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This course introduces fundamental concepts of chemistry tailored for engineering students, providing a strong foundation in chemical principles relevant to engineering applications. Topics include atomic and molecular structure, stoichiometry, thermodynamics, chemical kinetics, electrochemistry, materials science, and the properties of solids, liquids, and gases. Emphasis is placed on the practical use of chemistry in solving engineering problems, understanding material behavior, and optimizing processes in industrial and technological settings. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving sessions, students will develop the skills necessary to apply chemical knowledge in various engineering fields.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry 10th Edition by Raymond Chang
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153 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Ripening of fruit. Answer: Chemical
Q2) An archeologist finds a huge monolith in the desert. In order to estimate the weight of this object; he estimates the dimensions of the monolith and removes some chips from the rock with his hammer, collecting the following data: dimensions of the monolith = 1.5 m * 5.2 m * 13 m mass of rock chips = 41.73 g volume of rock chips = 15.2 cm<sup>3</sup> <sup> </sup>Determine the mass of the monolith in pounds, assuming it is of uniform composition.(1 lb = 453.6 g) Answer: 6.1 * 10<sup>5</sup> lb
Q3) An automobile engine has a piston displacement of 1,600 cm<sup>3</sup>. Express this volume in liters.
Answer: 1.6 L
Q4) The density of lead is 11.4 g/cm<sup>3</sup>. Express this density in pounds per cubic foot.
Answer: 711 lbs/ft<sup>3</sup>
Q5) Classify the following as a pure substance or a mixture: Seven-Up®. Answer: Mixture
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Q1) The number of neutrons in all atoms of an element is the same.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A phosphide ion has:
A)10 protons and 13 electrons
B)12 protons and 15 electrons
C)15 protons and 15 electrons
D)15 protons and 18 electrons
E)18 protons and 21 electrons
Answer: D
Q3) The correct name for Ba(OH)<sub>2</sub> is
A)barium hydrogen oxide.
B)boron hydroxide.
C)barium hydrate.
D)beryllium hydroxide.
E)barium hydroxide.
Answer: E
Q4) Name the following binary compound: AgCl.
Answer: silver chloride; may accept silver(I)chloride.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the molecular mass of ethylene glycol, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>2</sub>, a compound frequently used as automobile antifreeze.
Answer: 62.1 g
Q2) What is the mass of 7.80 * 10<sup>18</sup> carbon atoms?
A)1.30 * 10<sup>-5</sup> g
B)6.43 * 10<sup>3</sup> g
C)7.80 * 10<sup>18</sup> g
D)1.56 * 10<sup>-4</sup> g
E)12.01 g
Answer: D
Q3) How many moles of Cl atoms are there in 65.2 g CHCl<sub>3</sub>?
A)0.548 mol
B)1.09 mol
C)3.3 * 10<sup>23</sup> mol
D)1.64 mol
E)3.0 mol
Answer: D
Q4) How many Mg atoms are present in 170 g of Mg?
Answer: 4.2 * 10<sup>24</sup>
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Sample Questions
Q1) A piece of copper metal was added to an aqueous solution of silver nitrate, and within a few minutes it was observed that a grey crystalline solid formed on surface of the copper and the solution turned a blue color characteristic of copper(II)ions. Write the net ionic equation for this reaction.
Q2) When 38.0 mL of 0.1250 M H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> is added to 100.mL of a solution of PbI<sub>2</sub>, a precipitate of PbSO<sub>4</sub> forms. The PbSO<sub>4</sub> is then filtered from the solution, dried, and weighed. If the recovered PbSO<sub>4</sub> is found to have a mass of 0.0471 g, what was the concentration of iodide ions in the original solution?
A)3.10 * 10<sup>-4</sup> M
B)1.55 * 10<sup>-4</sup> M
C)6.20 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
D)3.11 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
E)1.55 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
Q3) During a titration the following data were collected.A 50.0 mL portion of an HCl solution was titrated with 0.500 M NaOH; 200.mL of the base was required to neutralize the sample.How many grams of HCl are present in 500.mL of this acid solution?
Q4) Give an example of a diprotic acid.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give five examples of compounds that exist as gases at room temperature and pressure.
Q2) What is standard temperature and standard pressure?
Q3) At constant pressure, the density of a gas depends on temperature.Does the density increase or decrease as the temperature increases?
