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Chemistry for Life Sciences Exam Solutions - 3115 Verified Questions

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Chemistry for Life Sciences

Exam Solutions

Course Introduction

Chemistry for Life Sciences introduces fundamental chemical principles with a focus on their application to biological systems. The course covers atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, energetics, acids and bases, solutions, and the behavior of gases and liquids. Students explore the chemistry of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, examining how chemical processes underpin cellular functions and mechanisms essential to life. Laboratory sessions emphasize experimental techniques and data analysis relevant to life sciences, cultivating skills for interpreting and solving biological problems through a chemical lens.

Recommended Textbook

Chemistry 11th Edition by Raymond Chang

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25 Chapters

3115 Verified Questions

3115 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Chemistry: the Study of Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) Classify the following as a physical or chemical change: Antifreeze boils out of a radiator.

Answer: Physical

Q2) The density of lead is 11.4 g/cm<sup>3</sup> at 25°C.Calculate the volume occupied by 25.0 g of lead.

A)2.19 cm<sup>3</sup>

B)0.456 cm<sup>3</sup>

C)285 cm<sup>3</sup>

D)1.24 cm<sup>3</sup>

E)6.05 cm<sup>3</sup>

Answer: A

Q3) Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below. 6.2 x 10<sup>-13</sup> x 5.68 x 10<sup>8</sup> =

A)3.5 x 10<sup>-13</sup>

B)3.5 x 10<sup>-5</sup>

C)3.5 x 10<sup>-104</sup>

D)3.5 x 10<sup>-4</sup>

E)3.5 x 10<sup>-21</sup>

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Atoms, Molecules, and Ions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Write the formula of an anion that contains a metal.

Answer: CrO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> or Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub><sup>2-</sup> or MnO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>

Q2) Give the formula of copper(II)bromide.

Answer: CuBr<sub>2</sub>

Q3) The scientist who determined the magnitude of the electric charge of the electron was

A)John Dalton.

B)Robert Millikan.

C)J.J.Thomson.

D)Henry Moseley.

E)R.Chang.

Answer: B

Q4) What type of compound is NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub>

A)Ionic

B)Molecular

C)Acid

D)Base

E)Hydrate

Answer: A

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Mass Relationships in Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many sulfur atoms are present in 25.6 g of Al<sub>2</sub>(S<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>?

A)0.393

B)6.00

C)3.95 × 10<sup>22</sup>

D)7.90 × 10<sup>22</sup>

E)2.37 × 10<sup>23</sup>

Answer: E

Q2) When 22.0 g NaCl and 21.0 g H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> are mixed and react according to the equation below, which is the limiting reagent?

2NaCl + H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> \(\rarr\)Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + 2HCl

A)NaCl

B)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

C)Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

D)HCl

E)No reagent is limiting.

Answer: A

Q3) Define a mole.

Answer: An Avogadro's number of a specific entity, such as an atom or molecule

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Chapter 4: Reactions in Aqueous Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the following compound as a strong electrolyte, weak electrolyte, or nonelectrolyte: NH<sub>3</sub>.

Q2) Batteries in our cars generate electricity by the following chemical reaction. Pb + PbO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> \(\rarr\) 2PbSO<sub>4</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O Which substance is oxidized in this process?

Q3) Identify the reducing agent in the following chemical reaction. 5Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ MnO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)<sup> </sup>+ 8H<sup>+</sup>(aq)<sup> </sup>\(\rarr\)5Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 4H<sub>2</sub>O(l)

A)Fe<sup>2+</sup>

B)MnO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>

C)H<sup>+</sup>

D)Mn<sup>2+</sup>

E)Fe<sup>3+</sup>

Q4) Describe the procedure used to make 3.0 liters of a 2.0 M KCl solution, starting with solid KCl and water.

Q5) Identify the element being oxidized in the following reaction. 2KBr + F<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\)Br<sub>2</sub> + 2KF

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Chapter 5: Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) The molecules of different samples of an ideal gas have the same average kinetic energies, at the same

A)pressure.

