Chemistry for Health Sciences Test Preparation - 3504 Verified Questions

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Chemistry for Health Sciences

Test Preparation

Course Introduction

Chemistry for Health Sciences introduces students to the fundamental principles of chemistry with a focus on their applications in health-related fields. Topics covered include atomic structure, chemical bonding, solutions, acids and bases, organic molecules, and the role of chemistry in biological systems and human health. The course emphasizes the chemical concepts that underpin physiological processes, pharmacology, nutrition, and biochemical pathways, preparing students for advanced study or careers in health professions. Laboratory components provide hands-on experience in basic chemical techniques and problem-solving relevant to medical and allied health contexts.

Recommended Textbook

Chemistry The Central Science 12th Edition by

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Chapter 1: Introduction: Matter and Measurement

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Sample Questions

Q1) The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm<sup>3</sup>. The density of mercury is __________ kg/m<sup>3</sup>.

A)1.36 × 10<sup>-2</sup>

B)1.36 × 10<sup>4</sup>

C)1.36 × 10<sup>8</sup>

D)1.36 × 10<sup>-5</sup>

E)1.36 × 10<sup>-4</sup>

Answer: B

Q2) Which states of matter are significantly compressible?

A)gases only

B)liquids only

C)solids only

D)liquids and gases

E)solids and liquids

Answer: A

Q3) Si is the symbol for the element __________.

Answer: Silicon

Q4) Sn is the symbol for the element __________.

Answer: Tin

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Chapter 2: Atoms, Molecules, and Ions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A certain mass of carbon reacts with 23.3 g of oxygen to form carbon monoxide. __________ grams of oxygen would react with that same mass of carbon to form carbon dioxide, according to the law of multiple proportions?

A)25.6

B)11.7

C)23.3

D)233

E)46.6

Answer: E

Q2) 200 pm is the same as __________ Å.

A)2000

B)20

C)200

D)2

E)0.0002

Answer: D

Q3) Which element in Group IA is the most electropositive? Answer: francium

Q4) What is the name of an alcohol derived from hexane? Answer: hexanol

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Chapter 3: Stoichiometry: Calculations With Chemical

Formulas and Equations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Magnesium burns in air with a dazzling brilliance to produce magnesium oxide: 2Mg (s)+ O<sub>2</sub> (g) 2MgO (s)

When 2.00 g of magnesium burns, the theoretical yield of magnesium oxide is __________ g.

A)2.00

B)3.32

C)0.0823

D)1.66

E)6.63

Answer: B

Q2) The mass % of F in the binary compound KrF<sub>2</sub> is __________.

A)18.48

B)45.38

C)68.80

D)81.52

E)31.20

Answer: E

Q3) Determine the mass percent (to the hundredths place)of Na in sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO<sub>3</sub>).

Answer: 27.36

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Aqueous Reactions and Solution Stoichiometry

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 31.5 mL aliquot of HNO<sub>3</sub> (aq)of unknown concentration was titrated with 0.0134 M NaOH (aq). It took 23.9 mL of the base to reach the endpoint of the titration. The concentration (M)of the acid was __________.

A)0.0102

B)0.0051

C)0.0204

D)0.227

E)1.02

Q2) Which one of the following is a weak acid?

A)HNO<sub>3</sub>

B)HCl

C)HI

D)HF

E)HClO<sub>4</sub>

Q3) The compound HClO<sub>4</sub> is a weak acid.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> is a strong base.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Thermochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hydrogen peroxide decomposes to water and oxygen at constant pressure by the following reaction: 2H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> (l) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l)+ O<sub>2</sub> (g) H = -196 kJ

Calculate the value of q (kJ)in this exothermic reaction when 4.00 g of hydrogen peroxide decomposes at constant pressure?

A)-23.1

B)-11.5

C)-0.0217

D)1.44

E)-2.31 × 10<sup>4</sup>

Q2) In the reaction below, H<sub>f</sub>° is zero for __________. Ni (s)+ 2CO (g)+ 2PF<sub>3</sub> (g) Ni(CO)<sub>2</sub> (PF<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> (l)

A)Ni (s)

B)CO (g)

C)PF<sub>3</sub> (g)

D)Ni(CO)<sub>2</sub>(PF<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> (l)

E)both CO (g)and PF<sub>3</sub> (g)

Q3) __________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force.

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Chapter 6: Electronic Structure of Atoms

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Sample Questions

Q1) The de Broglie wavelength of a bullet (7.5 g)traveling at 700 m/s is __________ m.

