Chemistry for Engineers Final Test Solutions - 3679 Verified Questions

Page 1


Chemistry for Engineers

Final Test Solutions

Course Introduction

Chemistry for Engineers is a foundational course designed to introduce engineering students to the fundamental principles of chemistry and their applications in various engineering disciplines. Covering key topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, thermodynamics, kinetics, and materials science, the course emphasizes the role of chemical processes in engineering problem-solving. Students will learn how chemical properties influence material selection, process design, and environmental considerations in fields such as mechanical, civil, electrical, and chemical engineering. Laboratory sessions and problem-based assignments provide practical experience and reinforce the theoretical concepts, preparing students to apply chemical knowledge to real-world engineering challenges.

Recommended Textbook

Chemistry The Central Science 13th Edition by Theodore E. Brown

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24 Chapters

3679 Verified Questions

3679 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction: Matter and Measurement

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Sample Questions

Q1) 3.2 cm<sup>3</sup> = 0.0032 L

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Which of the following has the same number of significant figures as the number 0.0050?

A)0.9

B)4.0

C)1.00

D)601

E)99.000

Answer: B

Q3) 1 milligram = ________ micrograms

Answer: 1,000

Q4) Temperature is a physical property that determines the direction of heat flow.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q5) Sn is the symbol for the element ________.

Answer: Tin

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Chapter 2: Atoms, Molecules, and Ions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following molecular formulas is also an empirical formula?

A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>2</sub>

B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>SO

C)H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>

D)H<sub>2</sub>P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>6</sub>

E)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>

Answer: B

Q2) Which species is an isotope of <sup>3</sup><sup>9</sup>Cl?

A)"<sup>40</sup>Ar<sup>+</sup>"

B)"<sup>34</sup>S<sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>"

C)"<sup>36</sup>Cl<sup>-</sup>"

D)"<sup>80</sup>Br"

E)"<sup>39</sup>Ar"

Answer: C

Q3) The possible oxidation numbers for iron are +1 and +2.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) Which element in Group IA is the most electropositive?

Answer: francium

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Stoichiometry: Calculations With Chemical

Formulas and Equations

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Sample Questions

Q1) What mass in grams of hydrogen is produced by the reaction of 4.73 g of magnesium with 1.83 g of water? Mg (s) + 2H<sub>2</sub>O (l) Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub> (s) + H<sub>2</sub> (g)

A)0.102

B)0.0162

C)0.0485

D)0.219

E)0.204

Answer: A

Q2) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of H<sub>2</sub>O is ________. Ca (s) + H<sub>2</sub>O (l) Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub><sub> </sub>(aq) + H<sub>2</sub> (g)

A)1

E)4

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Aqueous Reactions and Solution Stoichiometry

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Sample Questions

Q1) When aqueous solutions of Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> and NaCl are mixed, PbCl<sub>2</sub> precipitates. The balanced net ionic equation is ________.

A)Pb<sup>2+ </sup>(aq) + 2Cl<sup>-</sup> (aq) PbCl<sub>2</sub> (s)

B)Pb<sup>2+</sup> (aq) + 2NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> (aq)

Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> (s)

C)Pb<sup>2+</sup> (aq) + 2NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> (aq)

Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> (aq)

D)Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> (aq) + 2NaCl (aq) PbCl<sub>2</sub> (s) + 2NaNO<sub>3 </sub>(aq)

E)Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> (aq) + 2NaCl (aq) PbCl<sub>2</sub> (aq) + 2NaNO<sub>3</sub> (s)

Q2) What is the concentration (M)of KCl in a solution made by mixing 25.0 mL of 0.100 M KCl with 50.0 mL of 0.100 M KCl?

A)0.100

B)0.0500

C)0.0333

D)0.0250

E)125

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Chapter 5: Thermochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following is an exothermic process?

A)ice melting

B)water evaporating

C)boiling soup

D)condensation of water vapor

E)Ammonium thiocyanate and barium hydroxide are mixed at 25 °C: the temperature drops.

