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Chemistry for Life Sciences introduces the foundational principles of chemistry with an emphasis on their application to biological systems. The course covers key topics such as atomic structure, chemical bonding, thermodynamics, reaction kinetics, acids and bases, and the properties of solutions, all within a biological context. Students will explore the chemical behavior of biomolecules including carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids, and learn how chemical processes underpin vital functions in living organisms. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving exercises, students will gain the essential chemical knowledge required to understand and pursue further studies in life sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
General Chemistry The Essential Concepts 7th Edition by Raymond Chang
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Q1) Iridium is essentially tied with osmium for the distinction of being called the "densest element" with a density of 22.5 g/cm<sup>3</sup>. What would be the mass in pounds of a 1.0 ft * 1.0 ft * 1.0 ft cube of iridium? (1 lb = 453.6 g)
A)1.5 lb
B)5.2 lb
C)6.20 lb
D)1.4 * 10<sup> 3</sup> lb
E)6.4 * 10<sup> 5</sup> lb
Answer: D
Q2) You just measured a sugar cube and obtained the following information: mass = 3.48 g height = length = width = 1.3 cm
Determine the volume and density of the cube. Suppose the sugar cube was added to a cup of water. Before it dissolves, will the sugar cube float or sink to the bottom? Answer: Volume of the sugar cube = 2.2 cm<sup>3</sup>; density of the sugar cube = 1.6 g/cm<sup>3</sup>. Before dissolving, the sugar cube will sink in a cup of water.
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Q1) The formula for sodium sulfide is A)NaS.
B)K<sub>2</sub>S.
C)NaS<sub>2</sub>.
D)Na<sub>2</sub>S.
E)SeS.
Answer: D
Q2) How many atoms are in one molecule of CaCl<sub>2</sub>?
Answer: 3
Q3) Which of the following elements is most likely to be a good conductor of electricity? A)N
B)S
C)He
D)Cl
E)Fe
Answer: E
Q4) Name the following binary compound: NaH. Answer: sodium hydride
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Q1) Phosgene, a poisonous gas used during WWI, is composed of 12.1% C, 16.2% O, and 71.1% Cl. What is the empirical formula of phosgene?
Answer: COCl<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Calculate the mass of 4.50 moles of chlorine gas, Cl<sub>2</sub>.
A)6.34 * 10<sup> -2</sup> g
B)4.5 g
C)15.7 g
D)160 g
E)319 g
Answer: E
Q3) When a 0.952 g sample of an organic compound containing C, H, and O is burned completely in oxygen, 1.35 g of CO<sub>2</sub> and 0.826 g of H<sub>2</sub>O are produced. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
Answer: CH<sub>3</sub>O
Q4) If 0.66 mole of a substance has a mass of 99 g, what is the molecular mass of the substance?
Answer: 150 g
Q5) How many ICl<sub>3</sub> molecules are present in 1.75 kg of ICl<sub>3</sub>?
Answer: 4.52 * 10<sup>24</sup>
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Q1) What is the chemical formula of the salt produced by the neutralization of hydrobromic acid with magnesium hydroxide?
A)MgBr
B)Mg<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>3</sub>
C)Mg<sub>3</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>
D)Mg<sub>2</sub>Br
E)MgBr<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Identify the following compound as a strong electrolyte, weak electrolyte, or nonelectrolyte: CH<sub>3</sub>OH (methanol).
Q3) Which of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte?
A)NaF
B)HNO<sub>3</sub>
C)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH (acetic acid)
D)NaOH
E)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6 </sub>(glucose)
Q4) Determine the oxidation number of each of the elements in K<sub>2</sub>TaF<sub>7</sub>?
Q5) Determine the oxidation number of each of the elements in Cs<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>?
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Q1) In a weather forecast on a Seattle radio station the barometric pressure was reported to be 29.4 inches. What is this pressure in SI units? (1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 atm = 760 mmHg)
Q2) Samples of the following volatile liquids are opened simultaneously at one end of a room. If you are standing at the opposite end of this room, which species would you smell first? (Assume that your nose is equally sensitive to all these species.)