A)7.7 × 10<sup>33</sup>

B)1.3 × 10<sup>-34</sup>

C)6.2 × 10<sup>-29</sup>

D)1.3 × 10<sup>-27</sup>

E)1.3 × 10<sup>-23</sup>

Q2) Calculate the energy (J)change associated with an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 5 in a Bohr hydrogen atom.

A)6.5 × 10<sup>-19</sup>

B)5.5 × 10<sup>-19</sup>

C)8.7 × 10<sup>-20</sup>

D)4.6 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>9</sup>

E)5.8 × 10<sup>-53</sup>

Q3) The __________ quantum number defines the shape of an orbital.

A)spin

B)magnetic

C)principal

D)angular momentum

E)psi

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Chapter 7: Periodic Properties of the Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chlorine is much more apt to exist as an anion than is sodium. This is because

A)chlorine is bigger than sodium

B)chlorine has a greater ionization energy than sodium does

C)chlorine has a greater electron affinity than sodium does

D)chlorine is a gas and sodium is a solid

E)chlorine is more metallic than sodium

Q2) Which of the following correctly lists the five atoms in order of increasing size (smallest to largest)?

A)F < K < Ge < Br < Rb

B)F < Br < Ge < K < Rb

C)F < Ge < Br < K < Rb

D)F < K < Br < Ge < Rb

E)F < Br < Ge < Rb < K

Q3) Metals can be __________ at room temperature.

A)liquid only

B)solid only

C)solid or liquid

D)solid, liquid, or gas

E)liquid or gas

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Chapter 8: Basic Concepts of Chemical Bonding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nonpolar bond will form between two __________ atoms of __________ electronegativity.

A)different, opposite

B)identical, different

C)different, different

D)similar, different

E)identical, equal

Q2) Which energy change corresponds to the first ionization energy of potassium?

A)2

B)5

C)4

D)3

E)6

Q3) Bond enthalpy is __________.

A)always positive

B)always negative

C)sometimes positive, sometimes negative

D)always zero

E)unpredictable

Q4) Benzene is an __________ compound with __________ equivalent Lewis structures.

10

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Chapter 9: Molecular Geometry and Bonding Theories

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Sample Questions

Q1) The molecular geometry of the CHF<sub>3</sub> molecule is __________, and the molecule is __________.

A)trigonal pyramidal, polar

B)tetrahedral, nonpolar

C)seesaw, nonpolar

D)tetrahedral, polar

E)seesaw, polar

Q2) Electron domains for single bonds exert greater force on adjacent domains than the electron domains for multiple bonds.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in CF<sub>4</sub> is __________.

A)linear

B)trigonal planar

C)tetrahedral

D)bent

E)trigonal pyramidal

Q4) The 1s hydrogen orbital overlaps with the __________ iodine orbital in HI.

Q5) What are the three bond angles in the trigonal bipyramidal structure?

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Chapter 10: Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two deviations of real gases from ideal gases which are treated in the van der Waals equation are finite molecular volume and non-zero molecular attractions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The temperature of a sample of CH<sub>4</sub> gas (10.34 g)in a 50.0 L vessel at 1.33 atm is __________ °C.

A)984

B)-195

C)195

D)1260

E)-1260

Q3) The molar volume of a gas at STP is __________ L.

A)0.08206

B)62.36

C)1.00

D)22.4

E)14.7

Q4) The temperature and pressure specified by STP are __________ °C and __________ atm.

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Chapter 11: Liquids and Intermolecular Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) The heating curve shown was generated by measuring the heat flow and temperature of a solid as it was heated. The heat flow into the sample in the segment __________ will yield the value of the H<sub>fusion</sub> of this substance.

A)AB

B)BC

C)CD

D)DE

E)EF

Q2) Which of the following characteristics would prevent liquid crystal behavior?

A)long axial structure

B)ionic configuration

C)carbon-carbon single bonds

D)double bonding

E)polar groups

Q3) Of the following, __________ is an exothermic process.

A)melting

B)subliming

C)freezing

D)boiling

E)All of the above are exothermic.

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Chapter 12: Solids and Modern Materials

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process of doping can produce a __________ which can greatly __________ intrinsic conductivity.

A)n-type semiconductor, increase

B)p-type semiconductor, decrease

C)non-metal, increase

D)non-metal, decrease

E)allotrope, diminish

Q2) Heterogeneous alloys

A)have properties that depend on composition.

B)have properties that depend on the manner in which the melt is solidified.

C)have properties that depend on the manner in which the solid is formed.

D)All of the above are true.

Q3) The type of solid that is characterized by low melting point, softness, and low electrical conduction is a covalent-network solid.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In addition to differences in their average molecular mass, HDPE and LDPE differ in their degree of __________ and their __________ of the chains.