B)temperature.

C)volume.

D)density.

Q2) How many atoms of Ar gas are present in a 340 mL container at 55 °C and 720 mmHg?

A)0.012 Ar atoms

B)7.2 x 10<sup>21</sup> Ar atoms

C)4.3 x 10<sup>22</sup> Ar atoms

D)2.9 x 10<sup>23</sup> Ar atoms

E)1.7 x 10<sup>24</sup> Ar atoms

Q3) A particular coal sample contains 2.32% S.When the coal is burned, the sulfur is converted to sulfur dioxide gas.What volume (L)of SO<sub>2</sub>(g), measured at 25°C and 749 mmHg, is produced by burning 2.0 × 10<sup>6</sup> lb of this coal? (1 lb = 454 g)

Q4) Calculate the molar mass of a gaseous substance if 0.125 g of the gas occupies 93.3 mL at STP.

Q5) What is standard temperature and standard pressure in units of °C and atm?

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Chapter 6: Thermochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Find the heat absorbed from the surroundings when 15 g of O<sub>2</sub> reacts according to the equation O + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) O<sub>3</sub>, \(\Delta\)H°<sub>rxn</sub>= -103 kJ/mol.

A)4.6 × 10<sup>-3</sup> kJ

B)32 kJ

C)48 kJ

D)96 kJ

E)110 kJ

Q2) Radiant energy is

A)the energy stored within the structural units of chemical substances.

B)the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules.

C)solar energy, i.e.energy that comes from the sun.

D)energy available by virtue of an object's position.

Q3) Potential energy is

A)the energy stored within the structural units of chemical substances.

B)the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules.

C)solar energy, i.e.energy that comes from the sun.

D)energy available by virtue of an object's position.

Q4) The specific heat of silver is 0.235 J/g·°C.How many joules of heat are required to heat a 75 g silver spoon from 20°C to 35°C?

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Quantum Theory and the Electronic Structure of Atoms

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the wavelength of radiation that has a frequency of 3.4 x 10<sup>11</sup> s<sup> -1</sup>?

A)8.8 x 10<sup>-4</sup> nm

B)8.8 x 10<sup>5</sup> nm

C)8.8 x 10<sup>-13</sup> nm

D)1.0 x 10<sup>11</sup> nm

E)1.0 x 10<sup>-9</sup> nm

Q2) Rank the following types of electromagnetic radiation from lowest energy to highest energy: infrared, microwave, radio waves, gamma rays, visible, and ultraviolet.

Q3) The ground-state electron configuration for an atom of indium is

A)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4p<sup>6</sup>4d<sup>5</sup>

B)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>1</sup>

C)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>4p<sup>6</sup>3d<sup>5</sup>

D)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>5p<sup>6</sup>4d<sup>5</sup>

E)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>10</sup>5p<sup>1</sup>

Q4) Write the ground state electron configuration for Ni.

Q5) The colors of the visible spectrum are blue, green, orange, red, violet, and yellow.Of these colors, ______ has the least energy.

Q6) Write the ground state electron configuration for the phosphorus atom.

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Chapter 8: Periodic Relationships Among the Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a basic oxide?

A)CO<sub>2</sub>

B)CaO

C)SO<sub>2</sub>

D)H<sub>2</sub>O

E)NO<sub>2</sub>

Q2) Which of the following elements has the greatest metallic character?

A)Ca

B)Mg

C)Ba

D)As

E)Se

Q3) Amphoteric oxides exhibit both acidic and basic properties.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The electron configuration of the outermost electrons of atoms of the halogen group is ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>7</sup>.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Write the ground-state electron configuration for Ca<sup>2+</sup>.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonding I: Basic Concepts

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Sample Questions

Q1) Write a Lewis structure for SO<sub>3</sub> that expands the octet to minimize formal charge and if necessary places negative formal charges on the most electronegative atom(s).

