Chemistry for Health Sciences Final Exam - 2174 Verified Questions

Page 1


Chemistry for Health Sciences

Final Exam

Course Introduction

Chemistry for Health Sciences provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of chemistry with a focus on their applications in medical and health-related fields. The course covers atomic structure, chemical bonding, states of matter, solutions, acid-base chemistry, and basic organic and biochemistry concepts relevant to the human body. Emphasis is placed on the chemical processes underlying physiological functions, drug interactions, diagnostic testing, and disease mechanisms, preparing students for advanced study in health sciences and allied health professions.

Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 7th Edition by John E. McMurry

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Matter and Measurements

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Sample Questions

Q1) What temperature is 325 K on the Celsius scale?

A)52°C

B)126°C

C)344°C

D)598°C

E)617°C

Answer: A

Q2) A laboratory technician reports that the mass of a growth removed from a patient is 274.06 g.How many significant figures does this measurement contain?

A)2

B)3

C)4

D)5

E)none of the above

Answer: D

Q3) Is 25 kilometers per liter good gas mileage for a VW Rabbit diesel? Hint: How do we measure mileage in the English system?

Answer: It's good: 59 miles/gal.

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Chapter 2: Atoms and the Periodic Table

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the 3d orbitals?

A)2

B)6

C)8

D)10

E)14

Answer: D

Q2) What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the 4f orbitals?

A)2

B)6

C)8

D)10

E)14

Answer: E

Q3) The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to:

A)atomic number - mass number

B)mass number - atomic number

C)the atomic number

D)the mass number

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Ionic Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following elements is most likely to form an ion with a -2 charge?

A)Mg

B)Si

C)S

D)K

E)Ti

Answer: C

Q2) What is the valence shell electron configuration of the ion formed from an atom of the halogen family?

A)ns<sup>2</sup>

B)ns<sup>2 </sup>np<sup>2</sup>

C)ns<sup>2 </sup>np<sup>4</sup>

D)ns<sup>2 </sup>np<sup>6</sup>

E)ns<sup>2 </sup>np<sup>8</sup>

Answer: D

Q3) How are noble gases related to the octet rule?

Answer: Noble gases,except helium,illustrate the stability of elements with a full outer shell (an octet).These elements are unreactive because their valence shell is filled.Helium is also grouped with these elements because it is unreactive due to its filled 1s shell.

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Chapter 4: Molecular Compounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) oxygen difluoride

A)OF<sub>2</sub>

B)BrF<sub>5</sub>

C)CCI<sub>4</sub>

D)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>

E)SF<sub>6</sub>

F)CO

G)ICl

H)SO<sub>2</sub>

I)CH<sub>4</sub>

J)IF<sub>7</sub>

K)PCI<sub>3</sub>

L)NH<sub>3</sub>

Q2) In a covalent compound the bond length can be defined as

A)the distance between any two pairs of electrons.

B)the distance between the two largest atoms.

C)the distance between two nuclei when the repulsion is greatest.

D)the distance between two nuclei when the attraction is greatest.

E)the distance between two nuclei when repulsion and attraction are balanced.

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Chapter 5: Classification and Balancing of Chemical Reactions

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Q1) The combination of ions least likely to produce a precipitate is

A)Ba<sup>2+</sup> and SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>.

B)Pb<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup>.

C)Ca<sup>2+</sup> and PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>.

D)Fe<sup>3+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>.

E)Mg<sup>2+</sup> and C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>.

Q2) Which is the correct equation for the reaction of magnesium with hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen and magnesium chloride?

A)Mg + 2 HCl H<sub>2</sub> + MgCl<sub>2</sub>

B)Mg + HCl H + MgCl

C)2 Mg + 6 HCl 3 H<sub>2</sub> + 2 MgCl<sub>2</sub>

D)Mg + 2 HCl 2 H + MgCl<sub>2</sub>

E)Mg + 3 HCl 3 H + MgCl<sub>2</sub>

Q3) Which statement regarding balanced chemical equations is not true?

A)The number of each kind of atoms must be the same on each side.

B)Coefficients are used in front of formulas to balance the equation.

C)Subscripts may be changed to make an equation simpler to balance.

D)When no coefficient is written in front of a formula,the number "one" is assumed.

