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Chemistry for Engineers provides a foundational understanding of key chemical principles and their practical relevance to engineering fields. The course covers atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, thermodynamics, and kinetics, with an emphasis on applications in material science, environmental engineering, and energy systems. Students learn to analyze chemical processes, interpret experimental data, and select appropriate materials for engineering solutions. Hands-on experiments and real-world case studies are integrated to bridge theoretical concepts with engineering practice, equipping students with the chemical knowledge necessary to address challenges in various engineering disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry The Central Science 13th Edition by Theodore E. Brown
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Sample Questions
Q1) The length of the side of a cube (in cm)having a volume of 44.4 L is ________.
A)875
B)35.4
C)6.66
D)66.6
E)0.354
Answer: B
Q2) The law of constant composition says ________.
A)that the composition of a compound is always the same
B)that all substances have the same composition
C)that the composition of an element is always the same
D)that the composition of a homogeneous mixture is always the same
E)that the composition of a heterogeneous mixture is always the same
Answer: A
Q3) The correct answer (reported to the proper number of significant figures)to the following is ________.
7.3 × 4.68 = ________
Answer: 34
Q4) Cu is the symbol for the element ________.
Answer: Copper
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following basic forces is so small that it has no chemical significance?
A)weak nuclear force
B)strong nuclear force
C)electromagnetism
D)gravity
E)Coulomb's law
Answer: D
Q2) The correct name for HIO<sub>2</sub> is ________.
A)hypoiodic acid
B)hydriodic acid
C)periodous acid
D)iodous acid
E)periodic acid
Answer: D
Q3) H<sub>2</sub>SeO<sub>4</sub> is called selenic acid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nitrogen oxide is 63.65% by mass nitrogen. The molecular formula could be
A)NO
B)NO<sub>2</sub>
C)N<sub>2</sub>O
D)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>
E)either NO<sub>2</sub> or N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>
Answer: C
Q2) A compound is composed of only C, H, and O. The combustion of a 0.519-g sample of the compound yields 1.24 g of CO<sub>2</sub> and 0.255 g of H<sub>2</sub>O. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O
B)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O
C)CH<sub>3</sub>O
D)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
E)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
Answer: B
Q3) Determine the mass percent (to the hundredths place)of C in sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO<sub>3</sub>).
Answer: 14.30

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Sample Questions
Q1) Ammonia is a strong base.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The balanced molecular equation for complete neutralization of H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> by KOH in aqueous solution is ________.
A)2H<sup>+</sup> (aq) + 2OH<sup>-</sup> (aq) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
B)2H<sup>+</sup> (aq) + 2KOH (aq) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l) + 2K<sup>+</sup> (aq)
C)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq) + 2OH<sup>- </sup>(aq) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l) + SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> (aq)
D)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4 </sub>(aq) + 2KOH (aq) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l) + K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4 </sub>(s)
E)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4 </sub>(aq) + 2KOH (aq) 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l) + K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4 </sub>(aq)
Q3) The compound HClO<sub>4</sub> is a weak acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many grams of NaOH (MW = 40.0)are there in 375.0 mL of a 0.325 M NaOH solution?
Q5) The solvent in an aqueous solution is ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average fuel value of sugars is 17 kJ/g. A 2.0 L pitcher of sweetened Kool-Aid® contains 400 g of sugar. What is the fuel value (in kJ)of a 500 mL serving of Kool-Aid®?
(Assume that the sugar is the only fuel source.)
A)4.2 × 10<sup>4</sup> kJ
B)1.7 × 10<sup>3</sup> kJ
C)1.7 × 10<sup>6</sup> kJ
D)1.7 × 10<sup>2</sup> kJ
E)17 kJ
Q2) Objects can possess energy as ________. (a)endothermic energy
(b)potential energy
(c)kinetic energy
A)a only
B)b only
C)c only
D)a and c
E)b and c
Q3) Renewable energy sources are essentially inexhaustible.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a valid set of four quantum numbers? (n, l, m<sub>l</sub>, m<sub>s</sub>)
A)2, 0, 0, +1/2
B)2, 1, 0, -1/2
C)3, 1, -1, -1/2
D)1, 0, 0, +1/2
E)1, 1, 0, +1/2
Q2) What is the wavelength (angstroms)of a photon that has an energy of 5.69 × 10<sup>-17</sup> J?