Q2) H for the reaction IF<sub>5</sub> (g) IF<sub>3</sub> (g) + F<sub>2</sub> (g) Is ________ kJ, give the data below.

IF (g) + F<sub>2</sub> (g) IF<sub>3</sub> (g) H = -390 kJ

IF (g) + 2F<sub>2</sub> (g) IF<sub>5</sub> (g) H = -745 kJ

A)+355

B)-1135

C)+1135

D)+35

E)-35

Q3) Petroleum is a liquid composed of hundreds of compounds.

A)True

B)False

Q4) ________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Electronic Structure of Atoms

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Sample Questions

Q1) At what speed (m/s)must a 10.0-mg object be moving to have a de Broglie wavelength of 3.3 × 10<sup>-41</sup> m?

A)4.1 m/s

B)1.9 × 10<sup>-11</sup> m/s

C)2.0 × 10<sup>12</sup> m/s

D)3.3 × 10<sup>-42</sup> m/s

E)1.9 × 10<sup>13</sup> m/s

Q2) Which one of the following represents an acceptable set of quantum numbers for an electron in an atom? (arranged as n, l, m<sub>l</sub>, and m<sub>s</sub> )

A)3, 2, -2, -1/2

B)3, 3, -4, 1/2

C)3, 4, 6, -1/2

D)3, 2, 0, 0

E)3, 3, 3, -1/2

Q3) The square of Schrodinger's wave equation is called an orbital.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The ground state electron configuration of scandium is ________.

Q5) A spectrum containing radiation of specific wavelengths is called a(n)________.

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Chapter 7: Periodic Properties of the Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) The atomic radius of main-group elements generally increases down a group because ________.

A)effective nuclear charge increases down a group

B)effective nuclear charge decreases down a group

C)effective nuclear charge zigzags down a group

D)the principal quantum number of the valence orbitals increases

E)both effective nuclear charge increases down a group and the principal quantum number of the valence orbitals increases

Q2) Which ion below has the largest radius?

A)Cl<sup>-</sup>

B)K<sup>+</sup>

C)Br<sup>-</sup>

D)F<sup>-</sup>

E)Na<sup>+</sup>

Q3) Nonmetals can be ________ at room temperature.

A)solid, liquid, or gas

B)solid or liquid

C)solid only

D)liquid only

E)liquid or gas

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Chapter 8: Basic Concepts of Chemical Bonding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most explosives are compounds that decompose rapidly to produce ________ products and a great deal of ________.

A)gaseous, gases

B)liquid, heat

C)soluble, heat

D)solid, gas

E)gaseous, heat

Q2) There are ________ unpaired electrons in the Lewis symbol for an oxygen atom.

A)0

B)1

C)2

D)4

E)3

Q3) Elements from opposite sides of the periodic table tend to form ________.

A)covalent compounds

B)ionic compounds

C)compounds that are gaseous at room temperature

D)homonuclear diatomic compounds

E)covalent compounds that are gaseous at room temperature

Q4) Polyatomic ions with an odd number of electrons will ________ the octet rule.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Molecular Geometry and Bonding Theories

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Sample Questions

Q1) Molecular Orbital theory correctly predicts paramagnetism of oxygen gas, O<sub>2</sub>. This is because ________.

A)the bond order in O<sub>2</sub> can be shown to be equal to 2.

B)there are more electrons in the bonding orbitals than in the antibonding orbitals.

C)the energy of the <sub>2p</sub> MOs is higher than that of the <sub>2p</sub> MO

D)there are two unpaired electrons in the MO electron configuration of O<sub>2</sub>

E)the O-O bond distance is relatively short

Q2) The molecular geometry of the SiH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> molecule is

A)trigonal planar

B)tetrahedral

C)trigonal pyramidal

D)octahedral

E)T-shaped

Q3) The more unpaired electrons in a species, the stronger is the force of magnetic attraction. This is called ________.

