub> </sub>
D) O<sub>2</sub>
E) N<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following samples has the greatest density at STP?
A) O<sub>2</sub>
B) Xe
C) CO<sub>2</sub>
D) SF<sub>6</sub>
E) All of these samples have the same density at STP.
Q4) Give the major gas in dry air.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the enthalpy change (in kJ)of a chemical reaction that raises the temperature of 250.0 mL of solution having a density of 1.25 g/ml by 9.20°C? (The specific heat of the solution is 3.74 J/g K.)
A) -7.20 kJ
B) 12.7 kJ
C) 8.80 kJ
D) -10.8 kJ
E) 6.40 kJ
Q2) A balloon is inflated from 0.0100 L to 0.600 L against an external pressure of 10.00
atm.How much work is done in joules? 101.3 J = 1 L × atm
A) -59.8 J
B) 59.8 J
C) 0.598 J
D) -0.598 J
E) -598 J
Q3) Where does the energy absorbed during an endothermic reaction go?
Q4) Give the temperature and pressure for the standard state for a liquid.
Q5) Explain the difference between H and DE.
Q6) Define chemical energy.

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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is/are used to image bones and internal organs.
A) Ultraviolet light
B) Gamma rays
C) Microwaves
D) X-rays
E) Radio waves
Q2) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 575 nm appears as yellow light to the human eye.The energy of one photon of this light is 3.46 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>9</sup> J.Thus,a laser that emits 1.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup> J of energy in a pulse of light at this wavelength produces ________ photons in each pulse.
A) 2.7 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>7</sup>
B) 7.8 × 10<sup>-24</sup>
C) 2.2 × 10<sup>1</sup><sup>9</sup>
D) 3.8 × 10<sup>1</sup><sup>6</sup>
E) 6.5 × 10<sup>1</sup><sup>3</sup>
Q3) Describe how a neon light works.
Q4) Define constructive interference.
Q5) Give an example of a p orbital.
Q6) Sketch one of the 3p orbitals below.How are they different from the 2p orbitals?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give the number of valence electrons for Pb.
A) 4
B) 2
C) 28
D) 12
E) 26
Q2) Place the following in order of decreasing IE<sub>1</sub>. Cs Mg Ar
A) Cs > Mg > Ar
B) Mg > Ar > Cs
C) Ar > Mg > Cs
D) Cs > Ar > Mg
E) Mg > Cs > Ar
Q3) Give the number of valence electrons for Te.
A) 1
B) 7
C) 3
D) 5
E) 6
Q4) Why do successive ionization energies increase?
Q5) Define electron affinity.

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Sample Questions
Q1) A single covalent bond contains
A) 0 pairs of neutrons.
B) 1 pair of electrons.
C) 2 pairs of electrons.
D) 1 pair of protons.
E) 4 pairs of protons.
Q2) Choose the compound below that should have the lowest melting point according to the ionic bonding model.
A) LiF
B) LiCl
C) CsI
D) KBr
E) RbBr
Q3) Of the following elements,which has the lowest electronegativity?
A) O
B) P
C) Na
D) Nb
E) W
Q4) List the most electronegative atom.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determine the electron geometry (eg),molecular geometry (mg),and polarity of SO<sub>3</sub>.
A) eg = tetrahedral, mg = trigonal pyramidal, polar
B) eg = tetrahedral, mg = tetrahedral, nonpolar
C) eg = trigonal planar, mg = trigonal planar, nonpolar
D) eg = trigonal bipyramidal, mg = trigonal pyramidal, nonpolar
E) eg = trigonal pyramidal, mg = bent, nonpolar
Q2) Identify the hybridization for the carbons in benzene,C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>.
A) sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>
B) sp<sup>3</sup>d
C) sp<sup>3</sup>
D) sp
E) sp<sup>2</sup>
Q3) Give the hybridization for the S in SO<sub>3</sub>.
A) sp
B) sp<sup>3</sup>
C) sp<sup>2</sup>
D) sp<sup>3</sup>d
E) sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>

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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the compound that exhibits hydrogen bonding as its strongest intermolecular force.
A) CI<sub>4</sub>
B) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
C) CH<sub>3</sub>OH
D) CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>
E) None of the above compounds exhibits hydrogen bonding.
Q2) Place the following compounds in order of decreasing strength of intermolecular forces.
I.CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH< sub>3</sub> II.(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCH<sub>3</sub> III.(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
A) III > II > I
B) I > III > II
C) I > II > III
D) II > III > I
E) III > I > II
Q3) Why do O,F and N,when bonded to H,form such strong intermolecular attractions to neighboring molecules? Make sure to be specific.
Q4) Define volatile.
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Sample Questions
Q1) To obtain the best chocolate,the chocolate is
A) cooled quickly.
B) heated quickly.
C) heated and cooled under controlled conditions.
D) dropped into ice water.