Q2) Use bond energies to estimate the enthalpy change for the reaction of one mole ofCH<sub>4</sub> with chlorine gas to give CH<sub>3</sub>Cl and hydrogen chloride.

BE(C-H)= 414 kJ/mol

BE(C-Cl)= 326 kJ/mol

BE(H-Cl)= 432 kJ/mol

BE(Cl-Cl)= 243 kJ/mol

A)-106 kJ/mol

B)-101 kJ/mol

C)+101 kJ/mol

D)+106 kJ/mol

E)+331 kJ/mol

Q3) Classify the C - Cl bond in CCl<sub>4</sub> as ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent.

A)ionic

B)polar covalent

C)nonpolar covalent

Q4) Write the Lewis dot symbol for the chloride ion.

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Chapter 10: Chemical Bonding Ii: Molecular Geometry and Hybridization

of Atomic Orbitals

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Sample Questions

Q1) A sp<sup>3</sup>d hybridized central atom has what angles between its hybrid orbitals?

A)120° only

B)120° and 109.5°

C)109.5° only

D)120° and 90°

E)< 90°only

Q2) A molecule with 2 single bonds and 3 lone pair of electrons is predicted to have which type of moleculary geometry?

A)Octahedral

B)T-shaped

C)Seesaw

D)Trigonal bipyramidal

E)Linear

Q3) Use VSEPR theory to predict the molecular geometry of CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>.

Q4) Which should have the longer bond, O<sub>2</sub> or O<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>?

Page 12

Q5) Use VSEPR theory to predict the molecular geometry of H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> (hydronium ion).

Q6) Which should have the longer bond, B<sub>2</sub> or B<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>?

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Chapter 11: Intermolecular Forces and Liquids and Solids

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Sample Questions

Q1) The intermolecular forces present in C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub> include which of the following? I.dipole-dipole

II.ion-dipole

III.dispersion

IV.hydrogen bonding

A)I, II, III, and IV

B)I and III

C)I, III, and IV

D)I and II

E)III only

Q2) Osmium tetroxide, OsO<sub>4</sub>, is a soft crystal that melts at 40°C.The liquid does not conduct electricity.What kind of crystal is this?

Q3) Which of the following liquids would have the highest viscosity at 25°C?

A)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>

B)CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>

C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>OH

D)CH<sub>3</sub>Br

E)HOCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH

Q4) Which would have the higher boiling point NH<sub>3</sub> or CH<sub>4</sub>?

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Chapter 12: Physical Properties of Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The solubility of nitrogen gas at 25°C and a nitrogen pressure of 522 mmHg is 4.7 × 10<sup>-4</sup> mol/L.What is the value of the Henry's Law constant in mol/L·atm?

A)9.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup> mol/L·atm

B)3.2 × 10<sup>-4</sup> mol/L·atm

C)4.7 × 10<sup>-4</sup> mol/L·atm

D)6.8 × 10<sup>-4</sup> mol/L·atm

E)1.5 × 10<sup>3</sup> mol/L·atm

Q2) A 100.mL sample of water is taken from the Great Salt Lake, and the water is allowed to evaporate.The salts that remain (mostly NaCl)have a mass of 31.9 g Calculate the original concentration of NaCl, in g per liter, in each water sample.

Q3) What is the molar mass of toluene if 0.85 g of toluene depresses the freezing point of 100.g of benzene by 0.47°C? K<sub>f</sub> of benzene is 5.12°C/m.

A)927 g/mol

B)92.6 g/mol

C)81.8 g/mol

D)78.0 g/mol

E)10.7 g/mol

Q4) What is the mole fraction of NaOH in a 32.0 % by mass NaOH aqueous solution?

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Chapter 13: Chemical Kinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) For the chemical reaction A \(\rarr\) B + C, a plot of [A]<sub>t</sub> versus time is found to give a straight line with a negative slope.What is the order of reaction with respect to A?

