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Chemistry for Engineers is an essential course designed to provide engineering students with a foundational understanding of chemical principles and their practical applications in engineering contexts. The course covers fundamental concepts including atomic structure, chemical bonding, thermodynamics, kinetics, electrochemistry, materials chemistry, and environmental aspects of chemistry. Emphasis is placed on real-world examples and problem-solving related to materials selection, corrosion, reaction engineering, and energy conversion. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students gain the knowledge and skills necessary to integrate chemical concepts into the design, operation, and analysis of engineering systems.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry The Molecular Nature of Matter and Change 7th Edition by Silberberg
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Q1) Select the best statement about chemistry before 1800.
A) Alchemy focused on objective experimentation rather than mystical explanations of processes.
B) The phlogiston theory laid a valuable theoretical basis for modern chemistry.
C) Lavoisier's quantitative work on the role of oxygen in combustion was the beginning of modern chemistry.
D) The interpretation of data by alchemists was not biased by their overall view of life.
E) Alchemists failed because they did not develop any practical chemical methods.
Answer: C
Q2) The speed needed to escape the pull of Earth<sup>'</sup>s gravity is 11.3 km/s. What is this speed in mi/h?
A) 65,500 mi/h
B) 25,300 mi/h
C) 18,200 mi/h
D) 1,090 mi/h
E) 5.02 × 10<sup>-3 </sup>mi/h
Answer: A
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Q1) Sodium peroxide is an oxidizer used to bleach animal and vegetable fibers. What is its formula?
A) NaO
B) NaO<sub>2</sub>
C) Na<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
D) Na<sub>2</sub>O
E) NaH<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
Answer: C
Q2) Zinc acetate is used in preserving wood and in manufacturing glazes for porcelain. What is its formula?
A) ZnAc<sub>2</sub>
B) ZnCH<sub>3</sub>COO
C) Zn(CH<sub>3</sub>COO)<sub>2</sub>
D) Zn<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>COO
E) ZnCH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub>
Answer: C
Q3) Copper (Cu) is a transition metal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Hydroxylamine hydrochloride is a powerful reducing agent which is used as a polymerization catalyst. It contains 5.80 mass % H, 20.16 mass % N, 23.02 mass % O, and 51.02 mass % Cl. What is its empirical formula?
A) H<sub>2</sub>N<sub>7</sub>O<sub>8</sub>Cl<sub>18</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>Cl
C) HN<sub>3</sub>O<sub>4</sub>Cl<sub>9</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>NOCl
E) H<sub>4</sub>NOCl<sub>2</sub>
Answer: D
Q2) Determine the percent composition of potassium dichromate, K<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>.
A) 17.5% K, 46.6% Cr, 35.9% O
B) 29.8% K, 39.7% Cr, 30.5% O
C) 36.5% K, 48.6% Cr, 14.9% O
D) 37.2% K, 24.7% Cr, 38.1% O
E) none of the above
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following is a strong acid?
A) H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
B) HNO<sub>3</sub>
C) HF
D) CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
E) H<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) Select the classification for the following reaction. KOH(aq) + HCl(aq) \(\to\) KCl(aq) + H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
A) precipitation
B) acid-base
C) redox
D) combination
E) none of the above
Q3) Which one of the following ionic compounds is soluble in water?
A) Na<sub>2</sub>S
B) PbI<sub>2</sub>
C) AgCl
D) CuS
E) Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
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Q1) If the molecular mass of a gas increases by a factor of 4 at constant temperature, its rms speed will
A) decrease by a factor of 4.
B) increase by a factor of 4.
C) decrease by a factor of 16.
D) increase by a factor of 16.
E) decrease by a factor of 2.
Q2) A sample container of carbon monoxide occupies a volume of 435 mL at a pressure of 785 torr and a temperature of 298 K. What would its temperature be if the volume were changed to 265 mL at a pressure of 785 torr?