E) not monitored with temperature.
Q2) Identify the element with the largest band gap.
A) lead
B) silicon
C) germanium
D) carbon
E) tin
Q3) Identify two-dimensional graphite.
A) buckyball
B) diamond
C) graphene
D) fullerene
E) charcoal
Q4) Give the edge length in terms of r for a simple cubic cell.
Q5) Describe the difference between the conduction band and the valence band.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution of CsF in water has X<sub>CsF</sub> = 0.0700.What is the molality?
A) 3.55 m CsF
B) 3.89 m CsF
C) 4.18 m CsF
D) 7.53 m CsF
Q2) Identify the colligative property.
A) vapor pressure lowering
B) freezing point depression
C) boiling point elevation
D) osmotic pressure
E) all of the above
Q3) Give the term for the amount of solute in moles per kilogram of solvent.
A) molality
B) molarity
C) mole fraction
D) mole percent
E) mass percent
Q4) Calculate the osmotic pressure,in torr,of a solution containing 3.00 mg of a sugar (342 g/mole)in 15.0 mL of water at 25°C.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate constant for a second-order reaction is 0.54 M<sup>-1</sup>s<sup>-1</sup>.What is the half-life of this reaction if the initial concentration is 0.33 M?
A) 0.089 s
B) 1.8 s
C) 0.31 s
D) 5.6 s
E) 1.3 s
Q2) In the hydrogenation of double bonds,a catalyst is needed.In the second step,the reactants diffuse on the surface until they approach each other.This step is known as A) adsorption.
B) diffusion.
C) reaction.
D) desorption.
E) none of the above
Q3) What is a catalyst and what function does it serve?
Q4) Define the frequency factor.
Q5) Explain what the exponential factor in the Arrhenius equation represents.
Q6) Define half-life.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The equilibrium constant is given for one of the reactions below.Determine the value of the missing equilibrium constant. N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(g) 2 NO<sub>2</sub>(g)K<sub>c</sub> = 1.46 3 N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(g) 6 NO<sub>2</sub>(g)K<sub>c</sub> = ?
A) 1.46
B) 0.322
C) 3.11
D) 1.13
E) 5.40
Q2) What is n for the following equation in relating K<sub>c</sub> to K<sub>p</sub>? 2 NCl<sub>3</sub>(g) N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 3 Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)
A) 4
B) -3
C) 2
D) -1
E) 0
Q3) How will equilibrium be affected,with the same number of moles of gas on both sides,if the pressure is increased?
Q4) Explain dynamic equilibrium.Use the generic reaction A(g) B(g)to explain.
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Q1) Which of the following is an Arrhenius base?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
B) RbOH
C) CH<sub>3</sub>OH
D) KBr
E) More than one of these compounds is an Arrhenius base.
Q2) Determine the pH of a 0.62 M NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub> solution at 25°C.The K<sub>b</sub> for NH<sub>3</sub> is 1.76 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
A) 2.48
B) 9.27
C) 11.52
D) 4.73
E) 9.45
Q3) Which of the following acids will have the strongest conjugate base?
A) HCl
B) HClO<sub>4</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
D) HCN
E) KF
Q4) Describe a molecule that can be a Lewis acid.
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Q1) What is the molar solubility of Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub> in a basic solution with a pH of 12.50? K<sub>sp </sub>for Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub> is 5.6 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup>.
A) 1.8 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>10</sup> M
B) 5.6 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>9</sup> M
C) 2.4 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M
D) 1.1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M
Q2) Which of the following compounds solubility will NOT be affected by a low pH in solution?
A) AgCl
B) Sr(OH)<sub>2</sub>
C) CaF<sub>2</sub>
D) CuS
E) SrCO<sub>3</sub>
Q3) Describe what happens at neutral pH for aluminum hydroxide.
A) Al(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub><sup>3+</sup> precipitates.
B) Al(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>2</sub>(OH)<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> dissolves.
C) Al(OH)<sub>3</sub> precipitates.
D) Al precipitates.
E) Al dissolves.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true if ln K is 1?
A) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is positive and the reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction.
B) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is negative and the reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction.
C) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is negative and the reaction is spontaneous in the reverse direction.
D) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is positive and the reaction is spontaneous in the reverse direction.
E) G°<sub>rxn</sub> is zero and the reaction is at equilibrium.
Q2) Above what temperature does the following reaction become nonspontaneous?
FeO(s)+ CO(g) CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ Fe(s) H = -11.0 kJ; S = -17.4 J/K
A) 632 K
B) 298 K
C) 191 K
D) This reaction is nonspontaneous at all temperatures.
E) This reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures.
Q3) Why can endothermic reactions be spontaneous?
Q4) Define entropy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent rust,nails are coated with A) zinc.
B) salt.
C) calcium.
D) sodium.
E) lithium.