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Chapter 10: Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ammonium nitrite undergoes thermal decomposition to produce only gases: NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>2</sub> (s) N<sub>2</sub> (g) + 2H<sub>2</sub>O (g)

What volume (L)of gas is produced by the decomposition of 35.0 g of NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>2</sub>(s)at 525 °C and 1.5 atm?

A)48

B)160

C)15

D)72

E)24

Q2) The molar volume of a gas at STP is ________ L.

A)0.08206

B)62.36

C)1.00

D)22.4

E)14.7

Q3) What is the partial pressure (in mm Hg)of neon in a 4.00 L vessel that contains 0.838 mol of methane, 0.184 mol of ethane, and 0.755 mol of neon at a total pressure of 928 mm Hg?

Q4) The temperature and pressure specified by STP are ________ °C and ________ atm.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Liquids and Intermolecular Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) The phase diagram of a substance is given above. This substance is a ________ at 30 °C and 0.5 atm.

A)liquid

B)gas

C)solid

D)supercritical fluid

E)crystal

Q2) The phase diagram of a substance is given above. The region that corresponds to the solid phase is ________.

A)w

B)x

C)y

D)z

E)x and y

Q3) A ________ liquid crystal has the least order and is the most liquid-like.

A)nematic

B)smectic

C)cholesteric

D)smectic B

E)smectic C

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Chapter 12: Solids and Modern Materials

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Sample Questions

Q1) For a substitutional alloy to form, the two metals combined must have similar

A)ionization potential and electron affinity.

B)number of valance electrons and electronegativity.

C)reduction potential and size.

D)atomic radii and chemical bonding properties.

E)band gap and reactivity.

Q2) Which one of the following cannot form a solid with a lattice based on the sodium chloride structure?

A)NaBr

B)LiF

C)RbI

D)CuO

E)CuCl<sub>2</sub>

Q3) Chromium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic unit cell. There are ________ chromium atoms per unit cell.

Q4) When lattice points occur at the center of each face, as well as each corner of a unit cell, the cell is called ________.

Q5) Semiconductor particles with diameters of 1-10 nm are called ________.

Q6) How many atoms are contained in a face-centered cubic unit cell?

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Properties of Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hydration is a specific example of the phenomenon known generally as ________.

A)salutation

B)disordering

C)solvation

D)condensation

E)dilution

Q2) The concentration of sodium chloride in an aqueous solution that is 2.13 M and that has a density of 1.01 g/mL is ________% by mass.

A)2.11

B)7.83

C)124

D)12.3

E)14.2

Q3) The dissolution of water in octane (C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub>)is prevented by

A)London dispersion forces between octane molecules

B)hydrogen bonding between water molecules

C)dipole-dipole attraction between octane molecules

D)ion-dipole attraction between water and octane molecules

E)repulsion between like-charged water and octane molecules

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Chapter 14: Chemical Kinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rate constant of a first-order process that has a half-life of 462 s is ________ s<sup>-1</sup>.

A)1.50 × 10<sup>-3</sup>

B)3.20 × 10<sup>2</sup>

C)6.67 × 10<sup>2</sup>

D)-1.08 × 10<sup>-3</sup>

E)2.16 × 10<sup>-3</sup>

Q2) If the rate law for the reaction 2A + 3B products Is second order in A and first order in B, then the rate law is rate = ________.

A)k[A][B]

B)k[A]<sup>2</sup>[B]<sup>3</sup>

C)k[A][B]<sup>2</sup>

D)k[A]<sup>2</sup>[B]

E)k[A]<sup>2</sup>[B]<sup>2</sup>

Q3) The rate limiting step in a reaction is the slowest step in the reaction sequence.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The uptake of molecules into the interior of another substance is referred to as

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Chapter 15: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) Le Châtelier's principle states that if a system at equilibrium is disturbed, the equilibrium will shift to minimize the disturbance.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If Reaction A + Reaction B = Reaction C, then K<sub>c </sub>Reaction C = ________.