Q5) Semiconductors are less conductive than metals because of __________ gap.

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Chapter 13: Properties of Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following aqueous solutions will have the highest boiling point?

A)0.10 m Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

B)0.20 m glucose

C)0.25 m sucrose

D)0.10 m NaCl

E)0.10 m SrSO<sub>4</sub>

Q2) The vapor pressure of pure water at 25°C is 23.8 torr. Determine the vapor pressure (torr)of water at 25°C above a solution prepared by dissolving 21 g of urea (a nonvolatile, non-electrolyte, MW = 60.0g/mol)in 75 g of water.

A)2.9

B)0.35

C)22

D)27

E)0.92

Q3) Which produces the greatest number of ions when one mole dissolves in water?

A)NaCl

B)NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub>

C)NH<sub>4</sub>Cl

D)Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

E)sucrose

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Chapter 14: Chemical Kinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Consider the following reaction: A 2C

The average rate of appearance of C is given by [C]/ t. Comparing the rate of appearance of C and the rate of disappearance of A, we get [C]/ t = __________ × (- [A]/ t).

A)+2

B)-1

C)+1

D)+1/2

E)-1/2

Q2) The concentration of S<sub>2</sub>O<sub>8</sub><sup>2-</sup> remaining at 800 s is __________ M.

A)0.046

B)0.076

C)4.00 × 10<sup>-3</sup>

D)0.015

E)0.041

Q3) A catalyst that is present in the same phase as the reacting molecules is called a __________ catalyst.

Q4) The number of molecules that participate as reactants defines the __________ of the reaction.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) The effect of a catalyst on an equilibrium is to __________.

A)increase the rate of the forward reaction only

B)increase the equilibrium constant so that products are favored

C)slow the reverse reaction only

D)increase the rate at which equilibrium is achieved without changing the composition of the equilibrium mixture

E)shift the equilibrium to the right

Q2) The relationship between the concentrations of reactants and products of a system at equilibrium is given by the law of mass action.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which one of the following is true concerning the Haber process?

A)It is a process used for shifting equilibrium positions to the right for more economical chemical synthesis of a variety of substances.

B)It is a process used for the synthesis of ammonia.

C)It is another way of stating Le Châtelier's principle.

D)It is an industrial synthesis of sodium chloride that was discovered by Karl Haber.

E)It is a process for the synthesis of elemental chlorine.

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Chapter 16: Acid-Base Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) The acid-dissociation constant of hydrocyanic acid (HCN)at 25.0°C is 4.9 × 10<sup>-10</sup>. What is the pH of an aqueous solution of 0.080 M sodium cyanide (NaCN)?

A)11.11

B)2.89

C)1.3 × 10<sup>-3</sup>

D)7.8 × 10<sup>-12</sup>

E)3.9 × 10<sup>-11</sup>

Q2) Determine the pOH of a 0.35 M aqueous solution of KF. For hydrofluoric acid, K<sub>a</sub> = 7.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup>.

A)0.46

B)5.65

C)8.35

D)5.01

E)1.35

Q3) An acid containing the COOH group is called a carbo-oxy acid.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Additional Aspects of Aqueous Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) The pH of a solution prepared by mixing 45.0 mL of 0.183 M KOH and 25.0 mL of 0.145 M HCl is __________.

A)1.314

B)1.181

C)0.00824

D)12.819

E)12.923

Q2) The K<sub>b</sub> of ammonia is 1.76 × 10<sup>-5</sup>. The pH of a buffer prepared by combining 50.0 mL of 1.00 M ammonia and 50.0 mL of 1.00 M ammonium nitrate is __________.

A)4.632

B)9.246

C)4.742

D)9.372

E)none of the above

Q3) Calculate the pH of a buffer solution that contains 0.820 grams of sodium acetate and 0.010 moles of acetic acid in 100 ml of water. The K<sub>a</sub> of acetic acid is 1.77 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.

Q4) An assembly of a metal ion and the Lewis bases bonded to it is called a __________.

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Chapter 18: Chemistry of the Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concentration of carbon monoxide in a sample of air is 9.2 ppm. There are __________ molecules of CO in 1.00 L of this air at 755 torr and 23 °C.

A)3.8 × 10<sup>-7</sup>

B)2.2 × 10<sup>21</sup>

C)2.9 × 10<sup>18</sup>

D)1.7 × 10<sup>20</sup>

E)2.3 × 10<sup>17</sup>

Q2) Nitric oxide arises from auto emissions and reacts with oxygen to produce __________ which reacts with sunlight to produce __________ atoms which react with oxygen to produce __________.

Q3) Nitric oxide arises from internal combustion engines.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following is classified as a supercritical fluid?

