

Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
This course introduces the fundamental principles of chemistry with an emphasis on concepts and applications relevant to engineering. Topics include atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, and electrochemistry. Students will explore how chemical processes and properties influence material selection, technological advancements, and environmental considerations in various engineering fields. Laboratory sessions and problem-solving exercises are integrated to develop practical skills and analytical reasoning necessary for addressing real-world challenges faced by engineers.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry A Molecular Approach 1st Canadian Ediiton by Nivaldo J. Tro
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25 Chapters
3326 Verified Questions
3326 Flashcards
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179 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the phases of matter is TRUE?
A)In both solids and liquids, the atoms or molecules pack closely to one another.
B)Solids are highly compressible.
C)Gaseous substances have long-range repeating order.
D)There is only one type of geometric arrangement that the atoms or molecules in any solid can adopt.
E)Liquids have a large portion of empty volume between molecules.
Answer: A
Q2) Convert 4 m to metres.
A)4 × 10<sup>-9</sup> m
B)4 × 10<sup>-6</sup> m
C)4 × 10<sup>-3</sup> m
D)4 × 10<sup>6</sup> m
Answer: B
Q3) A flash drive contains 4 gigabytes. How many bytes does it contain?
Answer: 4 000 000 000 bytes, or 4 292 967 296 bytes if you are is computer literate
Q4) 38.325 lbs = ________ grams. (1 lb = 454 g)
Answer: 17400

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a metal?
A)Poor conductor of heat
B)Good conductor of electricity
C)Tends to gain electrons
D)Forms ionic compounds with group 18 elements
E)Found on the upper right corner of the periodic table
Answer: B
Q2) How many atoms are in 1.00 kg of copper?
A)3.83 × 10<sup>29</sup> atoms
B)3.83 × 10<sup>22</sup> atoms
C)15.74 atoms
D)2.61 × 10<sup>-23</sup> atoms
E)9.48 × 10<sup>24</sup> atoms
Answer: E
Q3) Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na.
Answer: sodium
Q4) Why do elements in the same group tend to have similar chemical properties?
Answer: Since elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons (similar electron configurations)they tend to have similar chemical reactivity because chemical reactions typically involve valence electrons.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 0.80 g of methane reacts with 3.2 g of oxygen to produce 2.2 g of carbon dioxide?
A)1.8 g
B)2.2 g
C)3.7 g
D)4.0 g
Answer: A
Q2) Calculate the molar mass of Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>.
A)87.05 g mol<sup>-1</sup>
B)215.21 g mol<sup>-1</sup>
C)310.18 g mol<sup>-1</sup>
D)279.21 g mol<sup>-1</sup>
E)246.18 g mol<sup>-1</sup>
Answer: C
Q3) Determine the mass percent (to the hundredths place)of H in sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO<sub>3</sub>).
Answer: 1.20
Q4) Define empirical formula.
Answer: An empirical formula gives relative numbers of atoms of each element.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determine the concentration of a solution prepared by diluting 20.0 mL of 0.200 mol L<sup>-1</sup> NaCl to 250.0 mL.
A)0.160 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
B)0.0320 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
C)2.50 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
D)0.00800 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
E)0.0160 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? _____ C<sub> </sub>H<sub>4</sub>O(l)+ _____ O<sub>2</sub>(g) _____ CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ _____ H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
A)9
B)7
C)5
D)3
Q3) Which of the following compounds is an Arrhenius base?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
B)HOCl
C)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
D)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>5</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determine the density of O<sub>3</sub> gas at 341 K and 2.14 bar.
A)3.62 g L<sup>-1</sup>
B)2.91 g L<sup>-1</sup>
C)0.321 g L<sup>-1</sup>
D)4.82 g L<sup>-1</sup>
E)3.17 g L<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) What pressure (in bar)will 0.44 moles of CO<sub>2</sub> exert in a 2.6 L container at 25 °C?