A)ethyl acetate (CH<sub>3</sub>COOC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>)
B)camphor (C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>16</sub>O)
C)diethyl ether (C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>OC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>)
D)naphthalene (C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>8</sub>)
E)pentanethiol (C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>11</sub>SH)
Q3) A gaseous compound is 30.4% nitrogen and 69.6% oxygen by mass. A 5.25-g sample of the gas occupies a volume of 1.00 L and exerts a pressure of 1.26 atm at -4.0°C. Which of these choices is its molecular formula?
A)NO
B)NO<sub>2</sub>
C)N<sub>3</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
D)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>
E)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
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Q1) The heat of solution of ammonium chloride is 15.2 kJ/mol. If a 6.134 g sample of NH<sub>4</sub>Cl is added to 65.0 mL of water in a calorimeter at 24.5°C, what is the minimum temperature reached by the solution? (The specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g·°C; the heat capacity of the calorimeter = 365. J/°C.)
A)27.1°C
B)18.6°C
C)19.7°C
D)21.9°C
E)30.4°C
Q2) A feverish student weighing 75 kilograms was immersed in 400. kg of water at 4.0°C to try to reduce the fever. The student's body temperature dropped from 40.0°C to 37.0°C. Assuming the specific heat of the student to be 3.77 J/g·°C, what was the final temperature of the water?
Q3) What is the standard enthalpy of formation of H<sub>2</sub>(g)at 25°C?
Q4) Thermal energy is
A)the energy stored within the structural units of chemical substances.
B)the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules.
C)solar energy, i.e. energy that comes from the sun.
D)energy available by virtue of an object's position.
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Q1) What is the energy in joules of a mole of photons associated with red light of wavelength 7.00 * 10<sup>2</sup> nm?
A)256 kJ
B)1.71 * 10<sup>5</sup> J
C)4.72 * 10<sup>-43</sup> J
D)12.4 kJ
E)2.12 * 10<sup>42</sup> J
Q2) A ground-state atom of manganese has ___ unpaired electrons and is _____.
A)0, diamagnetic
B)2, diamagnetic
C)3, paramagnetic
D)5, paramagnetic
E)7, paramagnetic
Q3) Which of the following is the electron configuration of an excited state of an oxygen atom?
A)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>4</sup>
B)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>5</sup>
C)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>3</sup>3s<sup>1</sup>
D)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>
E)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>3</sup>
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Q1) Consider the following reaction 2A + 3F<sub>2</sub>\(\rarr\)2AF<sub>3</sub>.
What is a reasonable guess for the identity element A?
Q2) Why do the group 5A elements have relatively small electron affinities compared to the neighboring nonmetals in the corresponding rows?
Q3) The sulfide ion, S<sup>2-</sup>,<sup> </sup> is isoelectronic with which one of the following?
A)O<sup>2-</sup>
B)F<sup>-</sup>
C)Na<sup>+</sup>
D)Al<sup>3+</sup>
E)K<sup>+</sup>
Q4) Which one of the following does not have [Xe] as its electronic configuration?
A)Te<sup>2-</sup>
B)I<sup>-</sup>
C)Cs<sup>+</sup>
D)Ba<sup>2+</sup>
E)Sn<sup>4+</sup>
Q5) Write the ground-state electron configuration for Ca<sup>2+</sup>.
Q6) Write the ground-state electron configuration for Mg<sup>2+</sup>.
Q7) Write the ground-state electron configuration for Br<sup>-</sup>.
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Q1) What is the formal charge on phosphorus in a Lewis structure for the phosphate ion that satisfies the octet rule?
A)-2
B)-1
C)0
D)+1
E)+2
Q2) Which one of these polar covalent bonds would have the greatest percent ionic character?
A)H - Br
B)H - Cl
C)H - F
D)H - I
Q3) Classify the Ca - Cl bond in CaCl<sub>2</sub> as ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent.