E)Reactants are written to the left of the arrow.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Chemical Reactions: Mole and Mass

Relationships

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many grams of fluorine are required to produce 20.0 grams of FeF<sub>3</sub> from the reaction shown?

2 Fe + 3F<sub>2</sub> 2 FeF<sub>3</sub>

A)4.49 g

B)5.05 g

C)6.74 g

D)10.1 g

E)20.2 g

Q2) The following equation represents the formation of nitrogen dioxide,a major component of smog,

2 NO + O<sub>2</sub> 2 NO<sub>2</sub>

If 0.68 mole of NO is reacted with 0.79 mole of O<sub>2</sub> to produce NO<sub>2</sub>,the limiting reactant is ________.

A)both NO and O<sub>2</sub>

B)NO

C)O<sub>2</sub>

D)NO<sub>2</sub>

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Chapter 7: Chemical Reactions: Energy, rates, and Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) A process or reaction which releases heat

A)exergonic

B)endergonic

C)exothermic

D)endothermic

E)activation energy

F)chemical equilibrium

Q2) Which factors would decrease the rate of a reaction?

I.Lowering the temperature

II.Increasing the concentration of reactants

III.Adding a catalyst

A)I only

B)II only

C)III only

D)II and III

E)I and III

Q3) The label on a package of cookies states that there are 100 calories per serving.Explain the different meanings of this statement to a chemist and to a nutritionist.Be sure your answer explains the difference between kilocalories and Calorie.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Gases, liquids, and Solids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which pair of molecules has the strongest dipole-dipole interactions?

A)NH<sub>3</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>

B)NH<sub>3</sub> and NH<sub>3</sub>

C)CH<sub>4</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>

D)CO<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub>

E)CO<sub>2</sub> and CH<sub>4</sub>

Q2) Which transformation is freezing?

A)liquid solid

B)liquid gas

C)solid liquid

D)solid gas

E)gas liquid

Q3) The vapor pressure of a liquid

A)decreases with increasing temperature.

B)is independent of temperature.

C)is equal to one atmosphere at the normal boiling point.

D)cannot be measured.

Q4) Sketch a graph illustrating Charles's Law.Use a gas sample with a volume of 2.0 L at 0.75 atm and 27°C,and show at least two other points.

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Chapter 9: Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which procedure will produce 250 mL of a solution that is 4% by volume alcohol in water?

A)4 mL of alcohol is mixed with enough water to make 250 mL of solution.

B)10 mL of alcohol is mixed with enough water to make 250 mL of solution.

C)4 mL of alcohol is mixed with 250 mL of water.

D)10 mL of alcohol is mixed with 250 mL of water.

E)none of the above

Q2) A 50.0 mL sample of a 12.0 M solution of HCl is diluted to 250.mL.What is the new concentration?

A)60.0 M

B)12.0 M

C)10.4 M

D)3.00 M

E)2.40 M

Q3) Which of the following can serve as the solvent in a solution?

A)a gas

B)a liquid

C)a solid

D)a mixture of commingled liquids

E)all of the above

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Chapter 10: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many mL of 0.100 M NaOH are needed to neutralize 50.00 mL of a 0.150 M solution of CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H,a monoprotic acid?

A)25.00 mL

B)37.50 mL

C)50.00 mL

D)75.00 mL

E)100.00 mL

Q2) If the [H<sup>+</sup>] of a water sample is 1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M,the [OH<sup>-</sup>] is

A)1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M.

B)1 × 10<sup>-14</sup> M.

C)1 × 10<sup>4</sup> M.

D)1 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M.

E)none of the above

Q3) Which compound produces a basic solution when dissolved in water?

A)NH<sub>4</sub>Cl

B)NaF

C)KClO<sub>4</sub>

D)KCl

E)Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>

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Chapter 11: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) What percentage of a radioactive sample remains after four half-lives have passed?

A)0%

B)6.25%

C)12.5%

D)25%

E)50%

Q2) Approximately how old is a fossil that has a little more than 6% of its original radioactivity? The half-life of carbon-14 used in dating artifacts is 5700 years.

A)57,000 years

B)34,200 years

C)20,000 years

D)11,400 years

E)5,700 years

Q3) List and describe four differences between nuclear reactions and ordinary chemical reactions.