A)water

B)xylene

C)toluene

D)hydrogen peroxide

E)none of the above

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Chapter 19: Chemical Thermodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The value of H° for the formation of POCl<sub>3</sub> from its constituent elements, P<sub>2</sub> (g)+ O<sub>2</sub> (g)+ 3Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) 2POCl<sub>3</sub> (g) Is __________ kJ/mol.

A)-1228.7

B)-397.7

C)-686.5

D)+1228.7

E)+686.5

Q2) Of the following, the entropy of gaseous __________ is the largest at 25°C and 1 atm.

A)CH<sub>3</sub>OH

B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>OH

C)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>7</sub>OH

D)CH<sub>4</sub>

E)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>

Q3) Find the temperature (in K)above which a reaction with a H of 53.00 kJ/mol and a S of 100.0 J/K mol becomes spontaneous.

Q4) Calculate G° for the autoionization of water at 25°C. K<sub>w</sub> = 1.0 × 10<sup>-14</sup>

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Chapter 20: Electrochemistry

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Q1) Which element is reduced in the reaction below? I<sup>-</sup> + MnO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> + H<sup>+</sup> I<sub>2</sub> + MnO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O

A)I

B)Mn

C)O

D)H

Q2) Cathodic protection of a metal pipe against corrosion usually entails

A)attaching an active metal to make the pipe the anode in an electrochemical cell.

B)coating the pipe with another metal whose standard reduction potential is less negative than that of the pipe.

C)attaching an active metal to make the pipe the cathode in an electrochemical cell.

D)attaching a dry cell to reduce any metal ions which might be formed.

E)coating the pipe with a fluoropolymer to act as a source of fluoride ion (since the latter is so hard to oxidize).

Q3) The anode of the alkaline battery is powdered zinc in a gel that contacts

Q4) In the formula G = -nFE, F is the __________.

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Chapter 21: Nuclear Chemistry

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Q1) Which one of the following is not true concerning radon?

A)It decays by alpha emission.

B)It decays to polonium-218, an alpha emitter.

C)It is chemically active in human lungs.

D)It has been implicated in lung cancer.

E)It is generated as uranium decays.

Q2) All atoms of a given element have the same __________.

A)mass number

B)number of nucleons

C)atomic mass

D)number of neutrons

E)atomic number

Q3) What radioactive element is used to diagnose medical conditions of the heart and arteries?

A)cobalt-60

B)thallium-201

C)radium-226

D)radon-222

E)thorium-234

Q4) __________ discovered radioactivity.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Chemistry of the Nonmetals

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Q1) The primary commercial use of oxygen is __________.

A)for the treatment of respiratory distress

B)in oxyacetylene welding

C)as a household bleach

D)as an oxidizing agent

E)to charge oxygen-containing cylinders used by deep-sea divers

Q2) Silicones can be oils or rubber-like materials depending on

A)the silicon-to-oxygen ratio.

B)the length of the chain and degree of cross-linking.

C)the percentage of carbon in the chain.

D)the percentage of sulfur in the chain.

E)the oxidation state of silicon in the chain.

Q3) The danger from mixing ammonia with bleach is the production of __________.

Q4) The careful, thermal decomposition of solid ammonium nitrate will yield

A)N<sub>2</sub>O

B)NO

C)NO<sub>2</sub>

D)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>

E)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Transition Metals and Coordination Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) A mineral is

A)a solid inorganic compound that contains one or more metals.

B)a vitamin.

C)metal in its elemental form.

D)a transition metal ion.

E)source of carbon.

Q2) The coordination numbers of cobalt(III)and of chromium(III)in their complexes are always __________.

A)4

B)5

C)2

D)3

E)6

Q3) A ligand with a single donor atom is called __________.

A)a chelon

B)a chelate

C)polydentate

D)monodentate

E)bidentate

Q4) Six-coordinate complexes generally have __________ geometry.

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Chapter 24: The Chemistry of Life: Organic and Biological Chemistry

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Q1) The formation of aspirin by reacting salicylic acid with acetic acid is a __________ reaction.

Q2) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>C(-O)NH<sub>2</sub> is called a(n)__________.

A)amine

B)amide

C)ketone

D)aldehyde

E)ester

Q3) Pentane has __________ structural isomers.

A)0

B)1

C)2

D)3

E)4

Q4) The principal difference between fructose and glucose is that __________.

A)fructose is a disaccharide and glucose is a monosaccharide

B)fructose is a monosaccharide and glucose is a disaccharide

C)fructose is chiral and glucose is not

D)glucose is chiral and fructose is not

Page 26

E)fructose is a ketone sugar and glucose is an aldehyde sugar

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