A)0.35 bar
B)4.2 bar
C)4.7 bar
D)8.6 bar
E)3.6 bar
Q3) How many moles of CO are contained in a 5.00 L tank at 155 °C and 2.80 bar?
A)0.393 moles
B)1.10 moles
C)2.51 moles
D)0.455 moles
E)0.289 moles
Q4) Define pressure.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify an energy source that is NOT renewable.
A)solar
B)hydroelectric
C)coal
D)wind
E)sun
Q2) Choose the thermochemical equation that illustrates <sub>f</sub>H° for Li<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>.
A)2Li<sup>+</sup>(aq)+
Li<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(aq)

SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)
B)2Li(s)+ 1/8 S<sub>8</sub>(s, rhombic)+
2O<sub>2</sub>(g) Li<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(s)
C)Li<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(aq)
2Li<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)
D)8Li<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(s) 16Li(s)+ S<sub>8</sub>(s, rhombic)+ 16O<sub>2</sub>(g)
E)16Li(s)+ S<sub>8</sub>(s, rhombic)+ 16O<sub>2</sub>(g) 8Li<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(s)
Q3) Define chemical energy.
Q4) Give the temperature and pressure for the standard state for a liquid.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only two electrons, with opposing spins, are allowed in each orbital. What is this known as?
A)Pauli exclusion principle
B)Hund's rule
C)aufbau principle
D)Heisenberg uncertainty principle
Q2) What is the maximum number of p orbitals that are possible?
A)1
B)3
C)7
D)5
E)9
Q3) Define constructive interference.
Q4) How many of the following species are paramagnetic? Sc<sup>3</sup> Br Mg<sup>2 </sup> Se
A)0
B)2
C)1
D)4
E)3
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the noble gas that has the highest ionization energy.
Q2) Using the periodic table, identify the element with the following exception electron configuration: [Ar]4s<sup>1</sup>3d<sup>5</sup>
A)Ni
B)Co
C)Cr
D)Mn
E)Fe
Q3) Which ionization process requires the most energy?
A)W(g) W<sup>+</sup>(g)+ e<sup>-</sup>
B)W<sup>+</sup>(g) W<sup>2+</sup>(g)+ e<sup>-</sup>
C)W<sup>2+</sup>(g) W<sup>3+</sup>(g)+ e<sup>-</sup>
D)W<sup>3+</sup>(g) W<sup>4+</sup>(g)+ e<sup>-</sup>
Q4) Which element has the highest first electron affinity?
A)Na
B)Mg
C)O
D)Ne
Q5) Why does the size of the transition elements stay roughly the same as you move across a period?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use the bond energies provided to estimate <sub>r</sub>H° for the reaction below.
XeF<sub>2 + </sub>2F<sub>2</sub> XeF<sub>6</sub> <sub>r</sub>H°<sub> </sub>= ?
Bond Bond Energy (kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>)
Xe-F 147
F-F 159
A)-429 kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
B)+159 kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
C)-660 kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
D)+176 kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
E)-270 kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) Identify the compound with covalent bonding.
A)NaCl
B)Li
C)H<sub>2</sub>O
D)He
E)S
Q3) Define formal charge.
Q4) List the most electronegative atom.
Q5) How are electron affinity and electronegativity different?
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many of the following molecules are polar?
XeO<sub>2</sub> SiCl<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub> C<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub> SeCl<sub>6</sub>
A)1
B)4
C)2
D)3
E)0
Q2) What is the molecular geometry of NCl<sub>3</sub>?
A)T-shaped
B)tetrahedral
C)trigonal planar
D)trigonal pyramidal
Q3) Draw the Lewis structure for BrF<sub>5</sub>. What is the hybridization on the Br atom?
A)sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>
B)sp<sup>3</sup>d
C)sp<sup>3</sup>
D)sp<sup>2</sup>
E)sp
Q4) Explain why oil and water do not mix.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the difference between the conduction band and the valence band.
Q2) Why is water an extraordinary substance?
A)Water has a low molar mass, yet it is a liquid at room temperature.