A)zero

B)first

C)second

D)third

E)Such a plot cannot reveal the order of the reaction.

Q2) In general, to calculate the rate constant for a second order reaction with respect to A, given an initial and final concentration as well as the time required for this change, which equation should be used?

A)ln([A]<sub>t</sub>/[A]<sub>o</sub>)= - kt

B)t<sub>1/2</sub> = ln2/k

C)[A]<sub>t</sub> = -kt + [A]<sub>o</sub>

D)1/[A]<sub>t</sub> = kt + 1/[A]<sub>o</sub>

E)Rate = k[A]

Q3) The rate determining step must be the first step of a reaction mechanism in all cases.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) A reaction with an equilibrium constant K<sub>c</sub> = 1.5 x 10<sup>21</sup> would consist of which of the following at equilibrium:

A)approximately equal reactants and products

B)some reactants and products with reactants slightly favored

C)some reactants and products with products slightly favored

D)essentially all reactants

E)essentially all products

Q2) A reaction with an equilibrium constant K<sub>c</sub> = 1.5 x 10<sup>-25</sup> would consist of which of the following at equilibrium:

A)approximately equal reactants and products

B)some reactants and products with reactants slightly favored

C)some reactants and products with products slightly favored

D)essentially all reactants

E)essentially all products

Q3) What conditions are used in the Haber process to enhance the yield of ammonia? Explain why each condition affects the yield in terms of the Le Châtelier principle.

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Chapter 15: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the pH of an acid rain storm is approximately 3.0, how many times greater is the [H<sup>+</sup>] in the rain than in a cup of coffee having a pH of 5.0?

A)1000

B)100

C)20

D)1.7

E)0.60

Q2) When 2.0 × 10<sup>-2</sup> mole of nicotinic acid (a monoprotic acid)is dissolved in 350.mL of water, the pH is 3.05.What is the K<sub>a</sub> of nicotinic acid?

Q3) Calculate the pOH for a solution with [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] = 2.5 x 10<sup>-5</sup> M

A)4.60

B)9.40

C)4.0 x 10<sup>-10</sup>

D)2.50

E)11.50

Q4) Write the formula for the conjugate acid of H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>.

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Chapter 16: Acid-Base Equilibria and Solubility Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) The pH at the equivalence point of a titration may differ from 7.0 due to

A)the initial concentration of the standard solution.

B)the indicator used.

C)the self-ionization of H<sub>2</sub>O.

D)the initial pH of the unknown.

E)hydrolysis of the salt formed.

Q2) The solubility product for calcium phosphate is K<sub>sp</sub> = 1.3 × 10<sup>-26</sup>.What is the molar solubility of calcium phosphate?

A)1.3 × 10<sup>-26</sup> M

B)1.5 × 10<sup>-7</sup> M

C)2.6 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

D)4.6 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

E)6.6 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M

Q3) Which of the following compounds is more soluble in acidic solution than in pure neutral water?

A)PbI<sub>2</sub>

B)CuBr

C)KClO<sub>4</sub>

D)FeS

E)NaNO<sub>3</sub>

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Chapter 17: Entropy Free Energy and Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) The entropy of a perfectly ordered crystalline substance at 0 K is 0 J/mol.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The entropy change \(\Delta\)S° for the reaction NH<sub>4</sub>Cl(s)\(\rarr\)NH<sub>3</sub>(g)+ HCl(g)will be negative.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The following reaction is nonspontaneous at 25°C: Cu<sub>2</sub>O(s)\(\rarr\)2Cu(s)+ <sup>1</sup>/<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>(g), \(\Delta\)G° = 141 kJ/mol

If \(\Delta\)S° = 75.8 J/K·mol, what is the lowest temperature at which the reaction will be spontaneous?

Q4) Under what conditions (always, never, high temperature only, low temperature only)is the process: H<sub>2</sub>O(l)\(\rarr\)H<sub>2</sub>O(s)expected to be spontaneous?