A)454 angstroms
B)34.9 angstroms
C)6.89 × 10<sup>15</sup> angstroms
D)3.66 × 10<sup>9</sup> angstroms
E)3.50 × 10<sup>-9</sup> angstroms
Q3) The symbol for the spin magnetic quantum number is ________.
A)m<sub>s</sub>
B)n
C)l
D)m<sub>l</sub>
E)sm
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonmetals can be ________ at room temperature.
A)solid, liquid, or gas
B)solid or liquid
C)solid only
D)liquid only
E)liquid or gas
Q2) What are the elements called that are located between the metals and nonmetals?
Q3) Sodium is much more apt to exist as a cation than is chlorine. This is because
A)chlorine is a gas and sodium is a solid
B)chlorine has a greater electron affinity than sodium does
C)chlorine is bigger than sodium
D)chlorine has a greater ionization energy than sodium does
E)chlorine is more metallic than sodium
Q4) Which one of the following atoms has the largest radius? A)In B)Sn

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Q1) A valid Lewis structure of ________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
A)NI<sub>3</sub>
B)SO<sub>2</sub>
C)ICl<sub>5</sub>
D)SiF<sub>4</sub>
E)CO<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Of the molecules below, the bond in ________ is the most polar.
A)HBr
B)HI
C)HCl
D)HF
E)H<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Most transition metals do not form ions with a noble gas configuration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a metal gains an electron, the process is endothermic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Draw the Lewis structure of ICl<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>.
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Q1) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-domain geometry of the central atom in ClO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> is ________.
A)linear
B)trigonal planar
C)tetrahedral
D)trigonal bipyramidal
E)octahedral
Q2) The N-N bond in HNNH consists of ________.
A)one bond and one bond
B)one bond and two bonds
C)two bonds and one bond
D)two bonds and two bonds
E)one bond and no bonds
Q3) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in CH<sub>4</sub> is ________.
A)linear
B)trigonal planar
C)tetrahedral
D)bent
E)trigonal pyramidal
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gas is considered "ideal" if one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure of exactly 1 atm at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 255 mL round-bottom flask is weighed and found to have a mass of 114.85 g. A few milliliters of an easily vaporized liquid are added to the flask and the flask is immersed in a boiling water bath. All of the liquid vaporizes at the boiling temperature of water, filling the flask with vapor. When all of the liquid has vaporized, the flask is removed from the bath, cooled, dried, and reweighed. The new mass of the flask and the condensed vapor is 115.23 g. Which of the following compounds could the liquid be? (Assume the ambient pressure is 1 atm.)
A)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
B)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>7</sub>OH
C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>OH
E)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>9</sub>OH
Q3) The rms speed of methane molecules at 45.0 °C is ________ m/sec.
Q4) How many molecules are there in 4.00 L of oxygen gas at 500 °C and 50.0 torr?
Q5) What is the density (in g/L)of oxygen gas at 77.0 °C and 700.0 torr?
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Q1) Of the following, ________ should have the highest critical temperature.
A)CBr<sub>4</sub>
B)CCl<sub>4</sub>
C)CF<sub>4</sub>
D)CH<sub>4</sub>
E)H<sub>2</sub>
Q2) What intermolecular force is responsible for the fact that ice is less dense than liquid water?
A)London dispersion forces
B)dipole-dipole forces
C)ion-dipole forces
D)hydrogen bonding
E)ionic bonding
Q3) What types of intermolecular forces exist between NH<sub>3</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>S?
A)dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces
B)dispersion forces
C)dispersion forces and hydrogen bonds
D)dispersion forces, hydrogen bonds, and dipole-dipole forces
E)dispersion forces, hydrogen bonds, and ion-dipole forces
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Q1) The ________ lattice is one of the seven primitive three-dimensional lattices in which the relationship between the lattice vectors a, b, and c can be written as: a b c
A)monoclinic
B)hexagonal
C)rhombohedral
D)tetragonal
E)cubic
Q2) When lattice points occur at the center of each face, as well as each corner of a unit cell, the cell is called ________.
Q3) The transition metals in group ________ have the highest melting points.
A)4B
B)3B
C)6B
D)8B
E)2B
Q4) Chromium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic unit cell. There are ________ chromium atoms per unit cell.
Q5) Semiconductors are less conductive than metals because of ________ gap.
Q6) Nylon is formed by the reaction of a(n)________ with a(n)________.