Q4) You obtain a new sample of cobalt-60,half-life 5.25 years,with a mass of 400.mg.How much cobalt-60 remains after 15.75 years?

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Chapter 12: Introduction to Organic Chemistry: Alkanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) When hydrocarbons undergo complete combustion,the product(s)is(are)

A)CO<sub>2</sub> and O<sub>2</sub>.

B)CO<sub>2</sub>.

C)CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.

D)H<sub>2</sub>O and O<sub>2</sub>.

E)H<sub>2</sub>O.

Q2) How many carbon atoms are there in the longest continuous chain of the molecule shown?

(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CH(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>5</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>

A)9

B)8

C)7

D)5

E)cannot be determined without additional information

Q3) The alcohol functional group has

A)a carbon-carbon triple bond.

B)a carbon-oxygen-hydrogen group.

C)a six-membered ring with three double bonds.

D)a double bond between carbon and oxygen.

E)one or more bonds between carbon and nitrogen.

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Chapter 13: Alkenes, alkynes, and Aromatic Compounds

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Q1) Cis-trans isomerism occurs when

A)a branched alkane has a halogen added to two adjacent carbon atoms.

B)an alkene is hydrated according to Markovnikov's Rule.

C)the carbons in an alkene double bond each have two different substituent groups.

D)the carbons in the para position of an aromatic have the same substituent groups.

E)hydrogen is added to both of the carbon atoms in a double bond.

Q2) On the basis of the number of carbon-hydrogen bonds,all of the following families of compounds can be considered unsaturated except A)alkanes.

B)alkenes.

C)alkynes.

D)arenes.

E)none of the above

Q3) What is the name of the product when 1-pentene reacts with Cl<sub>2</sub>?

A)1,1-dichloropentane

B)1,2-dichloropentane

C)2,2-dichloropentane

D)2,3-dichloropentane

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Chapter 14: Some Compounds With Oxygen, sulfur, or a Halogen

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most characteristic feature of thiols is ________

A)odor

B)solubility in water

C)reactivity with water

D)boiling point

E)color

Q2) An alcohol is classified as primary,secondary or tertiary based on

A)the number of carbon atoms bonded to the carbon bearing the OH group.

B)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule.

C)the number of hydrogens present in the alcohol.

D)the number of OH groups present in the molecule.

E)the mass of the alcohol.

Q3) Oxidation of an alcohol group results in formation of a(an)________ group.

A)alkyl

B)aromatic

C)carbonyl

D)ether

E)hydroxyl

Q4) Describe and explain the change in water solubility of straight-chain primary alcohols as molar mass increases.

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Chapter 15: Amines

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which class of amines can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds?

A)1°

B)2°

C)3°

D)A and B

E)all of the above

Q2) When comparing amine compounds of different classes but similar molar masses,which type will most likely be the highest boiling point?

A)primary amines

B)secondary amines

C)tertiary amines

D)quaternary ammonium salts

Q3) All of the following compounds are amines except A)amphetamine.

B)histamine.

C)aniline.

D)aspirin.

E)caffeine.

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Chapter 16: Aldehydes and Ketones

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Q1) The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is A)2-propanal.

B)3-propanal.

C)2-propanone.

D)1-propanone.

E)acetone.

Q2) Reduction of an aldehyde produces a A)carboxylic acid.

B)primary alcohol.

C)secondary alcohol.

D)tertiary alcohol.

E)ketone.

Q3) Which of the following products is formed when hydrogen is reacted with 3-methyl-2-butanone?

A)a primary alcohol

B)a secondary alcohol

C)a tertiary alcohol

D)an acetal

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Chapter 17: Carboxylic Acids and Their Derivatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) Reaction of an ester with a strong base is called

A)reverse esterification.

B)esterification.

C)saponification.

D)oxidation.

E)condensation.

Q2) The similarities in properties of carboxylic acids,esters,and amides can best be explained by

A)their polarity and structural similarities.

B)their similarities in molar mass.

C)hydrogen bonding.

D)the ease with which they form ions.

E)none of these.

Q3) In the production of an ester,the carboxylic acid loses which atom or group of atoms?

