Chemistry for Health Sciences Practice Questions - 2205 Verified Questions

Chemistry for Health Sciences

Practice Questions

Course Introduction

Chemistry for Health Sciences is an introductory course designed to provide a foundational understanding of chemical principles and their applications in the health and medical fields. Topics include the structure and properties of matter, chemical reactions, solutions, acids and bases, and basic organic and biological chemistry. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of chemistry in physiology, pharmacology, nutrition, and disease processes, preparing students for further studies in health sciences and related professions. The course integrates laboratory experiences to reinforce theoretical knowledge and foster practical skills essential for health science careers.

Recommended Textbook

Chemistry for Today General Organic and Biochemistry 8th Edition by Seager

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Matter, measurements, and Calculations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Over the counter (OTC)medicines are dangerous because they are not regulated.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) The density of zinc is 7.13 g/cm³.What is the mass in kilograms of a 125 cm³cylinder of zinc?

A) 891 kg

B) 17.5 kg

C) 0.0175 kg

D) 0.891 kg

Answer: D

Q3) The mass of an object is

A) the force between the object and the earth.

B) a measure of the amount of matter in the object.

C) the amount of space the object occupies.

D) depends on the location of the object on the earth.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Atoms and Molecules

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many grams of iron (Fe)is contained in 15.8 g of Fe(OH)₃?

A) 12.1

B) 8.26

C) 11.8

D) 5.21

Answer: B

Q2) If you have 3.011 *10²³ atoms of carbon,what would you expect its mass to be?

A) 12.01 g

B) 6.005 g

C) 3.003 g

D) 1.000 g

Answer: B

Q3) A scanning tunneling microscope (STM)relies on a very strong light source to help see atoms.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 3: Electronic Structure and the Periodic Law

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Sample Questions

Q1) Argon completes the fourth period of the periodic table.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Tin (Sn),which is found in Group IVA,has four electrons in the outside shell.

A)True

B)False Answer: True

Q3) Sodium,Na,and potassium,K,are in the same period.

A)True

B)False Answer: False

Q4) The distinguishing electron for any element is a valence electron.

A)True

B)False Answer: True

Q5) All non-metals are representative elements.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Forces Between Particles

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following molecules would be classified as polar covalent?

A) NaCl

B) CH₃Cl

C) KCl

D) CaCl₂

Q2) Which interparticle forces would you expect to find in a sample of the element lithium?

A) covalent

B) dispersion

C) ionic

D) metallic

Q3) Metals gain electrons to become ions in ionic compounds.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The name for the compound formed between Co³⁺ and O^2- is cobalt(II)oxide.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) All redox reactions are exothermic reactions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is a double replacement reaction?

A) CuO + H₂ \(\rarr\) Cu + H₂O

B) HBr + KOH \(\rarr\) H₂O + KBr

C) SO₂ + H₂O \(\rarr\) H₂SO₃

D) 2HI \(\rarr\) I₂ + H₂

Q3) If 5 grams of CO and 5 grams of O₂ are combined according to the reaction,which is the limiting reagent? 2CO + O₂ \(\rarr\) 2CO₂

A) CO₂

B) O₂

C) CO

D) CO and O₂

Q4) The oxidation number of Cr in K₂CrO₄ is +6.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: The States of Matter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Small compressibility is a characteristic of which state of matter?

A) solid

B) liquid

C) gaseous

D) more than one response is correct

Q2) The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure and atmospheric pressure are the same.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Pure substances in the gaseous state contain more energy than in the liquid state.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The specific heat of ice is 0.48 cal/gS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C.How much heat will it take to raise the temperature of 10 g of ice from -30S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C to -20S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C?

A) 0.48 cal

B) 4.8 cal

C) 48 cal

D) 10 cal

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Chapter 7: Solutions and Colloids

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Sample Questions

Q1) The boiling point of a solution of sugar water is

A) higher than that of pure solvent.

B) the same as that of pure solvent.

C) lower than that of pure solvent.

D) impossible to determine.

Q2) Emulsions are destroyed by adding salt.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What volume of a 10.00% (w/v)solution of sugar is needed to provide 2.00 g of sugar?

A) 0.200 liter

B) 1.00 mL

C) 20.0 mL

D) 5.00 mL

Q4) Which of the following pairs correctly represent similar functions for a solution component and a colloid component?

A) solvent/dispersed phase

B) solute/dispersion medium

C) solvent/dispersion medium

D) more than one response is correct

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Chapter 8: Reaction Rates and Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most automobiles function by burning gasoline by a process similar to the equation shown,in which octane is burned.

C₈H₁₈ + O₂ \(\rarr\)CO₂ + H₂O + heat (not balanced)

Using the concept of entropy,interpret the implications of this reaction.

A) It goes to the right because it is spontaneous after a spark is supplied.

B) It explains why a car stops running when there is no gas in the fuel tank.

C) Gasoline can be made commercially because the reaction can run backwards if the energy is returned to the CO₂ and H₂O.

D) All of these responses are correct with respect to entropy.