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Q1) The concentration of a benzene solution prepared by mixing 15.0 g C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub> with 38.0 g CCl<sub>4</sub> is ________ molal.
A)5.05
B)2.40
C)0.622
D)0.395
E)0.508
Q2) Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 20 grams of KCl and 2200.0 grams of water. The molal-freezing-point-depression constant (K<sub>f</sub>)for water is 1.86 °C/m.
A)-0.45 °C
B)+0.45 °C
C)-0.23 °C
D)+0.23 °C
E)1.23 °C
Q3) The formula weight of FeCl<sub>3</sub>6H<sub>2</sub>O is ________.
Q4) Emulsifying agents typically have a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elementary reactions involving the simultaneous collision of three molecules are
Q2) Consider the following reaction: A 2C
The average rate of appearance of C is given by [C]/ t. Comparing the rate of appearance of C and the rate of disappearance of A, we get [C]/ t = ________ × (- [A]/ t).
A)+2
B)-1
C)+1
D)+1/2
E)-1/2
Q3) The rate of disappearance of HBr in the gas phase reaction 2HBr (g) H<sub>2 </sub>(g) + Br<sub>2</sub> (g)
Is 0.190 M s<sup>-1</sup> at 150 °C. The rate of appearance of Br<sub>2</sub> is ________ M s<sup>-1</sup>.
A)2.63
B)0.095

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Q1) Which one of the following is true concerning the Haber process?
A)It is a process used for shifting equilibrium positions to the right for more economical chemical synthesis of a variety of substances.
B)It is a process used for the synthesis of ammonia.
C)It is another way of stating Le Châtelier's principle.
D)It is an industrial synthesis of sodium chloride that was discovered by Karl Haber.
E)It is a process for the synthesis of elemental chlorine.
Q2) The equilibrium-constant expression for a reaction written in one direction is the ________ of the one for the reaction written for the reverse direction.
Q3) The relationship between the concentrations of reactants and products of a system at equilibrium is given by the law of mass action.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If the value for the equilibrium constant is much greater than 1, then the equilibrium mixture contains mostly ________.
Q5) If Reaction A + Reaction B = Reaction C, then K<sub>c </sub>Reaction C =

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Q1) The molar concentration of hydronium ion in pure water at 25 °C is ________.
A)0.00
B)1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup>
C)1.0 × 10<sup>-14</sup>
D)1.00
E)7.00
Q2) Which one of the following is a Br nsted-Lowry acid?
A)(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>NH<sup>+</sup>
B)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
C)HF
D)HNO<sub>2</sub>
E)all of the above
Q3) Determine the pOH of a 0.10 M aqueous solution of KF. For hydrofluoric acid, K<sub>a</sub> = 7.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup>.
A)1.00
B)5.92
C)8.08
D)5.01
E)1.58
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Q1) In which of the following aqueous solutions would you expect AgF to have the lowest solubility?
A)0.030 M LiF
B)pure water
C)0.023 M NaF
D)0.015 M KF
E)0.0075 M AgNO<sub>3</sub>
Q2) The solubility of a slightly soluble salt is decreased by the presence of a second solute that provides a common ion to the system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A 25.0 mL sample of a solution of a monoprotic acid is titrated with a 0.115 M NaOH solution. The titration curve above was obtained. Which of the following indicators would be best for this titration?
A)methyl red
B)bromthymol blue
C)thymol blue
D)phenolpthalein
E)bromocresol purple
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Q1) The concept that radiowave propagation was affected by the atmosphere of the earth was discovered by ________.
Q2) Which of the following is not released by the combustion of fossil fuels?
A)CO<sub>2</sub>
B)SO<sub>2</sub>
C)CH<sub>4</sub>
D)NO
E)O<sub>3</sub>
Q3) Components of Air Mole Fraction Nitrogen 0.781
Oxygen 0.209
Argon 0.010
What is the partial pressure or nitrogen (in torr)in the atmosphere when the atmospheric pressure is 760.0 torr?
A)159
B)594
C)611
D)7.60
E)760
Q4) The primary chemical pollutants that create acid rain are ________ dioxide and ________ oxides.
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Q1) The entropy of the universe is ________.
A)constant
B)continually decreasing
C)continually increasing
D)zero
E)the same as the energy, E
Q2) The value of S° for the catalytic hydrogenation of acetylene to ethene, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> (g) + H<sub>2</sub> (g) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub> (g)
Is ________ J/K mol.