A)ionic
B)polar covalent
C)nonpolar covalent
Q4) Write the Lewis dot symbol for the chloride ion.
Q5) Write a Lewis structure for OF<sub>2</sub>.
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Q1) According to VSEPR theory, which one of the following molecules should have a geometry that is trigonal bipyramidal?
A)SF<sub>4</sub>
B)XeF<sub>4</sub>
C)NF<sub>3</sub>
D)SF<sub>6</sub>
E)PF<sub>5</sub>
Q2) A homonuclear diatomic molecule is a molecule composed of three atoms of the same element.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which should have the longer bond, B<sub>2</sub> or B<sub>2</sub><sup></sup>?
Q4) Which of the following correctly lists species in order of increasing bond order?
A)C<sub>2</sub> < Li<sub>2</sub> < Be<sub>2</sub> < N<sub>2</sub>
B)Be<sub>2</sub> < Li<sub>2</sub> < C<sub>2</sub> < N<sub>2</sub>
C)N<sub>2</sub> < Be<sub>2</sub> < Li<sub>2</sub> < C<sub>2</sub>
D)N<sub>2</sub> < C<sub>2</sub> < Li<sub>2</sub> < Be<sub>2</sub>
E)Be<sub>2</sub> < C<sub>2</sub> < N<sub>2</sub> < Li<sub>2</sub>
Q5) Indicate the number of \(\pi\)-bonds in C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>.
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Q1) The alkane with six carbon atoms is called
A)butane.
B)hexane.
C)heptane.
D)butene.
E)none of these.
Q2) Oxidation of the 2-propanol will produce a/an
A)aldehyde.
B)amine.
C)alkene.
D)ketone.
E)carboxylic acid.
Q3) Which of these statements describes a condensation reaction?
A)addition of H<sub>2</sub>O to a double bond
B)linking an acid and an alcohol to make an ester and water
C)addition of H<sub>2</sub> to an alkene
D)oxidation of ethanol to acetaldehyde
E)hydrolysis of an ester
Q4) A compound with the formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub> may or may not be a saturated hydrocarbon. Explain.
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Q1) Of the pair of compounds given, which would have the stronger intermolecular forces of attraction?
NH<sub>3</sub> or PH<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Each of the following substances is a gas at 25°C and 1 atmosphere pressure. Which one will liquefy most easily when compressed at a constant temperature?
A)F<sub>2</sub>
B)H<sub>2</sub>
C)HF
D)SiH<sub>4</sub>
E)Ar
Q3) The meniscus for water is curved upward at the edges (i.e., it is "concave up"). Explain this phenomenon in terms of cohesion and adhesion.
Q4) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in SF<sub>6</sub>(g).
Q5) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in SF<sub>4</sub>(g).
Q6) Boron nitride, BN<sub>3</sub>, melts at approximately at 3,000°C under high pressure. This material is almost as hard as diamond. What kind of crystal is this?
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Q1) Pure benzene, C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>, freezes at 5.5° and boils at 80.1°C. What is the boiling point of a solution consisting of cyclohexane (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>)dissolved in benzene if the freezing point of this solution is 0.0°C? (For benzene, K<sub>f</sub> = 5.12 °C/m, K<sub>b</sub> = 2.53 °C/m; for cyclohexane, K<sub>f</sub> = 20.0 °C/m, K<sub>b</sub> = 2.79°C/m)
A)82.8°C
B)91.2°C
C)80.9°C
D)77.4°C
E)83.1°C
Q2) Calculate the molality of 6.0 M H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> solution. The density of the solution is 1.34 g/mL.
A)4.48 m
B)7.98 m
C)8.10 m
D)8.43 m
E)10.2 m
Q3) Define solvation.
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Q1) Benzoyl chloride, C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>5</sub>COCl, reacts with water to form benzoic acid, C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>5</sub>COOH, and hydrochloric acid. This first-order reaction is 25% complete after 26 s. How much longer would one have to wait in order to obtain 99% conversion of benzoyl chloride to benzoic acid?