A) 182 K
B) 298 K
C) 387 K
D) 489 K
E) 538 K
Q3) Aluminum metal shavings (10.0 g) are placed in 100. mL of 6.00 M hydrochloric acid. What is the maximum volume of hydrogen, measured at STP, which can be produced? 2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) \(\to\) 2AlCl<sub>3</sub>(aq) + 3H<sub>2</sub>(g)
Q4) Calculate the density in g/L of gaseous SF<sub>6</sub> at 50.0°C and 650. torr.
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Q1) Sand is converted to pure silicon in a three step process. The third step is SiCl<sub>4</sub>(g) + 2Mg(s) \(\to\) 2MgCl<sub>2</sub>(s) + Si(s) \(\Delta\)H = -625.6 kJ
What is the enthalpy change when 25.0 mol of silicon tetrachloride is converted to elemental silicon?
A) -25.0 kJ
B) -7820 kJ
C) -1.56 × 10<sup>4</sup> kJ
D) -3.13 × 10<sup>4 </sup>kJ
E) none of the above
Q2) Galena is the ore from which elemental lead is extracted. In the first step of the extraction process, galena is heated in air to form lead(II) oxide. 2PbS(s) + 3O<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\to\)2SO<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\Delta\)H = -827.4 kJ
What mass of galena is converted to lead oxide if 975 kJ of heat are liberated?
A) 203 g
B) 282 g
C) 406 g
D) 478 g
E) 564 g
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Q1) The Rydberg equation is an example of an empirical equation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As the frequency of electromagnetic radiation increases, its wavelength also increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Interference of light waves
A) separates light into its component colors.
B) creates a pattern of light and dark regions.
C) focuses a broad beam of light into a point.
D) bends light as it passes the edge of an object.
E) creates a laser beam.
Q4) Which scientist demonstrated that photons transferred momentum during collisions with matter?
A) Bohr
B) de Broglie
C) Planck
D) Compton
E) Billiard

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Q1) Elements in which the outermost electron has the same principal quantum number n, show similar chemical properties.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the correct order of decreasing size of the following ions?
A) P<sup>3- </sup>> Cl<sup>- </sup>> K<sup>+ </sup>> Ca<sup>2+</sup>
B) Ca<sup>2+</sup> > K<sup>+</sup> > Cl<sup>-</sup> > P<sup>3-</sup>
C) K<sup>+</sup> > Cl<sup>- </sup>> Ca<sup>2+</sup> > P<sup>3-</sup>
D) K<sup>+ </sup>> Cl<sup>-</sup> > P<sup>3- </sup>> Ca<sup>2+</sup>
E) None of the above is correct.
Q3) How many valence electrons are there in an atom with the electron configuration [noble gas]ns<sup>2</sup>(n - 1)d<sup>8</sup>?
A) 2
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
E) none of the above
Q4) State Hund's rule, and show how it applies to the ground state of phosphorus atoms.
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Q1) Most of the copper sold in major metal markets is highly purified, typically to 99.99%. Why is this?
Q2) Describe in brief how electronegativity values can be used to predict the percent ionic character of a bond between two atoms.
Q3) The majority of elements are good electrical conductors when in solid form.
A)True B)False
Q4) When two atoms form a covalently-bonded diatomic molecule, the distance between the nuclei at which the potential energy is at a minimum is called A) the bond energy.
B) the bond length.
C) the molecular diameter.
D) the covalent radius.
E) the covalent diameter.
Q5) The lattice energy of large ions is greater in magnitude than that of small ions of the same charge.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Predict the ideal bond angles in AsCl<sub>3 </sub>using the molecular shape given by the VSEPR theory.
A) 90°
B) 109°
C) 120°
D) 180°
E) between 110 and 120°
Q2) Draw the Lewis structure of XeF<sub>4</sub>. Use this structure, in conjunction with VSEPR theory, to predict the shape of this molecule. Outline your reasoning.
Q3) What is the molecular shape of ClF<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup><sub> </sub>as predicted by the VSEPR theory?
A) square pyramidal
B) square planar
C) see-saw
D) octahedral
E) tetrahedral
Q4) Explain what is meant by "dipole moment", and give an example of a molecule which has polar bonds but which does not itself have a dipole moment.