Q4) Which of these properties is/are characteristic(s)of gases?
A)High compressibility
B)Relatively large distances between molecules
C)Formation of homogeneous mixtures regardless of the nature of gases
D)A and B.
E)A, B, and C.
Q5) A sample of carbon monoxide gas was collected in a 2.0 L flask by displacing water at 28°C and 810 mmHg. Calculate the number of CO molecules in the flask. The vapor pressure of water at 28°C is 28.3 mmHg.
A)5.0 * 10<sup>22</sup>
B)5.2 * 10<sup>22</sup>
C)3.8 * 10<sup>23</sup>
D)5.4 * 10<sup>23</sup>
E)3.8 * 10<sup>25</sup>
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the enthalpy of reaction for H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>(g)\(\rarr\) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>(g). [\(\Delta\)H°<sub>f</sub>(C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>(g))= 52.3 kJ/mol; \(\Delta\)H°<sub>f</sub>(C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>(g))= -84.7 kJ/mol]
Q2) Chemical energy is
A)the energy stored within the structural units of chemical substances. B)the energy associated with the random motion of atoms and molecules. C)solar energy, i.e.energy that comes from the sun. D)energy available by virtue of an object's position.
Q3) Find the standard enthalpy of formation of ethylene, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>(g), given the following data: heat of combustion of C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>(g)<sub> </sub>= -1411 kJ/mol; \9\Delta\)H°<sub>f</sub>[CO<sub>2</sub>(g)] = -393.5 kJ/mol; \(\Delta\)H°<sub>f</sub>[H<sub>2</sub>O(l)] = -285.8 kJ/mol.
A)52 kJ/mol
B)87 kJ/mol
C)731 kJ/mol
D)1.41 * 10<sup>3</sup> kJ/mol
E)2.77 * 10<sup>3</sup> kJ/mol
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the wavelength, in meters, of an alpha particle with a kinetic energy of 8.0 * 10<sup>-13</sup> J.(mass of an alpha particle = 4.00150 amu; 1 amu = 1.67 * 10<sup>-27</sup> kg)
Q2) Which element has the following ground-state electron configuration? [Kr]5s<sup>1</sup>4d<sup>5</sup>
A)Mn
B)Mo
C)Nb
D)Re
E)Tc
Q3) What is the total number of electrons possible in the 2p orbitals?
Q4) According to de Broglie's equation, the wavelength associated with the motion of a particle increases as the particle mass decreases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the electron configuration of calcium?
Q6) If one electron is added to the outer shell of chlorine, it would have the same electron configuration as what element?
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Q7) Write the ground state electron configuration for Ni.
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Q1) Consider the element with the electron configuration [Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>7</sup>. This element is
A)a representative element.
B)a transition metal.
C)a nonmetal.
D)an actinide element.
E)a noble gas.
Q2) Which of the following is the electron configuration for the aluminum ion?
A)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>
B)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>2</sup>
C)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>1</sup> D)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>
E)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>6</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>3p<sup>4</sup>
Q3) Which of the following elements has the greatest metallic character?
A)Br
B)Se
C)Ni
D)As
E)Si
Q4) Write the ground-state electron configuration for Ni<sup>2+</sup>.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The standard enthalpy of formation of ammonia at 25°C is -46.3 kJ/mol. Estimate the N-H bond enthalpy at this temperature. (Given: BE(N\(\equiv\)N)=941.4 kJ/mol, BE(H-H)= 436.4 kJ/mol)
A)383 kJ/mol
B)475 kJ/mol
C)360 kJ/mol
D)391 kJ/mol
E)459 kJ/mol
Q2) Which one of the following is most likely to be a covalent compound?
A)KF
B)CaCl<sub>2</sub>
C)SF<sub>4</sub>
D)Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
E)CaSO<sub>4</sub>
Q3) The electron dot structure for AsCl<sub>3</sub> shows
A)a total of 84 electron dots
B)three single bonds and 10 lone pairs
C)two single bonds, one double bond, and 9 lone pairs
D)one single bond, two double bonds, and 8 lone pairs
E)three single bonds and one lone pair
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Sample Questions
Q1) More energy is required to break a bond with an order of 3/2 than is required to break a bond of order 2.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Give the number of lone pairs around the central atom and the geometry of the ion NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>.