Q5) The entropy of any pure substance at 0 K is 0 J/mol.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Electrochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many moles of H<sub>2</sub> are produced<sub> </sub>by 5.00 A of current passing through a cell containing aqueous NaCl for 4.00 × 10<sup>2</sup> s?

Q2) Calculate E°<sub>cell</sub> for the following reaction: 2Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ Cd<sup>2+</sup>(aq)\(\rarr\)2Fe<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ Cd(s)

A)-0.37 V

B)0.37 V

C)-1.17 V

D)1.17 V

E)None of these.

Q3) You wish to electroplate a metal utensil with a surface area of 736 cm<sup>2</sup> with gold to give an average thickness of 0.025 mm over the entire surface.Starting with a solution of excess Au<sup>3+</sup> and applying a constant current of 14 A, how long will it take to electroplate the utensil? The density of gold is 19.3 g/cm<sup>3</sup>.

Q4) Complete and balance the following redox reaction under basic conditions: CrO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)+ SO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)\(\rarr\) Cr(OH)<sub>3</sub>(s)+ SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)

Q5) Will H<sub>2</sub>(g)form when Fe is placed in 1.0 M HCl?

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Page 21

Chapter 19: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) If 24% of a certain radioisotope decays in 6.5 years, what is the half-life of this isotope?

A)3.9 yr

B)16 yr

C)0.22 yr

D)2.2 yr

E)3.2 yr

Q2) Which one of the following statements about fission and fusion is false?

A)Fission occurs among the heaviest isotopes, whereas fusion occurs more readily for light isotopes.

B)For a fission reaction the mass defect (\(\Delta\)m)is negative, whereas for fusion \(\Delta\)m is positive.

C)In order for fusion reactions to occur, temperatures must be in the millions of degrees.

D)The fission of Pu-239 atoms produces a great number of isotopes of a large number of elements.

E)Neutron-induced fission processes can occur at room temperature, rather than at millions of degrees.

Q3) What nuclear fuel is produced in a breeder reactor?

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Chapter 20: Chemistry in the Atmosphere

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Q1) The mechanism for the decomposition of ozone in the presence of a reactive chlorine atom is shown below Which of the following species is an intermediate?

O<sub>3</sub> + (UV light)\(\rarr\) O + \(\rarr\)<sub>2</sub> <sub> </sub>Cl + O<sub>3</sub> \(\rarr\)ClO + O<sub>2</sub> <sub> </sub>ClO + O \(\rarr\) Cl + O<sub>2</sub>

A)Cl

B)ClO

C)O<sub>3</sub>

D)O<sub>2</sub>

E)UV light

Q2) Which one of the following reactions is an example of nitrogen fixation?

A)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>(g)\(\rarr\) NO<sub>3</sub>(g)+ NO<sub>2</sub>(g)

B)N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\rarr\) 2NO(g)

C)3NO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(l)\(\rarr\)2HNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ NO(g) D)2NO(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\rarr\) 2NO<sub>2</sub>(g)

E)2NH<sub>3</sub>(g)\(\rarr\)3H<sub>2</sub>(aq)+ N<sub>2</sub>(g)

Q3) Excluding water vapor, list the four most prevalent gases in our atmosphere from most abundant to least abundant.

Q4) Write out the steps in the mechanism of ozone destruction by chlorine atoms.

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Chapter 21: Metallurgy and the Chemistry of Metals

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the total number of moles (n)of electrons exchanged between the oxidizing agent and the reducing agent in the reaction below to obtain vanadium metal: V<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>(s)+ 5Ca(l)\(\rarr\) 2V(l)+ 5CaO(s)

A)1

B)2

C)5

D)10

E)0

Q2) Which of these statements does not describe a property of aluminum?

A)Al is an efficient electrical conductor.

B)Al has a low density compared to other metals.

C)Al forms an amphoteric hydroxide.

D)Al is generally considered toxic to hu

Q3) Cast iron as it is prepared in a blast furnace is a product of high purity.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Write the chemical formula of epsomite (sold in pharmacies as Epsom salts).