A)oxygen from the C=O

B)H from the OH group

C)the OH group

D)the entire COOH group

E)oxygen from the OH

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Chapter 18: Amino Acids and Proteins

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Q1) hydrophilic

A)a protein that produces only amino acids upon hydrolysis

B)the form of an amino acid in which both the carboxyl group and the amine group are charged,but the overall molecule remains neutral

C)a protein that is usually insoluble in water,is very tough,and has a long shape

D)a carbon atom bonded to four different groups and therefore able to form enantiomers

E)a protein with the tertiary structure in which it normally occurs in living systems

F)refers to R groups that do not interact readily with water because they are non-polar

G)a protein that is usually water soluble,having a hydrophilic exterior and hydrophobic interior,and an overall rounded shape

H)refers to R groups which form hydrogen bonds with water because of their polarity

I)a protein that produces amino acids and other biomolecules or inorganic substances upon hydrolysis

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Chapter 19: Enzymes and Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which term identifies the relatively small portion of the enzyme that is directly involved in the biochemical reaction being catalyzed?

A)substrate

B)active site

C)N-terminal

D)C-terminal

E)precursor

Q2) All of the following are mechanisms for control of enzyme activity except A)inhibition.

B)feedback.

C)allosteric interactions.

D)genetic regulation.

E)hydrolysis.

Q3) Which aspect of enzyme structure is related to our dietary need for trace minerals?

A)cofactor

B)active site

C)turnover number

D)chirality

E)none of these

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Chapter 20: The Generation of Biochemical Energy

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Q1) The process of converting ADP to ATP in the mitochondrion takes place by a process known as

A)oxidative phosphorylation.

B)chemiosmosis.

C)respiration.

D)reductive phosphorylation

E)chemiosmotic phosphorylation.

Q2) The biochemical process in which complex molecules are broken down into simpler ones and energy is released is referred to as

A)anabolism.

B)catabolism.

C)digestion.

D)metabolism.

E)respiration.

Q3) The formation of acetyl coenzyme A is an example of a(an)________ reaction.

A)esterification

B)redox

C)addition

D)acid / base

E)elimination

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Chapter 21: Carbohydrates

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Q1) The bond connecting the two monosaccharides in maltose is a(an)________ linkage.

A) -1,4 glycosidic

B) -1,4 glycosidic

C)1,2 anomeric

D) -1,6 glycosidic

E) -1,6 glycosidic

Q2) -D-glucose and -D-glucose are A)enantiomers.

B)anomers.

C)disaccharides.

D)a racemic mixture.

E)polysaccharides.

Q3) Starch is composed of two polymers,________,which is an unbranched chain,and ________,which is a branched polymer.

A)amylose; amylase

B)amylase; amylose

C)amylopectin; amylose

D)amylose; amylopectin

E)amylase; amylopectin

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Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism

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Q1) glycolysis

A)the conversion of glucose into glycogen

B)the conversion of glucose into carbohydrate molecules containing phosphate groups and five carbon atoms

C)the production of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources

D)the conversion of glycogen into glucose

E)the conversion of glucose into pyruvate

Q2) The target molecule(s)for -amylase is (are)

A)glucose.

B)sucrose.

C)all disaccharides.

D)starch.

E)starch and glycogen.

Q3) The enzyme that catalyzes cleavage of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate and D-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is ________.

A)aldolase

B)D-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphatase

C)phosphofructokinase

D)hexokinase

E)none of the above

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Chapter 23: Lipids

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Q1) A phospholipid with the phosphate ester group bonded to choline would be classified as a A)cephalin.

B)lecithin.

C)sphingomyelin.

D)cerebroside.

E)ganglioside.

Q2) The chemical makeup of fats is

A)simple esters of long chain alcohols and fatty acids.

B)esters of glycerol with three identical saturated fatty acids.

C)esters of glycerol with three identical unsaturated fatty acids.

D)esters of glycerol with three predominantly saturated fatty acids.

E)esters of glycerol with three predominantly unsaturated fatty acids.

Q3) Phosphoglycerides differ from glycerides in that one of the hydroxyl groups of the glycerol is esterified with A)phosphoric acid.

B)phosphorous.

C)choline.

D)serine.