B)Water is the main solvent within living organisms.
C)Water has an exceptionally high specific heat capacity.
D)Water has strong hydrogen bonding.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following substances should have the highest melting point?
A)CO<sub>2</sub>
B)SrS
C)Xe
D)F<sub>2</sub>
E)MgO
Q4) Identify the type of solid for argon.
A)metallic atomic solid
B)ionic solid
C)nonbonding atomic solid
D)molecular solid
E)networking atomic solid
Q5) Define viscosity.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the van't Hoff factor for MgCl<sub>2</sub> is less than its predicted value.
Q2) Calculate the total solution volume required to produce an osmotic pressure of 4.87 mbar using 8.21 mg of a protein with a molar mass of 4450 g mol<sup>-1</sup> at 25.0 °C.
A)10.6 mL
B)4.79 mL
C)12.3 mL
D)9.39 mL
E)8.00 mL
Q3) What is the mole fraction of ethanol in a solution made by dissolving 29.2 g of ethanol, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>OH, in 53.6 g of water?
A)0.176
B)0.213
C)0.352
D)0.545
Q4) Explain why water does not dissolve in gasoline.
Q5) Give the preparation of rock candy.
Q6) Define the Tyndall effect.
Q7) Define a colloid.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first-order decay of radon has a half-life of 3.823 days. How many grams of radon decomposes after 5.55 days if the sample initially weighs 100.0 grams?
A)83.4 g
B)16.6 g
C)50.0 g
D)36.6 g
E)63.4 g
Q2) The combustion of ethylene proceeds by the reaction C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>(g)+ 3O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 2H<sub>2</sub>O(g)
When the rate of disappearance of O<sub>2</sub> is 0.23 mol L<sup>-1</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>, the rate of disappearance of C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub> is ________ mol L<sup>-1</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>.
A)0.15
B)0.077
C)0.69
D)0.35
E)0.46
Q3) Define the frequency factor.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the following reaction: 2H<sub>2</sub>O(g)+ 2SO<sub>2</sub>(g) 2H<sub>2</sub>S(g)+ 3O<sub>2</sub>(g)
A reaction mixture initially contains 2.8 mol L<sup>-1</sup> H<sub>2</sub>O and 2.6 mol L<sup>-1</sup> SO<sub>2</sub>. Determine the equilibrium concentration of H<sub>2</sub>S if K<sub>c</sub> for the reaction at this temperature is 1.3 × 10<sup>-6 </sup>mol L<sup>-1</sup>.
A)0.045 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
B)0.058 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
C)0.028 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
D)3.1 × 10<sup>-3</sup> mol L<sup>-1</sup>
E)0.12 mol L<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) For the following reaction, what is n required in the conversion of K<sub>c</sub> to K<sub>p</sub>? N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(g) 2NO<sub>2</sub>(g)

Q3) Why is a thermodynamic equilibrium constant unitless?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an Arrhenius base?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
B)NaOH
C)CH<sub>3</sub>OH
D)LiCl
E)H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Which of the following is the acid found in our stomachs?
A)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
B)HI
C)HCl
D)HF
E)HBr
Q3) Determine the pH of a 0.18 mol L<sup>-1</sup> H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> solution. Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid whose K<sub>a1</sub> = 4.3 × 10<sup>-7</sup> and K<sub>a2</sub> = 5.6 × 10<sup>-11</sup>.
A)11.00
B)10.44
C)5.50
D)4.31
E)3.56
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Sample Questions
Q1) When titrating a weak monoprotic acid with NaOH at 25 °C, the A)pH will be less than 7 at the equivalence point.
B)pH will be equal to 7 at the equivalence point.
C)pH will be greater than 7 at the equivalence point.
D)titration will require more moles of base than acid to reach the equivalence point.
E)titration will require more moles of acid than base to reach the equivalence point.
