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Chemistry for Life Sciences introduces students to the fundamental principles of chemistry with a focus on their applications in biological systems. The course covers atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, reactions, thermodynamics, and kinetics, emphasizing how these concepts underpin processes in living organisms. Students explore the chemistry of biomolecules such as proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids, gaining insight into metabolic pathways and the molecular basis of life. Laboratory components provide hands-on experience in analytical techniques relevant to the life sciences, preparing students for further study in biology, medicine, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
General Organic and Biochemistry An Applied Approach 2nd Edition by James Armstrong
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Q1) If the box were placed on a balance, a unit that might appear on the balance read-out would be _______________________.
Answer: kg
Q2) Write the complete name of the metric unit below in the blank. mm:
Answer: millimeter
Q3) The densities of the coinage metals (copper, silver and gold) are as follows:
Copper = 8.95 g/mL
Silver = 12.59 g/mL
Gold = 19.32 g/mL
A sample of material is found to have a mass if 33.03 grams, and have a volume of 2.624 mL. This is a sample of which of the coinage metals?
A)copper
B)silver
C)gold
D)It is not one of the coinage metals.
Answer: B
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Q1) Enter the chemical symbol of the element in the blank. Calcium forms the compound CaF<sub>2</sub> . What other alkaline earth element with a smaller atomic mass would form a compound with a similar formula?
Chemical symbol:
Answer: Mg
Be
Q2) Indicate the number of dots that should be placed around the Lewis symbol for the following element. Use an integer: 1, 2, 3, etc. as appropriate.
Br
Answer: 7
Q3) Electron shells define a region in space around the nucleus occupied by certain electrons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) <sup>14</sup>N and <sup>15</sup>O have the same number of
Answer: neutrons

Page 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) Draw the Lewis structure for the following using lines to represent bonding electron pairs.
H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
Answer: 11ea7c90_f20b_b6cf_9ab2_690a09137599_TB1423_00
Q2) Write the name that corresponds to the formula given below. NF<sub>3</sub>
Answer: nitrogen trifluoride
Q3) What is the correct IUPAC name for the following compound? SBr<sub>2</sub>
A)sulfur dibromide
B)sulfur(II) bromide
C)monosulfur dibromide
D)sulfur bromide
Answer: A
Q4) Which of the following has the highest electronegativity?
A)O
B)N
C)Si
D)P
Answer: A
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Q1) The 175 g of He was added to the cylinder. The pressure reading
Q2) Which of the following correctly arranges the physical states of matter (gas - g, solid - s, liquid - l) in order of increasing energy of the particles (lowest to highest)?
A)g < l < s
B)g < s < l
C)l < g < s
D)s < l < g
Q3) Butane is a gas at room temperature (25 °C). The boiling point of butane is probably greater than 25 °C.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Substance____can function as a hydrogen bond acceptor but not a hydrogen bond donor.
Q5) Air pressure can be expressed in which of the following units?
A)atmosphere
B)pascal
C)torr
D)any of these
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Q1) Solution A is 0.010 M glucose, and solution B is 0.050 M glucose. The glucose will dialyze to the _____________________.
Q2) A solution is prepared by adding 25.0 mL of 1.30 M glucose solution to a flask, and then adding enough water to give a final volume of 200.0 mL. What is the molarity of the solution?
A)0.260 M
B)0.163 M
C)6.50 M
D)1.24 M
Q3) How many mL of 6.00 M HCl are needed to prepare 1.50 L of 0.200 M HCl solution?
A)1.80 × 10<sup>4</sup> mL
B)125 mL
C)2.00 × 10 <sup>3</sup> mL
D)50.0 mL
Q4) For many ionic solids such as NaHCO<sub>3</sub> water solubility will ___________ at higher temperatures..
Q5) Calculate the parts per million (ppm) of a solution prepared by dissolving 7.45 mg of glucose in enough water to produce 145.0 mL of solution?
Q6) The vitamin that would be classified as fat-soluble is ______.
Page 7
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the equation below is properly balanced, what coefficient is of KClO<sub>3</sub>?
KClO<sub>3</sub> KCl + O<sub>2</sub>
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) A catalyst is added to the reaction mixture. ____________________
Q3) Photosynthesis and respiration are linked to each other in the nitrogen cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Per gram ________________________ produces the largest amount of energy when burned.