A)+18.6
B)+550.8
C)+112.0
D)-112.0
E)-18.6
Q3) Which reaction produces a decrease in the entropy of the system?
A)4 NH<sub>3</sub> (g) + 5 O<sub>2</sub> (g) 4 NO (g) + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O (g)
B)Na (s) + 1/2 Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) NaCl (s)
C)2 HgO (s) 2 Hg (l) + O<sub>2</sub> (g)
D)UF<sub>6 </sub>(s) U (s) + 3F<sub>2</sub> (g)
E)H<sub>2</sub>O (s) H<sub>2</sub>O (g)
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Q1) What is the oxidation number of potassium in KMnO<sub>4</sub>?
A)0
B)+1
C)+2
D)-1
E)+3
Q2) How many minutes will it take to plate out 16.22 g of Al metal from a solution of Al<sup>3+</sup> using a current of 14.6 amps in an electrolytic cell?
A)53.0
B)66.2
C)153
D)199
E)11900
Q3) The gain of electrons by an element is called ________.
A)reduction
B)oxidation
C)disproportionation
D)fractionation
E)sublimation
Q4) The major product of a hydrogen fuel cell is ________.
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Q1) Strontium-90 is a byproduct in nuclear reactors fueled by the radioisotope uranium-235. The half-life of strontium-90 is 28.8 yr. What percentage of a strontium-90 sample remains after 175.0 yr?
A)84.8
B)1.48
C)0.230
D)16.5
E)6.08
Q2) What drives the turbine in a nuclear power plant?
A)the moderator
B)steam
C)the control rods
D)the primary coolant
E)UF<sub>6</sub> gas
Q3) List the common particles and their symbols used in descriptions of radioactive decay and nuclear transformations.
Q4) The major type of cancer caused by radiation is ________.
Q5) What was the purpose of the Manhattan project?
Q6) The first nuclear transmutation resulted in the conversion of nitrogen-14 to
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Q1) Which pair of formula/name is incorrect?
A)NO<sub>2</sub> / dinitrogen oxide
B)N<sub>2</sub>O / nitrous oxide
C)NO / nitric oxide
D)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub> / dinitrogen tetroxide
E)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> / dinitrogen pentoxide
Q2) The Haber process is used to make ________ from ________.
A)HNO<sub>3</sub>, N<sub>2</sub>
B)O<sub>2</sub>, KClO<sub>3</sub>
C)NH<sub>3</sub>, N<sub>2</sub>
D)NO<sub>2</sub>, O<sub>2</sub>
E)NO, N<sub>2</sub>
Q3) The two allotropic forms of phosphorus are ________ and ________.
A)black, red
B)white, black
C)white, yellow
D)white, red
E)black, yellow
Q4) What halogen, other than astatine, is not usually found in seawater?
Q5) Explain why HF (aq)is a relatively weak acid compared to other hydrohalic acids.
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Q1) How does an elevated body temperature deprive some bacteria in the body of iron?
Q2) Which one of the following is the correct formula for pentaamminechlorocobalt (III)chloride?
A)[Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>5</sub>Cl]Cl<sub>2</sub>
B)[Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub>Cl]Cl<sub>2 </sub>
C)[Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>Cl]Cl<sub>2</sub>
D)[Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>5</sub>]Cl<sub>4 </sub>
E)[Cl(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>5</sub>Co]Co<sub>2</sub>
Q3) What is the oxidation state of iron in K<sub>3</sub>[Fe(CN)<sub>6</sub>]?
A)0
B)+2
C)+3
D)+4
E)+6
Q4) Which of the following can form both high- and low-spin octahedral complexes?
A)Ru<sup>2+</sup>
B)Cr<sup>3+</sup>
C)Cr<sup>4+</sup>
D)Zr
E)Ag<sup>+</sup>
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Q1) The hydrolysis of an ester in the presence of a base is called ________.
Q2) Starch, glycogen, and cellulose are made of repeating units of ________.
A)lactose
B)glucose
C)fructose
D)sucrose
E)amino acids
Q3) How many chiral carbon atoms does the neopentane (2, 2dimethylpropane)have?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
E)4
Q4) Which one of the following could be a straight-chain alkene?
A)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
B)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>5</sub>
C)C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>9</sub>
D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8 </sub>
E)C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>22</sub>
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