Q3) Pure ________ and pure ________ are excluded from equilibrium-constant expressions.

Q4) The effect of a catalyst on an equilibrium is to ________.

A)increase the rate of the forward reaction only

B)increase the equilibrium constant so that products are favored

C)slow the reverse reaction only

D)increase the rate at which equilibrium is achieved without changing the composition of the equilibrium mixture

E)shift the equilibrium to the right

Q5) The relationship between the concentrations of reactants and products of a system at equilibrium is given by the law of mass action.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Acid-Base Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) In which of the following aqueous solutions does the weak acid exhibit the lowest percentage ionization?

A)0.01 M HCN (K<sub>a</sub> = 6.2 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>10</sup>)

B)0.01 M H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> (K<sub>a</sub> = 4.5 × 10<sup>-7</sup>)

C)0.01 M HNO<sub>2</sub> (K<sub>a</sub> = 4.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup>)

D)0.01 M HCHO<sub>2</sub> (K<sub>a</sub> = 1.8 × 10<sup>-4</sup>)

E)0.01 M HOCl (K<sub>a</sub> = 3.5 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>8</sup>)

Q2) The K<sub>a</sub> of hydrazoic acid (HN<sub>3</sub>)is 1.9 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> at 25.0 °C. What is the pH of a 0.15 M aqueous solution of HN<sub>3</sub>?

A)0.82

B)1.95

C)5.23

D)2.77

E)-3.46

Q3) What is the pH of a sodium acetate (NaC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>)solution prepared by adding 0.820 grams of sodium acetate to 100.0 ml of water at 25.0 °C? The K<sub>a</sub> at 25.0 °C for acetic acid is 1.8 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.

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Chapter 17: Additional Aspects of Aqueous Equilibria

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a solution, when the concentrations of a weak acid and its conjugate base are equal, ________.

A)the system is not at equilibrium

B)the buffering capacity is significantly decreased

C)the -log of the [H<sup>+</sup>] and the -log of the K<sub>a</sub> are equal

D)All of the above are true.

Q2) In which of the following aqueous solutions would you expect AgF to have the highest solubility?

A)0.00750 M LiF

B)0.030 M AgNO<sub>3</sub>

C)0.023 M NaF

D)0.015 M KF

E)AgF will have the same solubility in all solutions.

Q3) The addition of hydrochloric acid and ________ to water produces a buffer solution.

A)HC<sub>6</sub>H<sub>5</sub>O

B)NaOH

C)NaCl

D)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>

E)none of the above

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Chapter 18: Chemistry of the Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Approximately 90% of the earth's ozone is in the ________.

Q2) The contribution of sulfur to acid rain is via the production of ________.

Q3) Most fresh water in the U.S. is used for agriculture.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Eutrophication of a lake is the process of ________.

A)rapid increase in the amount of dead and decaying plant matter in the lake as a result of excessive plant growth

B)rapid decline in the lake's pH due to acid rain

C)dissolved oxygen being depleted by an overpopulation of fish

D)stocking the lake with fish

E)restoration of the lake's dissolved oxygen supply by aerobic bacteria

Q5) The brown color of photochemical smog over a city is mainly due to ________.

A)NO<sub>2</sub>

B)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>

C)CO

D)SO<sub>2</sub>

E)CO<sub>2</sub>

Q6) The approximate pH of acid rain is ________.

Q7) Describe the process of reverse osmosis that is used to desalinate seawater.

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Chapter 19: Chemical Thermodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of the following, only ________ is not a state function.

A)S

B)H

C)q

D)E

E)T

Q2) The melting of a substance at its melting point is an isothermal process.

A)True

B)False

Q3) For the reaction 2 C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub> (g) + 13 O<sub>2</sub> (g) 8

CO<sub>2</sub> (g) + 10 H<sub>2</sub>O (g)

H° is -125 kJ/mol and S° is +253 J/K mol. This reaction is ________.