A)0 lone pairs, linear
B)1 lone pair, bent
C)2 lone pair, bent
D)3 lone pairs, bent
E)3 lone pairs, linear
Q3) Give the number of lone pairs around the central atom and the geometry of the ion SeO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>.
A)0 lone pairs, square planar
B)0 lone pairs, tetrahedral
C)1 lone pair, distorted tetrahedron (seesaw)
D)1 lone pair, square pyramidal
E)2 lone pairs, square planar
Q4) Which should have the longer bond, B<sub>2</sub> or B<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in CHCl<sub>3</sub>(l).
Q2) Which of the following is not an endothermic process?
A)melting of a solid
B)vaporization
C)raising the temperature of a gas
D)condensation of water vapor
E)sublimation of dry ice
Q3) Butter melts over a range of temperature, rather than with a sharp melting point. Butter is classified as a/an
A)metallic crystal.
B)covalent solid.
C)molecular crystal.
D)amorphous solid.
E)ionic crystal.
Q4) Of the pair of compounds given, which would have the stronger intermolecular forces of attraction?
SF<sub>4</sub> or C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>22</sub>
Q5) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in SO<sub>2</sub>(l).
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the following, on the basis of osmosis or osmotic pressure: Meat that is salted before cooking tends to dry out.
Q2) Calculate the mass of solute in the following solution: 50.0 mL of 0.0300 M C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>.
Q3) How many grams of propanol (C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>7</sub>OH, 60.10 g/mol)would be needed to make 750 mL of a solution with an osmotic pressure of 25 atm at 25°C? (R = 0.0821 L.atm/K.mol)
Q4) What is the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared from 13.7 g of the electrolyte HCl and enough water to make 0.500 L of solution at 18°C?
A)0.55 atm
B)1.10 atm
C)8.95 atm
D)17.9 atm
E)35.9 atm
Q5) For dilute aqueous solutions, the concentration units molarity and molality have almost the same values.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Solids cannot react with gases.
A)1 and 2
B)1 and 3
C)1 and 4
D)2 and 3
E)3 and 4
Q2) For the reaction represented below, the experimental rate law is given by rate = k [(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCl].
(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCl(aq)+ OH<sup>-</sup><sup> </sup>F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>COH(aq)+ Cl<sup>-</sup> <sup> </sup>If some solid sodium hydroxide were added to a solution in which [(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCl] = 0.01 M and [NaOH] = 0.10 M, which of the following would be true? (Assume the temperature and volume remain constant.)
A)Both the reaction rate and k would increase.
B)Both the reaction rate and k would decrease.
C)Both the reaction rate and k would remain the same.
D)The reaction rate would increase but k would remain the same.
E)The reaction rate would decrease but k would remain the same.
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Q1) Describe why addition of a catalyst does not affect the equilibrium constant for a reaction.
Q2) What conditions are used in the Haber process to enhance the yield of ammonia? Explain why each condition affects the yield in terms of the Le Châtelier principle.
Q3) Which of these statements is true about chemical equilibria in general?
A)At equilibrium the total concentration of products equals the total concentration of reactants, that is, [products] = [reactants].
B)Equilibrium is the result of the cessation of all chemical change.
C)There is only one set of equilibrium concentrations that equals the K<sub>c</sub> value.
D)At equilibrium, the rate constant of the forward reaction is equal to the rate constant for the reverse reaction.
E)At equilibrium, the rate of the forward reaction is equal to as the rate of the reverse reaction.
Q4) The dissociation of solid silver chloride in water to produce silver ions and chloride ions has an equilibrium constant of 1.8 * 10<sup>-18</sup>.Based on the magnitude of the equilibrium constant, is silver chloride very soluble in water? Why?
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Q1) A 0.10 M HF solution is 8.4% ionized. Calculate the H<sup>+</sup> ion concentration.
A)0.84 M
B)0.12 M
C)0.10 M
D)0.084 M
E)8.4 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M
Q2) Arrange the acids HBr, H<sub>2</sub>Se, and H<sub>3</sub>As in order of increasing acid strength.
A)HBr < H<sub>2</sub>Se < H<sub>3</sub>As
B)HBr < H<sub>3</sub>As < H<sub>2</sub>Se
C)H<sub>2</sub>Se < H<sub>3</sub>As < HBr
D)H<sub>3</sub>As<sub> </sub>< H<sub>2</sub>Se < HBr
E)H<sub>3</sub>As<sub> </sub>< HBr < H<sub>2</sub>Se
Q3) Calculate the pH of a solution containing 0.20 g of NaOH in 2,000.mL of solution.