Q2) Explain the significance of the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE)in the tabulation of standard reduction potentials of other species.
Q3) Balance the following redox reaction if it occurs in acidic solution.What are the coefficients in front of H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>and H<sub>2</sub>O in the balanced reaction?
MnO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(aq) Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ CO<sub>2</sub>(g)
A) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 5, H<sub>2</sub>O = 8
B) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 1, H<sub>2</sub>O = 1
C) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 5, H<sub>2</sub>O = 1
D) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 1, H<sub>2</sub>O = 4
E) H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4 </sub>= 3, H<sub>2</sub>O = 2
Q4) Why is sugar water NOT a good conductor of current?
Q5) What is electrolysis?
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Q1) The splitting of a heavy nucleus to form two or more lighter ones is called
A) radioactive cleavage.
B) nuclear fission.
C) nuclear fusion.
D) radioactive merge.
E) half-life.
Q2) An archaeologist graduate student found a leg bone of a large animal during the building of a new science building.The bone had a carbon-14 decay rate of 14.8 disintegrations per minute per gram of carbon.Living organisms have a decay rate of 15.3 disintegrations per minute.How old is the bone?
A) 53.3 years
B) 275 years
C) 111 years
D) 25 years
E) 83 years
Q3) Explain the concept of "magic numbers."
Q4) What is the "mass defect"?
Q5) Describe what is meant by the term "valley of stability"?
Q6) List two problems associated with nuclear power.
Q7) How does a dosimeter measure exposure to radioactivity?
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Q1) Write a balanced chemical reaction to represent the combustion of pentane.
A) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + 8 O<sub>2</sub> 5 CO<sub>2</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + 5 O<sub>2</sub> 3 CO<sub>2</sub> + 4 H<sub>2</sub>O
C) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + H<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>4</sub> + 2 C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + H<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>4</sub> + C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
E) 2 CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 3 CH<sub>4</sub> + 2 H<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) Identify the compound that can smell like rotten fish.
A) acetic acid
B) trimethylamine
C) benzaldehyde
D) acetone
E) ethanol
Q3) Why doesn't benzene typically undergo addition reactions like the alkenes do?
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary protein structure?
A) tripeptide
B) glyceride
C) -helix
D) amino acid
E) fatty acid
Q2) Identify a base that is NOT in RNA.
A) adenine
B) cytosine
C) thymine
D) guanine
E) uracil
Q3) Which of the following link together amino acid units?
A) glycosidic linkages
B) sulfide linkages
C) peptide bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) ester linkages
Q4) What is a codon?
Q5) Why are lipids well-suited as structural components of cell membranes?
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Q1) Identify the form of carbon that is used for gems.
A) coal
B) charcoal
C) gasoline
D) diamond
E) fullerene
Q2) Which of the following are major components of Earth's crust?
A) oxygen and silicon
B) calcium and silicon
C) oxygen and hydrogen
D) oxygen, magnesium and carbon
E) oxygen, hydrogen and carbon
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Each boron nitride unit contains six valence electrons.
B) Carbon nanotubes and boron nitride nanotubes are not similar.
C) Boron nitride contains BN units that are isoelectric with carbon.
D) Boron nitrides conduct an electrical current.
E) The size and electronegativity of a carbon atom are not close to the average of those properties for a boron atom and a nitrogen atom.
Q4) Describe the Frasch process for obtaining sulfur.
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Q1) Powder metallurgy is
A) refining of metal ores using reduction reactions.
B) refining of metal ores using cold.
C) forming metal parts using electricity.
D) refining of metal ores using reactions with basic solutions.
E) forming metal parts using heat and small crystals of metal.
Q2) Hydrometallurgy is
A) refining of metal ores using oxidation reactions.
B) refining of metal ores using cold.
C) refining of metal ores using reactions with aqueous solutions.
D) forming metal parts using heat and large crystals of metal.
E) forming tiny metal crystals using acid and water spray.
Q3) Chromates are strong
A) oxidizers.
B) bases.
C) acids.
D) metals.
E) reducers.
Q4) What is an advantage of hydrometallurgical processes over pyrometallurgical processes?
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Q1) Identify the geometry of [Zn(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>+2</sup>.
A) tetrahedral
B) octahedral
C) linear
D) square planar
E) trigonal planar
Q2) The complex ion,[Ni(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>,has a maximum absorption near 580 nm.Calculate the crystal field splitting energy (in kJ/mol)for this ion.
A) 114 kJ/mol
B) 292 kJ/mol
C) 343 kJ/mol
D) 206 kJ/mol
E) 485 kJ/mol
Q3) Name the following: Fe[AlF<sub>6</sub>]
A) ironaluminumhexafluoride
B) iron(II) hexafluoroaluminum
C) iron(III) hexafluoroaluminate
D) iron(I) aluminumhexafluoride
E) aluminumhexafluoroferrate

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