Q5) If a reaction occurs very rapidly, even at a relatively low temperature, which of the following is probably true?
A)The reaction is endothermic.
B)The reaction is exothermic.
C)The reaction has a low activation energy.
D)The reaction is at equilibrium.
Q6) The copper metal is ground into a very fine powder. ______________________
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Q1) In Buffer 2, the missing acid component is_______________________. A)H<sub>3</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> B)HC<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> C)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub>O<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup> D)HC<sub>3</sub>H<sub>5</sub>O<sub>3</sub> E)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> F)H<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub> G)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>5</sub>O<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q2) What is the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 4.00 g of NaOH in enough water to produce 500.0 mL of solution?
Q3) Buffer 1 works in conjunction with buffer ____________________to regulate the pH of intracellular fluid.
Q4) The following solutions are ranked from the most acidic to the most basic. Most acidic urine (pH 5.89) intestine contents (pH 8.06) blood (pH 7.30) Most basic A)True B)False
Q5) A solution composed of HCl and NaCl would produce an effective buffer. A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you absorb 0.0056 rad of energy from neutrons that have a W<sub>R</sub> of 8, what is the equivalent dose?
A)0.70 mrem
B)0.045 mrem
C)45 mrem
D)5.6 mrem
E)1.4 mrem
Q2) Write the nuclear equation for the fusion of carbon-11 and helium-4.
Q3) The following correctly applies to balancing nuclear equations. "The sums of the mass numbers of the products and reactants must be equal."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of radiation is the least damaging to tissue if exposure occurs from an external source? Briefly explain your reasoning.
Q5) As the strength of a radioactive source increases, the likelihood of radiation damage A)decreases.
B)increases.
C)remains constant.
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Q1) The balanced equation for the combustion of structure _______________________ would required the largest coefficient for O<sub>2</sub>.
Q2) Using molecular formula, write the balance equation for the complete combustion of benzene.
Q3) Which of the following is the appropriate ending for the name of an alkane?
A)ane
B)ene
C)benzene
D)yne
Q4) During the complete combustion of benzene, if 9.55 g of benzene were consumed what mass of oxygen in grams would be needed?
Q5) One of the reasons that carbon forms such a large number of compounds is due its ability to form long chains and rings.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Structure ______________________ is a stereoisomer of cis-2-hexene.
Q8) Structure A is classified as a(n) _________________________. Page 11
Q7) The arrangement of atoms about each of the carbon atoms is a ____________.
Q9) Structure D is classified as a(n) _________________________.
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Q1) Structurally thiols are most closely related to which of the following classes of compounds?
A)alcohols
B)alkenes
C)phenols
D)alkynes
Q2) If a carbon atom is chiral, which of the following statements must be true about that carbon?
A)It has four single bonds.
B)It has a double bond and two single bonds.
C)It has two double bonds.
D)Any of these bonding arrangements can be associated with a chiral carbon.
Q3) Structure ________________________ would produce a mixture of products on dehydration.
Q4) Which of the following alcohols has the lowest boiling point?
A)1-pentanol
B)1-octanol
C)1-hexanol
D)1-propanol
Q5) Structure _________________could hydrogen bond to water to the greatest extent.
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Q1) Structure _____________________ would be named hexanal.
Q2) FAD is the reduced form of FADH<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following types of organic compounds contains a carbonyl group?
A)aldehyde
B)ketone
C)carboxylic acid
D)All contain a carbonyl group.
Q4) Structure _____________________ would produce an aqueous solution with a pH less than 7..
Q5) The product of Step 2 is _________________________.
Q6) If the following compound was oxidized, 2-butanol Which of the following would be the product of the reaction?
A)2-butene
B)2-butanone
C)butanoic acid
D)butane
Q7) Step 3 involves the conversion of an alcohol to a ketone and would therefore be classified as a(n) _______________________reaction.
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Q1) Draw the structure of sodium benzoate.
Q2) When a amine dissolves in water, the pH is A)greater than 7.
B)less than 7.
C)neutral at about 7.
Q3) Structure__________________ and structure _______________ could react to form ethyldimethylammonium propanoate.