Q4) An unknown substance was added to a solution and the pH decreases. What type of substance was added?
Q5) Will a 0.1 M solution of NH<sub>4</sub>CN(aq)be acidic, basic, or neutral?
Q6) Calculate the H<sup>+</sup> ion concentration in a solution with a pH of 3.85.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An environmental chemist obtained a 200.mL sample of lake water believed to be contaminated with a single monoprotic strong acid.Titrating this sample with a 0.0050 M NaOH(aq)required 7.3 mL of the NaOH solution to reach the endpoint.If the size of the lake can be approximated as 1.1 km long by 2.3 km wide, and has an average depth of 10.m, estimate how many moles of the strong acid are present in the lake?
Q2) At 25 °C, the base ionization constant for NH<sub>3</sub> is 1.8 * 10<sup>-5</sup>.
Determine the pH of a solution prepared by adding 0.0500 mol of solid ammonium chloride to 100.mL of 0.150 M ammonia.
Q3) The molar solubility of tin(II)iodide is 1.28 * 10<sup>-2</sup> mol/L. What is K<sub>sp</sub> for this compound?
A)8.4 * 10<sup>-6</sup>
B)1.28 * 10<sup>-2</sup>
C)4.2 * 10<sup>-6</sup>
D)1.6 * 10<sup>-4</sup>
E)2.1 * 10<sup>-6</sup>
Q4) The K<sub>sp</sub> of CaF<sub>2</sub> is 4 * 10<sup>-11</sup>. What is the maximum concentration of Ca<sup>2+</sup> possible in a 0.10 M NaF solution?
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Q1) Which one of the following reactions is an example of nitrogen fixation?
A)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>(g)\(\to\) NO<sub>3</sub>(g)+ NO<sub>2</sub>(g)
B)N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2NO(g)
C)3NO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(l)\(\to\) 2HNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ NO(g)
D)2NO(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2NO<sub>2</sub>(g)
E)2NH<sub>3</sub>(g)\(\to\) 3H<sub>2</sub>(aq)+ N<sub>2</sub>(g)
Q2) The compound CFCl<sub>3</sub> is used as a/an
A)enzyme
B)anesthetic
C)gaseous fuel
D)coolant
E)CFC replacement
Q3) Write out the steps that show how sulfur in coal is converted to sulfuric acid in acid rain.
Q4) Write out the steps in the mechanism of ozone destruction by chlorine atoms.
Q5) Name four regions of the atmosphere in order of increasing altitude.
Q6) Write chemical equations that show what happens when acid rain reacts with limestone rock
Q7) What happens to nitrogen dioxide in sunlight? Write the reaction for this process.
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Q1) For the reaction H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ S(s)\( \to\) H<sub>2</sub>S(g), \(\Delta\)H° = -20.2 kJ/mol and \(\Delta\)S° = +43.1 J/K·mol.Which of these statements is true?
A)The reaction is only spontaneous at low temperatures.
B)The reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures.
C)(\(\Delta\)G° becomes less favorable as temperature increases.)
D)The reaction is spontaneous only at high temperatures.
E)The reaction is at equilibrium at 25°C under standard conditions.
Q2) Consider the gas phase reaction shown below.
CH<sub>4</sub>(g)+ CF<sub>4</sub>(g)\(\to\) CH<sub>3</sub>F(g)+ CHF<sub>3</sub>(g)
Will the standard entropy increase, decrease, or remain if the reaction proceeds from reactants to products, as written? Explain your reasoning.
Q3) The heat of vaporization of water is 2.27 kJ/g. What is \(\Delta\)S<sub>vap</sub> per mole at the normal boiling point?
Q4) Choose the substance with the higher entropy per mole at a given temperature: 1 mole of N<sub>2</sub>(g)in a 22.4 L container or 1 mole of N<sub>2</sub>(g)in a 2.24 L container.
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Q1) Which one of the following reagents is capable of transforming Br<sup></sup>(aq)to Br<sub>2</sub>(l)under standard-state conditions?