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Q1) One can safely assume that the 3s- and 3p-orbitals will form molecular orbitals similar to those formed when 2s- and 2p-orbitals interact. According to molecular orbital theory, what will be the bond order for the Cl<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup> ion?
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 1.5
D) 2
E) none of the above
Q2) What type of hybridization is needed to explain why ethyne, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>, is linear?
Q3) Valence bond theory predicts that xenon will use _____ hybrid orbitals in XeOF<sub>4</sub>.
A) sp
B) sp<sup>2</sup>
C) sp<sup>3</sup>
D) sp<sup>3</sup>d
E) sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>
Q4) In not more than two sentences, explain when and why chemists make use of the concept of hybridization.
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Q1) A sample of octane in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed 1.0-L container has a vapor pressure of 50.0 torr at 45°C. The container's volume is increased to 2.0 L at constant temperature and the liquid/vapor equilibrium is reestablished. What is the vapor pressure?
A) > 50.0 torr
B) 50.0 torr
C) 25.0 torr
D) The mass of the octane vapor is needed to calculate the vapor pressure.
E) The external pressure is needed to calculate the vapor pressure.
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the resistance of a liquid to flow?
A) surface tension
B) capillary action
C) viscosity
D) adhesion
E) cohesion
Q3) Ceramic superconductors often contain copper in unusual oxidation states.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do the electrical properties of semiconductors differ from those of metals?
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Q1) Raoult's Law relates the vapor pressure of the solvent above the solution to its mole fraction in the solution. Which of the following is an accurate statement?
A) Raoult's Law applies exactly to all solutions.
B) Raoult's Law works best when applied to concentrated solutions.
C) Raoult's Law works best when applied to dilute solutions.
D) Raoult's Law applies only to non-ideal solutions.
E) None of the above statements is accurate.
Q2) Which of the following sets of conditions could exist when two liquids which are completely miscible in one another are mixed?
A) .\(\Delta\)H<sub>soln</sub> > 0, entropy of system decreases
B) .\(\Delta\)H<sub>soln</sub> \(\approx\) 0, entropy of system decreases
C) .\(\Delta\)H<sub>soln</sub> \(\approx\) 0, entropy change of system \(\approx\) 0
D) .\(\Delta\)H<sub>soln</sub> \(\approx\) 0, entropy of system increases E) none of the above
Q3) A 50.0 % (w/w) solution of sulfuric acid (H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>) in water has a density of 1.395 g/mL. What is its molarity?
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Q1) Predict the molecular shape of XeF<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>.
A) linear
B) trigonal planar
C) trigonal pyramid
D) T-shaped
E) square
Q2) Bromine will form compounds with each of the other elements in Period 4 of the periodic table. How does the type of bonding in the compounds change as one moves from potassium bromide to selenium bromide?
A) ionic to polar covalent
B) polar covalent to ionic
C) polar covalent to non-polar covalent
D) coordinate covalent to polar covalent
E) none of the above
Q3) Potassium nitrate is a strong reducing agent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Haber process is the first step in the manufacture of sulfuric acid.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Dacron is a ___________ compound and is produced by a __________ reaction.
A) polyamide; addition
B) polyamide; condensation
C) polyester; addition
D) polyester; condensation
E) polyene; addition
Q2) A characteristic reaction of alkanes is addition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Select the correct type for the following reaction. CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH + HBr \(\to\) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>Br + H<sub>2</sub>O
A) dehydration
B) dehydroxylation
C) addition
D) elimination
E) substitution
Q4) Explain how a disulfide bridge can arise a protein molecule.
Page 17
Q5) Name the three component parts of a nucleotide.
Q6) Draw and name two non-alkenes with the formula C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>.
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Q1) Tetrafluoroethylene, C<sub>2</sub>F<sub>4</sub>, can be converted to octafluorocyclobutane which can be used as a refrigerant or an aerosol propellant. A plot of 1/[C<sub>2</sub>F<sub>4</sub>] vs. time gives a straight line with a slope of 0.0448 L mol<sup>-1</sup>s<sup>-1</sup>. What is the rate law for this reaction?