A)393 s
B)419 s
C)183 s
D)293 s
E)209 s
Q2) The reaction A + 2B \(\rarr\) products was found to follow the rate law: rate = k[A]<sup>2</sup>[B]. Predict by what factor the rate of reaction will increase when the concentration of A is doubled, the concentration of B is tripled, and the temperature remains constant.
A)5
B)6
C)12
D)18
E)None of these.
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Q1) Equilibrium is established for the reaction 2X(s)+ Y(g)\(\rarr\)<sub> </sub>2Z(g)at 500K, K<sub>c</sub> = 100. Determine the concentration of Z in equilibrium with 0.2 mol X and 0.50 M Y at 500K.
A)3.2 M
B)3.5 M
C)4.5 M
D)7.1 M
E)None of these.
Q2) The dissociation of solid silver chloride in water to produce silver ions and chloride ions has an equilibrium constant of 1.8 * 10<sup>-18</sup>. Based on the magnitude of the equilibrium constant, is silver chloride very soluble in water? Why?
Q3) What conditions are used in the Haber process to enhance the yield of ammonia? Explain why each condition affects the yield in terms of the Le Châtelier principle.
Q4) Describe why addition of a catalyst does not affect the equilibrium constant for a reaction.
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Q1) A solution with a pH of 8 has a hydrogen ion concentration [H<sup>+</sup>] that is 30 times greater than that of a solution of pH 11.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Predict the direction in which the equilibrium will lie for the reaction H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> + F<sup></sup>\(\rarr\)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> + HF. K<sub>a1</sub>(H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>)= 4.2 * 10<sup>-7</sup>; K<sub>a</sub>(HF)= 7.1 * 10<sup>-4</sup>
A)to the right
B)to the left
C)in the middle
Q3) The pH of a Ba(OH)<sub>2</sub> solution is 10.00. What is the H<sup>+</sup> ion concentration of this solution?
A)4.0 * 10<sup>-11</sup> M
B)1.6 * 10<sup>-10</sup> M
C)1.3 * 10<sup>-5</sup> M
D)1.0 * 10<sup>-10</sup> M
E)10. M
Q4) Calculate the pOH of a solution containing 0.25 g of HCl in 800. mL of solution.
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Q1) The K<sub>sp</sub> of CaF<sub>2</sub> is 4 * 10<sup>-11</sup>. What is the maximum concentration of Ca<sup>2+</sup> possible in a 0.10 M NaF solution?
Q2) What volume of 0.200 M potassium hydroxide should be added to 300. mL of 0.150 M propanoic acid (C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>COOH)to obtain a solution with a pH of 5.25? [K<sub>a</sub>(C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>COOH)= 1.34 * 10<sup>-5</sup>]
A)32 mL
B)210 mL
C)160 mL
D)65 mL
E)13 mL
Q3) Write an equation showing the net reaction that occurs when a strong acid is added to a CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>/HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>- </sup> buffer solution (for carbonic acid, K<sub>a1</sub> = 4.2 * 10<sup>-7</sup>, K<sub>a2</sub> = 2.4 * 10<sup>-8</sup>):
Q4) An environmental chemist obtained a 200. mL sample of lake water believed to be contaminated with a single monoprotic strong acid. Titrating this sample with a 0.0050 M NaOH(aq)required 7.3 mL of the NaOH solution to reach the endpoint. What is the concentration of H<sup>+</sup> in the lake?
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Q1) In the gas phase, methyl isocyanate (CH<sub>3</sub>NC)isomerizes to acetonitrile (CH<sub>3</sub>CN), H<sub>3</sub>C-N\(\equiv\)C (g) \(\rarr\) H<sub>3</sub>C-C \(\equiv\) N (g)
With \(\Delta\)H° = -89.5 kJ/mol and \(\Delta\)G° = -73.8 kJ/mol at 25°C. Find the equilibrium constant for this reaction at 100°C.