A)spontaneous at all temperatures

B)spontaneous only at high temperature

C)spontaneous only at low temperature

D)nonspontaneous at all temperatures

E)unable to determine without more information

Q4) Find the temperature (in K)above which a reaction with a H of 53.00 kJ/mol and a S of 100.0 J/K mol becomes spontaneous.

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Chapter 20: Electrochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The standard reduction potential, E°<sub>red</sub>, is proportional to the stoichiometric coefficient.

A)True

B)False

Q2) How many seconds are required to produce 5.00 g of aluminum metal from the electrolysis of molten AlCl<sub>3</sub> with an electrical current of 15.0 A?

A)27.0

B)9.00

C)1.19E × 10<sup>3 </sup>

D)2.90 × 10<sup>5</sup>

E)3.57 × 10<sup>3</sup>

Q3) The balanced half-reaction in which dichromate ion is reduced to chromium metal is a ________ process.

A)two-electron

B)six-electron

C)three-electron

D)four-electron

E)twelve-electron

Q4) The major product of a hydrogen fuel cell is ________.

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Chapter 21: Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) What happens to the atomic mass number and the atomic number of a radioisotope when it undergoes alpha emission?

Q2) Cesium-131 has a half-life of 9.7 days. What percent of a cesium-131 sample remains after 60 days?

A)100

B)0

C)1.4

D)98.6

E)more information is needed to solve the problem

Q3) The half-life of carbon-11 is 20.3 minutes. How much of a 100.0 mg sample remains after 1.6 hours?

A)3.77 mg

B)0.0377 mg

C)94.7 mg

D)1.75 × 10<sup>-89</sup><sup> </sup><sub>mg</sub>

E)99.9 mg

Q4) What is the predominant isotope of uranium?

Q5) The half-life for the beta decay of potassium-40 is 1.3 × 10<sup>9</sup> years. What is the rate constant for this decay?

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Chapter 22: Chemistry of the Nonmetals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which group 3A element is a metalloid?

A)B

B)Al

C)Ga

D)In

E)Tl

Q2) The correct name for the BH<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> ion is ________.

A)borate

B)boride

C)borohydride

D)borite

E)hydroboride

Q3) The oxidation number of N in HNO<sub>2</sub> is ________.

A)+1

B)+2

C)+3

D)+4

E)+5

Q4) What is an acetylide?

Q5) What are the five crystalline allotropes of carbon?

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Transition Metals and Coordination Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Does either or both cis- or trans-[Mn(en)<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>] have optical isomers?

A)cis only

B)trans only

C)both cis and trans

D)neither cis nor trans

E)[Mn(en)<sub>2</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>] does not exhibit cis-trans isomerism.

Q2) The chelate effect is best attributed to considerations of which type?

A)hydration

B)enthalpy

C)entropy

D)hydrogen bonding

E)resonance

Q3) Name the compound: K<sub>2</sub>[Cr(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>4</sub>(CO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>].

Q4) In photosynthesis, ________ moles of photons are required to form one mole of ________.

Q5) What colors of light does chlorophyll-a absorb?

Q6) What is the coordination number of the iron atom in CaNa[Fe(CN)<sub>6</sub>]?

Q7) Name the compound, Ca[AlH<sub>4</sub>]<sub>2</sub>.

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Chapter 24: The Chemistry of Life: Organic and Biological Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) When petroleum is distilled to separate the components by boiling point, the component with the highest boiling point is called ________.

A)gas

B)gasoline

C)kerosene

D)paraffin

E)asphalt

Q2) The addition of HBr to 2-butene produces ________.

A)1-bromobutane

B)2-bromobutane

C)1,2-dibromobutane

D)2,3-dibromobutane

E)no reaction

Q3) In the reaction of nitric acid with benzene, which isomer is formed when a second nitro group is substituted?

Q4) Hydrogenation of an alkene requires high temperatures and a catalyst such as nickel. Why is this?

Q5) Non-superimposable mirror-image isomers of a substance are called ________.

Q6) Large protein molecules that act as catalysts are called ________.

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