Q2) Reaction rates are determined experimentally.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Catalysts may lower the activation energy.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Chemical reactions always occur once the molecules of two substances collide.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Acids,bases,and Salts

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Sample Questions

Q1) During a field trip to study the problem of acid rain,you test one lake that had observed a major fish kill.It was found to have a pH of 5.37.What is the [H⁺]?

A) 2.3*^-9

B) 3.7*10^-5

C) 4.3*10^-6

D) 1.7*10⁵

Q2) When an acid is analyzed by adding a measured quantity of base,the point at which all the acid has reacted is correctly called

A) the equivalence point.

B) the neutral point.

C) the endpoint.

D) the analysis point.

Q3) The term,strong acid,refers to

A) the number of hydrogens attached to the acid molecule.

B) the speed at which it will dissolve metal.

C) if it will cause burns to the skin.

D) the ability for the acid to completely dissociate in solution.

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Chapter 10: Radioactivity and Nuclear Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The radioisotope radon-222 is a gas that is a health hazard because it can make its way into the house from the soil in which it is produced,be inhaled,and cause lung cancer.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Gamma emissions can be stopped with the use of an electromagnetic field because of their dense charge and their mass.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is a desired characteristic of a diagnostic tracer?

A) short half-life

B) a beta emitter

C) be soluble in water

D) all of these responses are correct

Q4) The following equation describes the amount of energy released in nuclear reactions.

E = mc²

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Organic Compounds: Alkanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many hydrogen atoms are needed to complete the following structure?

C=C-N-C

A) 6

B) 7

C) 9

D) 10

Q2) The boiling point for normal alkanes will increase as the number of carbons increases.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following compounds can exist in the form of geometric isomers?

A) 1,2-dibromocyclopentane

B) 1,1-dibromocyclopentane

C) 1-bromocyclopentane

D) 1-bromo-1-methylcyclopentane

Q4) An unlimited number of carbon atoms can bond together to form chains.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Unsaturated Hydrocarbons

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Sample Questions

Q1) An alkene with one multiple bond can be converted to an alkane by hydration.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which is a difference between butyne and cyclobutyne?

A) Cyclobutyne does not exist.

B) Butyne's multiple bond is interior,cyclobutyne is not between interior carbons.

C) Cyclobutyne burns much hotter than butyne because of the greater unsaturation.

D) Both b and c are differences between the molecules.

Q3) Alkenes must have at least two carbon atoms.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Two moles of hydrogen gas would be required to convert one mole of 2-butyne into butane.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The same substances which add to double bonds can add to triple bonds.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Alcohols, phenols, and Ethers

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Sample Questions

Q1) What conditions must be used to carry out the following reaction?

2CH₃CH₂CH₂-OH \(\rarr\) CH₃CH₂-O-CH₂CH₃ + H₂O

A) H₂SO₄,180S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C

B) H₂SO₄,140S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C

C) HCl

D) NaOH

Q2) Methyl alcohol can be dehydrated to form an alkene.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Because phenol contains a hydroxy,it is referred to as an alcohol,but the presence of the benzene ring takes phenol out of the alcohol class.The reason is that phenol is remarkably stable and is not able to react chemically as an alcohol.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Methanol is a common component of cough drops,beverages and oral medications.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Aldehydes and Ketones

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hydrogenation of an aldehyde will produce?

A) a carboxylic acid

B) no reaction

C) a primary alcohol

D) an acetal

Q2) What is the common name for 2-butanone?

A) methyl ethyl ketone

B) diethyl ketone

C) isobutyl ketone

D) butyl ketone

Q3) Which of the following has the highest boiling point?

A) propanal

B) methanal

C) ethanal

D) butanal

Q4) Acetone can strongly hydrogen bond to itself.

A)True

B)False

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Carboxylic Acids and Esters

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Sample Questions

Q1) Carboxylic acids react readily with sodium hydroxide to form salts.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Butyric acid is composed of a molecule that is small enough to evaporate from the liquid state at room temperature and,therefore,may have a scent.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Esters are formed when an alcohol and a carboxylic acid react by means of hydrolysis.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following causes the noxious odor of rancid butter?

A) butyric acid

B) oxalic acid

C) lactic acid

D) stearic acid

Q5) Carboxylic acids are weaker acids than HCl.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Amines and Amides

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following amines can form hydrogen bonds with water?

A) primary and secondary

B) just tertiary

C) primary,secondary and tertiary

D) none of them

Q2) Which of the following four-carbon amides would be the least soluble in water?

A) simple amides

B) monosubstituted amides

C) disubstituted amides

D) all would be equally soluble

Q3) Amines are less basic than amides.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The "fight or flight" hormone is _____.

A) epinephrine

B) amphetamine

C) serotonin

D) dopamine

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Chapter 17: Carbohydrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) The L form of a stereoisomer has an -OH on the left in the Fischer projection.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Carbohydrates have their name because the ratio of carbon to water is always 1:1.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following carbohydrates yields invert sugar upon hydrolysis?