A)I<sup>- </sup>(aq)
B)NO<sub>3</sub><sup>- </sup>(aq)
C)Ag<sup>+ </sup>(aq)
D)Al<sup>3+ </sup>(aq)
E)Au<sup>3+ </sup>(aq)
Q2) The half-reaction that occurs at the cathode during electrolysis of an aqueous sodium iodide solution is
A)Na<sup>+</sup> + e<sup>-</sup> \(\to\)Na.
B)Na \(\to\)Na<sup>+</sup> + e<sup>-</sup>.
C)2H<sub>2</sub>O + 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) H<sub>2</sub> + 2OH<sup>-</sup>.
D)I<sub>2</sub> + 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) 2I<sup>-</sup>.
E)2I<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) I<sub>2</sub> + 2e<sup>-</sup>.
Q3) Complete and balance the following redox reaction under acidic conditions: Cu(s)+ NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)\(\to\) Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ NO<sub>2</sub>(g)
Q4) How many moles of silver metal are produced in 1.2 hours by the electrolysis of AgNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)using a current of 6.0 A?
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Q1) The following reaction is used to produce titanium metal at high temperature. TiCl<sub>4</sub>(g)+ 2Mg(l)\(\to\) Ti(s)+ 2MgCl<sub>2</sub>(l)
Which element is oxidized and which is reduced?
Q2) The Hall process involves the reduction of Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> to aluminum by A)carbon (coke).
B)carbon monoxide.
C)molecular hydrogen.
D)sodium.
E)electrolysis.
Q3) Which one of these metals would normally be obtained by electrolytic reduction?
A)aluminum
B)chromium
C)copper
D)iron
E)zinc
Q4) Mercury, magnesium, and zinc have low enough boiling points that they can be purified by distillation.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which one of these elements is not a gas at room temperature?
A)chlorine
B)fluorine
C)nitrogen
D)oxygen
E)sulfur
Q2) Which of these elements occupies a position on the periodic table that is not entirely consistent with its chemical properties?
A)H
B)He
C)Ar
D)Al
E)U
Q3) Write the chemical formula of the oxide ion.
Q4) The main commercial source of bromine is
A)silver bromide ore.
B)seawater.
C)the Frasch process.
D)phosphate rock.
E)the Ostwald process.
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Q1) Write the chemical formula of diamminedichloroplatinum(II).
Q2) In K<sub>4</sub>[Fe(CN)<sub>6</sub>], how many 3d electrons does the iron atom have?
A)3
B)4
C)5 D)6
E)7
Q3) How many 3d electrons does a Mn<sup>2+</sup> ion have? A)1 B)2 C)3 D)4 E)5
Q4) The total number of electrons in the 3d orbitals of Co<sup>3+</sup> is A)4
B)5 C)6
D)7
E)10
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of nuclear power plants over coal-burning plants? Nuclear power plants
A)produce radioactive byproducts with very short half-lives, reducing the need for waste storage.
B)do not pollute the air with SO<sub>2</sub>, soot, and fly-ash.
C)create no thermal pollution.
D)generate radioactive byproducts that can be sold for use in secondary applications.
Q2) Which type of nuclear process requires an extremely high temperature (millions of degrees)?
A)beta decay
B)fission reaction
C)fusion reaction
D)alpha decay
E)positron emission
Q3) Describe the role of a moderator in a fission reactor, and give examples of two substances that are used as moderators.
Q4) Protactinium-234 has a half-life of 1 minute.How much of a 400.g sample protactinium would remain after 2 minutes?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of organic compound does not contain a carbonyl group?
A)ethers
B)carboxylic acids
C)ketones
D)aldehydes
E)esters
Q2) Which is the product of the reaction of one mole of HCl with one mole of 1-butyne?
A)1-chloro-1-butene
B)1-chloro-2-butene
C)2-chloro-1-butene
D)ethyl chloride + acetylene
Q3) The group of atoms that is responsible for the characteristic properties of a family of organic compounds is called a/an
A)reaction center.
B)functional group.
C)binding site.
D)enzyme.
E)polyatomic ion.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both DNA and RNA have double-helical structures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which nitrogen base is found in RNA but not in DNA?
A)adenine
B)cytosine
C)guanine
D)thymine
E)uracil
Q3) The only true hydrocarbon polymer found in nature is
A)rubber
B)nylon
C)Tyvek
D)polystyrene
E)neoprene
Q4) The monomer used to prepare polyvinyl chloride (PVC)is CHCl=CHCl.
A)True
B)False
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