A) Rate = 0.0448 (L mol<sup>-1</sup>s<sup>-1</sup>)[C<sub>2</sub>F<sub>4</sub>]
B) Rate = 22.3 (mol L<sup>-1</sup>s)[C<sub>2</sub>F<sub>4</sub>]
C) Rate = 0.0448 (L mol<sup>-1</sup>s<sup>-1</sup>)[C<sub>2</sub>F<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2</sup>
D) Rate = 22.3 (mol L<sup>-1</sup>s)[C<sub>2</sub>F<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2</sup>
E) Rate = 0.0448 s<sup>-1</sup> [C<sub>2</sub>F<sub>4</sub>]
Q2) An increase in temperature increases the reaction rate because
A) a greater fraction of the collisions have the correct orientation of molecules. B) the activation energy of the reaction will increase. C) the activation energy of the reaction will decrease.
D) temperature acts as a catalyst in chemical reactions.
E) more collisions will have enough energy to exceed the activation energy.
Q3) Briefly list the features/properties common to all catalysts and how they work. Draw a labeled reaction energy diagram as part of your answer.
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Q1) Unless \(\Delta\)H°<sub>rxn</sub> = 0, a change in temperature will affect the value of the equilibrium constant K<sub>c</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The two equilibrium constants for the same reaction, K<sub>c</sub> and K<sub>p</sub>, will always equal one another when
A) all of the reactants and products are gases.
B) in the reaction equation, the number of moles of gaseous products equals the number of moles of gaseous reactants.
C) in the reaction equation, the number of moles of gaseous products is greater than the number of moles of gaseous reactants.
D) in the reaction equation, the number of moles of gaseous products is smaller than the number of moles of gaseous reactants.
E) in the reaction equation, the total number of moles of reactants equals that of the products.
Q3) For some gas-phase reactions, K<sub>p</sub> = K<sub>c</sub>.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A 1.25 M solution of the weak acid HA is 9.2% dissociated. What is the pH of the solution?
A) 0.64
B) 0.94
C) 1.13
D) 2.16
E) none of the above
Q2) The ammonium ion, NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>, is a weak acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The substance Ba(OH)<sub>2 </sub>is considered
A) a weak Arrhenius acid.
B) a weak Arrhenius base.
C) a strong Arrhenius acid.
D) a strong Arrhenius base.
E) a neutral compound.
Q4) Define an acid according to the Arrhenius theory, and write a balanced equation to support this definition.
Q5) Describe what is meant by the "leveling effect". Use a real acid as an example, and write an appropriate equation.
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Q1) Calculate the solubility of silver oxalate, Ag<sub>2</sub>C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>, in pure water. K<sub>sp</sub> = 1.0 × 10<sup>-11</sup>
A) 1.4 × 10<sup>-4 </sup>M
B) 8.2 × 10<sup>-5 </sup>M
C) 5.4 × 10<sup>-5 </sup>M
D) 3.2 × 10<sup>-6 </sup>M
E) 2.5 × 10<sup>-12 </sup>M
Q2) What is the maximum mass of KCl that can be added to1.0 L of a 0.010 M lead(II) chloride solution without causing any precipitation of lead(II) chloride? Assume that addition of KCl does not affect the solution volume. For lead(II) chloride, K<sub>sp</sub> = 1.6 × 10<sup>-5 </sup>.
A) 3.0 g
B) 1.5 g
C) 0.8 g
D) 1.0 g
E) 0.2 g
Q3) Make a clear distinction between buffer range and buffer capacity.
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Q1) Hydrogen sulfide decomposes according to the following reaction 2H<sub>2</sub>S(g) \(\to\) 2H<sub>2</sub>(g) + S<sub>2</sub>(g)
For this reaction at 298K \(\Delta\)S°<sup> </sup><sub> </sub>= 78.1 J/K, \(\Delta\)H°<sup> </sup><sub> </sub>= 169.4 kJ, and \(\Delta\)G° = 146.1 kJ. What is the value of \(\Delta\)G° at 900 K?