Q5) Write the chemical formula of dolomite that provides a source for both magnesium and calcium.

Q6) Write the chemical formula of corundum.

Page 24

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Chapter 22: Nonmetallic Elements and Their Compounds

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Q1) Based on the following options, select the compound with hydrogen in the - 1 oxidation state.

A)NaH

B)B<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>

C)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

D)H<sub>2</sub>S

E)PH<sub>3</sub>

Q2) Based on the following options, select the substance with hydrogen in the +1 oxidation state.

A)KH

B)CH<sub>4</sub>

C)H<sub>2</sub>

D)AlH<sub>3</sub>

E)SrH<sub>2</sub>

Q3) Which one of the following compounds can react with water to form oxygen gas?

A)PCl<sub>5</sub>

B)NO<sub>2</sub>

C)H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>

D)KH

E)NH<sub>3</sub>

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Chapter 23: Transition Metal Chemistry and Coordination Compounds

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92 Verified Questions

92 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65086

Sample Questions

Q1) The electron configuration of a Co<sup>3+ </sup>ion is

A)[Ar]3d<sup>6</sup>.

B)[Ar]4s<sup>1</sup>3d<sup>5</sup>.

C)[Ar] 4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>4</sup>.

D)[Ar]3d<sup>5</sup>.

E)[Ar]3d<sup>4</sup>.

Q2) Which of these complex ions would absorb light with the longest wavelength?

A)[Co(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>

B)[Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>

C)[CoF<sub>6</sub>]<sup>4-</sup>

D)[Co(CN)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>4-</sup>

E)[Co(en)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>

Q3) In the coordination compound

[Cr(NH<sub>3</sub>)(en)<sub>2</sub>Cl]Br<sub>2</sub>, the coordination number (C.N.)and oxidation number (O.N.)of the metal atom are, respectively,

A)C.N.= 6; O.N.= +4.

B)C.N.= 6; O.N.= +3.

C)C.N.= 5; O.N.= +2.

D)C.N.= 4; O.N.= +2.

E)C.N.= 4; O.N.= +3.

Page 26

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Chapter 24: Organic Chemistry

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67 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65087

Sample Questions

Q1) Bromination of benzene (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>), an aromatic compound,

A)occurs by substitution rather than addition.

B)occurs by addition rather than substitution.

C)occurs more rapidly than bromination of a nonaromatic compound.

D)results in formation of 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexabromocyclohexane.

E)occurs in the absence of a catalyst.

Q2) Which of these statements describes a condensation reaction?

A)addition of H<sub>2</sub>O to a double bond

B)linking an acid and an alcohol to make an ester and water

C)addition of H<sub>2</sub> to an alkene

D)oxidation of ethanol to acetaldehyde

E)hydrolysis of an ester

Q3) Which one of these choices is the formula for an aldehyde?

A)CH<sub>3</sub>CHO

B)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>

C)CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub>

D)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH

E)HC\(\equiv\)CH

Q4) A compound with the formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub> may or may not be a saturated hydrocarbon.Explain.

Page 27

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Chapter 25: Synthetic and Natural Organic Polymers

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Sample Questions

Q1) What structural feature is required to have an isotactic or syndiotactic carbon-based polymer?

A)A repeating unit that contains an asymmetric carbon

B)A repeating unit that contains a double bond

C)A repeating unit that contains a triple bond

D)A repeating unit that contains an aromatic hydrocarbon

E)A repeating unit that contains an atom other than carbon

Q2) The only true hydrocarbon polymer found in nature is A)rubber

B)nylon

C)Tyvek

D)polystyrene

E)neoprene

Q3) Which choice lists both the sugar and the nitrogen base that are a part of RNA but are not a part of DNA?

A)deoxyribose and thymine

B)ribose and deoxyribose

C)ribose and uracil

D)uracil and thymine

E)ribose and thymine

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