A) fructose

B) sucrose

C) starch

D) glycogen

Q4) Structurally,glycogen is most similar to _____ .

A) amylose

B) amylopectin

C) cellulose

D) sucrose

Q5) There is no biological significance attributed to stereoisomers.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Lipids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cell membranes are about 60% lipids.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A phosphoglyceride containing a choline component is called a _____.

A) sphingolipid

B) cephaline

C) glycolipid

D) lecithin

Q3) The following substance would be classified as an omega-3 fatty acid.

CH₃(CH₂)₄(CH=CHCH₂)<sub>4</sub >(CH₂)₂COOH

A)True

B)False

Q4) Glycerol is an example of a(n)_____.

A) alcohol

B) ester

C) carboxylic acid

D) ether

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Chapter 19: Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many different tripeptides could be formed by 1 of each of the following amino acids?

[ lysine histidine aspartate ]

A) 1

B) 3

C) 6

D) 9

Q2) Of the many sulfur-containing amino acids,cysteine is the only one that can not form disulfide bridges.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A protein important in blood clotting is keratin.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A disulfide bridge within a protein molecule is different from the hydrogen bonding within the molecule because the disulfide bridge is a stronger bond than the hydrogen bond.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Enzymes

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Q1) Which statement about enzymes is incorrect?

A) Enzymes can either speed up or slow down a chemical reaction.

B) Enzymes are not used up during the reaction in which they are involved.

C) Enzymes are proteins that are capable of reducing the activation energy.

D) There are enzymes that interact with one enantiomer,but not the other.

Q2) Which of the following accurately describes how an enzyme functions?

A) Reduces the enthalpy difference for the reactants and products.

B) Allows for the exothermic reaction of materials that are usually endothermic.

C) Changes the reaction mechanism,effectively reducing the activation energy.

D) Shifts the equilibrium for the reaction.

Q3) The general term which refers to the catalytic ability of an enzyme is A) enzyme turnover.

B) enzyme activity.

C) catalytic turnover.

D) catalytic speed.

Q4) The conditions required for maximum enzyme function are called A) room conditions.

B) standard conditions.

C) optimum conditions.

D) low pressure,high temperature.

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following helps to serve as a site for protein synthesis?

A) DNA

B) rRNA

C) tRNA

D) mRNA

Q2) The site of protein synthesis is the ribosome.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Cytosine and guanine can form two hydrogen bonds between them.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Two bases in adjacent strands of DNA form two hydrogen bonds.These two bases would be

A) G and C.

B) A and T.

C) A and U.

D) C and T.

Q5) Uracil replaces the thymine in DNA when RNA is produced.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Energy for Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Coenzyme A is derived in part from which of the following?

A) pantothenic acid

B) riboflavin

C) niacin

D) thiamine

Q2) Several micronutrients are components of enzymes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Most cellular ATP is produced within the _____ .

A) nucleus

B) mitochondria

C) chloroplast

D) cytoplasm

Q4) Complementary protein food combinations are especially important to individuals who are following a

A) high protein diet.

B) lacto-ovo vegetarian diet.

C) vegan diet.

D) More than one response is correct.

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Chapter 23: Carbohydrate Metabolism

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Q1) Phosphofructokinase,one of the enzymes which regulates the glycolysis pathway,is activated by _____ .

A) glucose

B) citrate

C) ADP

D) ATP

Q2) Low carbohydrate intake during heavy exercise followed by high carbohydrate intake with light exercise is an example of ____ loading.

A) carbohydrate

B) ATP

C) energy

D) glucose

Q3) A blood sugar level that is lower than normal is referred to as _____ .

A) hypoglycemia

B) hyperglycemia

C) glucosuria

D) diabetes mellitus

Q4) Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that is self-regulating.

A)True

B)False

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Lipid and Amino Acid Metabolism

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Q1) Which of the following ketone bodies can not be used as an energy source?

A)( \(\beta\)-hydroxybutyrate)

B) acetone

C) acetoacetate

D) All ketone bodies can be used.

Q2) The body can prepare asparagine from aspartic acid.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The synthesis of amino acids and the intake of amino acids are both important in order to replace cells lost from cellular death caused by either old age of the cells or disease.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following can cause abnormally high levels of ketone bodies to be present in the blood?

A) diabetes

B) a high fat diet

C) starvation

D) More than one response is correct.

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Chapter 25: Body Fluids

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Q1) Which of the following functions is essential in maintaining a constant pH for the blood?

A) respiration reactions associated with breathing

B) kidney activity

C) formation and excretion of perspiration

D) More than one response is correct.

Q2) An increase in blood pH above normal stimulates

A) an increased rate of breathing.

B) hypoventilation.

C) hyperventilation.

D) More than one response is correct.

Q3) Oxygen displaces carbon dioxide in the lungs because oxygen is much more soluble than is carbon dioxide.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The chloride shift occurs due to the increase in oxygen in the blood at the lungs and decreases as the oxygen is used by the tissues.

A)True

B)False

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