Q4) Compounds such as morphine (an amine) are often administered to a patient as a salt because the salt is more soluble in body fluids. A)True
B)False
Q5) In decarboxylation reactions, the carboxylic acid group produces carbon dioxide. A)True
B)False
Q6) Structure __________________ is a secondary amine.
Q7) Structure____________________ would not be neutralized by the buffers found in the body.
Q8) Structure ____________________ could be a hydrogen bond donor or acceptor in water.
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Q1) Like a thioester, an amide contains a carbonyl group.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When an alcohol undergoes a condensation reaction, which of the following class of compounds might form?
A)ether
B)ketone
C)aldehyde
D)alkene
Q3) If oxalic acid which contains two carboxylic acids groups and ethylene diamine which contains two amine groups react, the type of bond formed in the polymers is A)an ester.
B)an ether.
C)an amide.
D)a phosphoester.
Q4) Draw the structure of the product of the condensation reaction of the following substances.
acetic acid and diethylamine
Q5) ______________________ can function as a proton acceptor.
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Q1) The ultimate fate of the nitrogen from the metabolism of amino acids in mammals is:
A)excretion as NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>.
B)incorporation into intermediates in the citric acid cycle.
C)removal as urea in the kidneys.
D)used to fuel ATP producing reactions.
Q2) Lysine is a weak acid under physiological conditions but it is classified as a basic amino acid. Briefly explain.
Q3) Which of the following contains a sulfur atom as part of the side chain?
A)cysteine
B)glycine
C)proline
D)tryptophan
Q4) Enzymes are sensitive to agitation and will be denatured by violent stirring.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The atom represented by the number ____________________ could act as a proton acceptor in the hydrogen bonding present in an alpha helix.
Q6) Galactose could be represented by __________________.
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Q1) ___________________ has its anomeric carbon bonded to two other carbon atoms.
Q2) contains both a aldopentose and ketohexose
A)sucrose
B)lactose
C)chitin
D)cellulose
E)glycogen
F)amylose
G)galactose
Q3) For the solvents water, ethanol, and benzene, which gives the correct order of decreasing solubility of the monosaccharide fructose?
A)hexane > ethanol > water
B)hexane > water > ethanol
C)water > ethanol > hexane
D)water > hexane > ethanol
Q4) The anomer is converted to the anomer by a process known as A)mutarotation.
B)racemization.
C)translocation.
D)hydrolysis.

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Q1) During the beta oxidation of the acid, _____molecules of NADH are produced.
Q2) When one molecule of a unsaturated fat with a molecular formula of C<sub>56</sub>H<sub>107</sub>O<sub>6</sub> is oxidized 373.5 molecules of ATP are produced. Calculate the ATP yield in moles ATP per 100 g of this fat.
Q3) For this fatty acid, from beta oxidation through the citric acid cycle and electron transport, ____molecules of ATP total are produced.
Q4) For this fatty acid, from beta oxidation through the citric acid cycle, the net production is _____molecules of ATP.
Q5) What is the overall (net) yield of ATP when one molecule of stearic acid (C<sub>18</sub>H<sub>36</sub>O<sub>2</sub>) is oxidized to CO<sub>2</sub>?
A)122 ATP
B)120 ATP
C)116 ATP
D)114 ATP
Q6) The citric acid cycle will produce_____molecules of NADH for this fatty acid.
Q7) During the beta oxidation of the acid, _____molecules of acetyl-CoA are produced.
Q8) The polyunsaturated fatty acid is structure _______________________.
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the function of rRNA?
A)carries the anticodon in protein synthesis
B)contains an acceptor step
C)helps catalyze protein synthesis
D)smallest of the types of RNA
Q2) The 5' end of the nucleic acid is indicated by the number ___________________.
Q3) The structure labeled A represents _______________________.
Q4) A mutation changes a DNA sequence from: AATGGCTTACGA To AATTGGCTTACGA
Which the following will result?
A)a substitution mutation
B)an addition mutation
C)a deletion mutation
D)a frame shift
E)both an addition mutation and a frameshift
Q5) The structure represented by D is _______________________.
Q6) The phosphodiester bond is indicated by the number __________________.
20
Q7) Determines the useful life span of mRNA._____
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