Q2) What is the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 25.00 mL of 0.10 mol L<sup>-1</sup> CH<sub>3</sub>COOH with 25.00 mL of 0.010 mol L<sup>-1</sup> CH<sub>3</sub>COONa? Assume that the volume of the solutions are additive and that K<sub>a</sub> = 1.8 × 10<sup>-5</sup> for CH<sub>3</sub>COOH.
A)2.87
B)3.74
C)4.75
D)5.74
Q3) Explain the common ion effect with respect to molar solubility.
Q4) Define a buffer.
Q5) Give the name of the compound that is in antifreeze and is toxic to pets.
Q6) Identify the compound that forms stalactites and stalagmites.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate S° for the following reaction. The S° for each species is shown below the reaction. P<sub>4</sub>(g)+ 10Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) 4PCl<sub>5</sub>(g)
S°(J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>)280.0 223.1 364.6
A)-138.5 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
B)-1052.6 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
C)+171.3 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
D)-583.6 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
E)+2334.6 J K<sup>-1</sup> mol<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) Calculate <sub>r</sub>G° at 298 K using the following information: 4HNO<sub>3</sub>(g)+ 5N<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>(l) 7N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 12H<sub>2</sub>O(l) <sub>r</sub>G°<sub> </sub>= ? <sub>f</sub>G° (kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>)-73.5 149.3 -237.1
A)-3.2977 × 10<sup>3</sup> kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
B)-312.9 kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
C)+2.845 × 10<sup>3</sup> kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
D)+110.7 kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
E)-954.7 kJ mol<sup>-1</sup>
Q3) Define the third law of thermodynamics.
Q4) What is "free" energy? Give a fictitious example.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Predict the species that will be reduced first if a mixture of molten salts containing the following ions undergoes electrolysis: Zn<sup>2+</sup>, Fe<sup>3+</sup>, Mg<sup>2+</sup>, Br<sup>-</sup>, I<sup>-</sup>
A)Zn<sup>2+</sup>
B)Mg<sup>2+</sup>
C)Br<sup>-</sup>
D)Fe<sup>3+</sup>
E)I<sup>-</sup>
Q2) Based on the following information, Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup>
2Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq)E° = +1.36 V
Mg<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup> 2Mg(s)E° = -2.37 V
Which of the following chemical species is the strongest reducing agent?
A)Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)
B)Mg<sup>2+</sup>(aq)
C)Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq)
D)Mg(s)
Q3) Why is sugar water not a good conductor of current?
Q4) What is the difference between a voltaic cell and an electrolytic cell?
Q5) What is electrolysis?
Q6) Give an example of an inert electrode.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe what changes occur in the atomic nucleus during beta decay.
A)The mass number and atomic number decrease.
B)The mass number and atomic number increase.
C)The mass number is unchanged and the atomic number decreases.
D)The mass number is unchanged and the atomic number increases.
E)The mass number and atomic number do not change.
Q2) Calculate the mass defect in Fe-56 if the mass of an Fe-56 nucleus is 55.921 amu.
The mass of a proton is 1.00728 amu and the mass of a neutron is 1.008665 amu.
A)0.528 amu
B)3.507 amu
C)0.564 amu
D)1.056 amu
E)0.079 amu
Q3) Determine the half-life of a nuclide that loses 38.0% of its mass in 387 hours.
A)277 hours
B)455 hour
C)561 hours
D)639 hours
E)748 hours
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the index of hydrogen deficiency?
Q2) Which of the following compounds is ethanol?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>OH
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
D)CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
E)CH<sub>3</sub>-O-CH<sub>3</sub>
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Infrared absorption spectroscopy is a common method for identifying functional groups in the structure of organic molecules.
B)Infrared absorption spectroscopy is a technique that makes use of the fact that infrared photons can excite the valence electrons in organic molecules.
C)Infrared absorption spectroscopy is a simple yet powerful method for determining the absolute configuration of chiral organic molecules.
D)Infrared absorption spectroscopy observes the energy emitted by vibrating bonds in molecules.
E)Infrared absorption spectroscopy is a technique frequently used in separation of isomers.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)The S<sub>N</sub>2 mechanism does not have any intermediates and has only one transition state.