A)1.68 * 10<sup>-10</sup>
B)5.96 * 10<sup>9</sup>
C)2.16 * 10<sup>10</sup>
D)4.63 * 10<sup>-11</sup>
E)8.64 * 10<sup>12</sup>
Q2) For a certain reaction, \(\Delta\)G° = 87 kJ/mol, \(\Delta\)H° = 100 kJ/mol at STP. At what temperature, in K, is the reaction in equilibrium, assuming that \(\Delta\)S° and \(\Delta\)H° are temperature-independent?
Q3) Dissolving an ionic solid in water always results in an increase in entropy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Choose the substance with the higher entropy per mole at a given temperature: 1 mole of N<sub>2</sub>(g)in a 22.4 L container or 1 mole of N<sub>2</sub>(g)in a 2.24 L container.
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Q1) How long will it take to produce 78 g of Al metal by the reduction of Al<sup>3+</sup> in an electrolytic cell with a current of 2.0 A?
A)0.01 s
B)420 s
C)13 h
D)116 h
E)1.0 * 10<sup>12</sup> s
Q2) Consider an electrochemical cell based on the following cell diagram: Pt | Pu<sup>3+</sup>(aq), Pu<sup>4+</sup>(aq)|| Cl<sub>2</sub>(g), Cl<sup>- </sup>(aq)|
Pt
Given that the standard cell emf is 0.35 V and that the standard reduction potential of chlorine is 1.36 V, what is the standard reduction potential E°(Pu<sup>4+</sup>/Pu<sup>3+</sup>)?
A)2.37 V
B)1.01 V
C)-1.71 V
D)-1.01 V
E)1.71 V
Q3) Will H<sub>2</sub>(g)form when Cu is placed in 1.0 M HCl?
Q4) Will H<sub>2</sub>(g)form when Ag is placed in 1.0 M HCl?
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Q1) In the following pair of complex ions, choose the one that absorbs light at a longer wavelength.
A)[Co(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>
B)[Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>
Q2) The oxidation number of Co in [Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>]Cl is +1.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these complex ions would absorb light with the longest wavelength?
A)[Co(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>
B)[Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>
C)[CoF<sub>6</sub>]<sup>4-</sup>
D)[Co(CN)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>4-</sup>
E)[Co(en)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>
Q4) In the following pair of complex ions, choose the one that absorbs light at a shorter wavelength.
A)[Co(NH)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3+</sup>
B)[CoCl<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3-</sup>
Q5) Name the complex ion [Ni(CN)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2-</sup>.
Q6) What is the coordination number of silver in [Ag(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>]Cl?
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Q1) The radioisotope potassium-40 decays to argon-40 by positron emission with a half-life of 1.3 * 10<sup>9</sup> yr. A sample of moon rock was found to contain 78 argon-40 atoms for every 22 potassium-40 atoms. The age of the rock is
A)8.1* 10<sup>-10</sup> yr.
B)2.4 * 10<sup>9</sup> yr.
C)2.8 * 10<sup>9</sup> yr.
D)4.6 * 10<sup>9</sup> yr.
E)6.8 * 10<sup>9</sup> yr.
Q2) Charcoal found under a stone at Stonehenge, England, has a carbon-14 activity that is 0.60 that of new wood. How old is the charcoal? (The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,730 years.)
A)Less than 5,730 yr
B)Between 5,730 and 11,460 yr
C)Between 11,460 and 17,190 yr
D)More than 17,190 yr
Q3) Which type of radiation is the least penetrating?
A)alpha
B)beta
C)gamma
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Q1) The primary structure of a protein refers to the unique amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The intermolecular force between bases on the opposite strands of DNA responsible for its double-helical structure is
A)hydrogen bonding.
B)dispersion force.
C)covalent bonding.
D)ionic force.
E)dipole-dipole force.
Q3) Which one of these materials is a copolymer?
A)Styrene-butadiene
B)polyvinyl chloride
C)polypropylene
D)poly-cis-isoprene
E)polyethylene
Q4) Both DNA and RNA have double-helical structures.
A)True
B)False
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