A) -69881 kJ
B) 48.4 kJ
C) 99.1 kJ
D) 240 kJ
E) 441 kJ
Q2) A chemical reaction has \(\Delta\)G° = 10.0 kJ and \(\Delta\)S° = 50.0 J/K
a. Calculate \(\Delta\)H°<sup> </sup>for this reaction at 25°C.
b. Could this reaction ever be spontaneous? Explain your answer.
Q3) For the reaction of xenon and fluorine gases to form solid XeF<sub>4</sub>, \(\Delta\)H° = -251 kJ and \(\Delta\)G° = -121 kJ at 25°C. Calculate \(\Delta\)S° for the reaction.
Q4) The free energy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero, is zero.
A)True
B)False
Q5) State the second and third laws of thermodynamics.
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Q1) In the shorthand notation for cells, a double vertical line is used to separate the reduced and oxidized forms of a redox couple.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A concentration cell consists of two Zn/Zn<sup>2+</sup> electrodes. The electrolyte in compartment A is 0.10 M Zn(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2 </sub>and in compartment B is 0.60 M Zn(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>. What is the voltage of the cell at 25°C?
A) 0.010 V
B) 0.020 V
C) 0.023 V
D) 0.046 V
E) none of the above
Q3) Which of the following solids is commonly used as an inactive electrode in electrochemical cells?
A) zinc
B) graphite
C) copper
D) iron
E) sodium

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Q1) In the industrial electrolysis of aqueous NaCl (the chlor-alkali process), the modern trend is toward the use of cells incorporating polymer membranes to separate the anode and cathode solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sulfur trioxide is the anhydride of sulfuric acid. However, SO<sub>3 </sub>is not added directly to water during the synthesis of sulfuric acid because A) hydration of SO<sub>3 </sub>is very exothermic and difficult to control.
B) hydration of SO<sub>3 </sub>is very endothermic and proceeds too slowly to be profitable.
C) at high temperatures water vapor catalyzes polymerization of SO<sub>3</sub>.
D) vapor phase sulfuric acid is corrosive and limits the useful life of the reactor.
E) the water would decompose under such conditions.
Q3) Briefly describe the three main pathways for nitrogen fixation.
Q4) Give two important reasons why there is so much more Na<sup>+</sup> in the oceans than K<sup>+</sup>, despite their similar abundances in the earth's crust.
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Q1) What is the coordination number of cobalt in the complex ion [Co(en)Cl<sub>4</sub>]<sup>-</sup>? (en = ethylenediamine)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
Q2) The Cu<sup>2+</sup> ion has 1 unpaired electron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following ions could exist in only the high-spin state in an octahedral complex?
A) Cr<sup>2+</sup>
B) Mn<sup>4+</sup>
C) Fe<sup>3+</sup>
D) Co<sup>3+</sup>
E) Ni<sup>2+</sup>
Q4) All the actinide series of transition elements are radioactive.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When an electron and its anti-particle, a positron, collide, they annihilate each other. Calculate the energy released in this process, in J. (The positron mass is the same as the electron mass, namely 9.11 × 10<sup>-31</sup> kg.)
Q2) Write a complete, balanced equation to represent the electron capture decay of argon-37.
Q3) An 85-kg person exposed to barium-141 receives 2.5 × 10<sup>5</sup> \(\beta\) particles, each with an energy of 5.2 × 10<sup>-13</sup> J. How many rads does the person receive?
A) 2.4 × 10<sup>-20</sup>
B) 1.5 × 10<sup>-7</sup>
C) 1.8 × 10<sup>-16</sup>
D) 6.1 × 10<sup>-15</sup>
E) none of the above
Q4) What is the mechanism by which control rods slow down the fission rate in a nuclear reactor?
Q5) Explain how the number of protons and neutrons in a radioactive nucleus can be used to predict its probable mode of decay. Illustrate your answer with a schematic graph, properly labeled, showing stable nuclides (nuclei) in relation to number of protons and neutrons.
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