Q4) Sketch a lipid bilayer and identify its hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions.

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Lipid Metabolism

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Q1) After digestion and absorption,the molecules from dietary fats and oils are transported in the bloodstream as A)glycerol.

B)fatty acids.

C)cholesterol.

D)citric acid.

E)enzymes.

Q2) Which statements are true for the process of -oxidation?

I.It occurs in the mitochondria.

II.Acyl carrier proteins are involved.

III.NADPH is the coenzyme.

IV.The molecule increases in length by two carbons.

V.Energy is released in the process.

A)I,III,V

B)II,IV

C)I,V

D)I,II,III,IV,V

E)II,III,IV

Q3) Compare the processes of -oxidation of fatty acids and lipogenesis of fatty acids.

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Chapter 25: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis

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Q1) Which of the following is a major function of nucleic acids?

A)storage and transfer of genetic information

B)storage and intracellular transfer of energy

C)catalysis of virtually all biochemical reactions

D)structural support in both plants and animals

E)long-term storage of energy

Q2) A codon is

A)a sequence of three amino acids that translates to a specific nucleotide in RNA.

B)a complex of proteins and DNA which is associated with cell division.

C)all the segments of DNA needed to direct the production of a specific protein.

D)a sequence of three nucleotides in RNA that codes for a specific amino acid or for chain termination.

E)the collection of DNA that stores all the genetic information for an individual organism.

Q3) Which nucleic acid carries the codon for protein synthesis?

A)DNA

B)rRNA

C)tRNA

D)mRNA

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Chapter 26: Genomics

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Q1) The use of prenatal DNA testing followed by an attempt to alter a specific gene to prevent an inherited disease would be classified as

A)genetic engineering.

B)bioinformatics.

C)gene therapy.

D)pharmacogenomics.

E)pharmacogenetics.

Q2) The removal of a gene from one organism and incorporating it into the DNA of another is called

A)polymerase chain reaction.

B)recombinant DNA.

C)genetic selection.

D)electrophoresis.

E)mutation.

Q3) Explain the difference between polymorphisms and mutations.

Q4) Discuss the importance of telomeres in cell death and in cancer.

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Chapter 27: Protein and Amino Acid Metabolism

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Q1) The first step in amino acid catabolism is ________.

A)transamination

B)decarboxylation

C)oxidation

D)esterification

E)tautomerization

Q2) The process of oxidative deamination of an amino acid produces which of the following?

A)urea

B)CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O

C)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>

D)aspartate

E)glutamate

Q3) The source of nitrogen for the synthesis of nonessential amino acids is A)glutamate.

B)acetate.

C)pyruvate.

D)oxaloacetate.

E)urea.

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Chapter 28: Chemical Messengers: Hormones, neurotransmitters, and Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which hormone is an example of a steroid?

A)epinephrine

B)thyroxine

C)growth hormone (GH)

D)antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

E)cortisone

Q2) The chemical structure of steroid hormones includes

A)ten or fewer amino acids.

B)10-50 amino acids.

C)a carboxylic acid group and an alpha-hydroxy group.

D)an aromatic ring and an alkene group.

E)a central structure of four connected rings.

Q3) Which statement about hormones is not correct?

A)Hormones can affect biochemical reactions by inhibiting enzymes.

B)Hormones are transported in the bloodstream.

C)Hormones can affect biochemical reactions by activating enzymes.

D)Hormones are usually produced by endocrine glands.

E)Hormones are very specific,affecting only one chemical reaction.

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Chapter 29: Body Fluids

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

63 Verified Questions

63 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65905

Sample Questions

Q1) The minor,but important,fluid that lubricates joints is

A)plasma.

B)lymph.

C)cerebrospinal fluid.

D)urine.

E)synovial fluid.

Q2) alkalosis

A)any substance that is foreign to the body and therefore causes an immune response

B)a protein molecule that identifies foreign substances and mediates certain immune responses

C)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is higher than normal and the pH is lower

D)fluid inside cells

E)fluid outside of cells,such as blood plasma or interstitial fluid

F)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is lower than normal and the pH is higher

Q3) Comment on the tertiary structure of the defensive proteins immunoglobulins and fibrin.Explain how the structure of each protein contributes to its function.

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