B)Tertiary alkylchlorides are the best substrates for S<sub>N</sub>2 reactions.
C)Only the strength of the nucleophile is important for S<sub>N</sub>2 reactions, not the nature of the leaving group.
D)S<sub>N</sub>1 reactions have a carbanion as an intermediate.
E)S<sub>N</sub>2 reactions result in the racemic product if we start from one enantiomer of a chiral substrate
Q2) In which of the following families would the strongest organic bases be found?
A)amines
B)ethers
C)esters
D)alcohols
E)ketones
Q3) Which part of HCN, the hydrogen or the cyano group, adds to the O in a C=O bond and why?
Q4) Why doesn't benzene typically undergo addition reactions like the alkenes do?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following amino acids does not contain a basic side chain?
A)arginine
B)histidine
C)lysine
D)threonine
Q2) What is the appropriate name for the strongest intermolecular force holding together two strands of DNA to form a double helix?
A)hydrogen bonds
B)London dispersion forces
C)dipole-dipole bonds
D)ionic bonds
E)covalent bonds
Q3) Which of the following is a type of nucleic acid?
A)RNA
B)amino acid
C)dipeptide
D)carbohydrate
E)lipid
Q4) How do cis- and trans-fats differ?
Q5) What is a codon?

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Sample Questions
Q1) Tetraphosphorus decoxide reacts with water to produce phosphoric acid. Write a balanced reaction for this process.
A)P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>10</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O 4H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> B)P<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> + 3H<sub>2</sub>O 2H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>3</sub>
C)P<sub>4</sub> + 3O<sub>2 + </sub>6H<sub>2</sub>O 4H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
D)P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>10</sub> + 4H<sub>2</sub>O 4H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>3</sub>
E)P<sub>4</sub> + 3O<sub>2 + </sub>6H<sub>2</sub>O 4H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>3</sub>
Q2) What is the shape of a boron trihalide?
A)trigonal planar
B)tetrahedral
C)linear
D)trigonal pyramidal
E)bent
Q3) Why are phosphate compounds added to detergents?
Q4) Draw the Lewis structure for IF<sub>4</sub> and determine the geometry of the ion.
Q5) Why are the chemical properties of nitrogen and phosphorus so different when they are in the same family?
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Q1) Why can't chromium and nickel form a miscible solid solution over the entire composition range?
A)The lever rule says that these two metals can't coexist in an alloy.
B)The two metals crystallize into different cubic structures in their pure forms.
C)The tetrahedral holes in the nickel crystal are not large enough to accommodate the chromium.
D)The octahedral holes in the chromium crystal are not large enough to accommodate the nickel.
E)Chromium atoms can only fit inside tetrahedral holes, which are not present in the structure of pure nickel.
Q2) Which of the following processes is used to form metal components from very small metal particles?
A)electrometallurgy
B)hydrometallurgy
C)pyrometallurgy
D)powder metallurgy
E)smelting
Q3) Why is zinc used to coat steel objects?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the electron configuration for Nb<sup>3+</sup>.
A)[Kr]5s<sup>1</sup>4d<sup>2</sup>
B)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>1</sup>
C)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>
D)[Kr]4d<sup>2</sup>
E)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>5</sup>
Q2) Choose the electron configuration for Ti<sup>2+</sup>.
A)[Ar]3d<sup>2</sup>
B)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>2</sup>
C)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>4</sup>
D)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>
E)[Ne]3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>6</sup>
Q3) Which of the following complex ions absorbs light of the longest wavelength?
A)[Cr(CN)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3-</sup>
B)[CrCl<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3-</sup>
C)[Cr(en)<sub>3</sub>]<sup>3+</sup>
D)[Cr(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3+</sup>
E)[Cr(NO<sub>2</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3-</sup>
Q4) Explain how EDTA is used to treat lead poisoning.
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Q5) What is the difference between a weak-field complex and a strong-field complex?