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This course introduces the fundamental principles of chemistry with a specific emphasis on their applications in chemical engineering. Topics include atomic and molecular structure, stoichiometry, chemical bonding, thermodynamics, equilibrium, kinetics, and electrochemistry. Students will also explore how these core concepts relate to material balances, energy transformations, and the design of chemical processes. The course incorporates laboratory experiments and problem-solving sessions to develop practical skills and analytical thinking essential for success in chemical engineering disciplines.
Recommended Textbook Organic Chemistry 4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski
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Q1) Which of the following covalent bonds has the largest dipole moment?
A) C-H
B) C-C
C) C-O
D) H-F
Answer: D
Q2) What is the approximate bond angle for the C-C-N bond in acetonitrile, CH<sub>3</sub>CN?
A) 90°
B) 109.5°
C) 120°
D) 180°
Answer: D
Q3) How many constitutional isomers are there for a molecule having the molecular formula C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following statements about Lewis acids is true?
A) Lewis acids are proton donors.
B) Lewis acids are proton acceptors.
C) Lewis acids are electron pair donors.
D) Lewis acids are electron pair acceptors.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is the strongest base?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub>
B) CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
C) NH<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following compounds is the weakest acid?
A) HF
B) HCl
C) HBr
D) HI
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following molecules are aliphatic hydrocarbons? \[\begin{array} { c c c c }
\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { OH } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } = \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { OCH } _ { 3 } \\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]
A) I, II, III
B) I and III
C) II, III, IV
D) II and IV
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following lists contains common heteroatoms found in organic molecules?
A) N, O, S, P, Cl
B) Na, O, S, P, Cl
C) Na, Mg, S, N, Cl
D) Na, Mg, O, N, Cl
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following compounds has only primary, secondary and tertiary carbon atoms?
A) Pentane
B) 2-Methylpentane
C) 2,2-Dimethylpentane
D) 2,2,3-Trimethylpentane
Q2) What is the approximate C-C-C bond angle in propane?
A) 90°
B) 109.5°
C) 120°
D) 180°
Q3) How many cycloalkane constitutional isomers (excluding stereoisomers) are there with molecular formula C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>10</sub>?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
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Q1) Which of the following molecules are chiral? I. 2-Chlorobutane
II) 3-Bromopentane
III) 1-Bromo-2-methylpropene
IV) 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane
A) I, II
B) I, IV
C) II, III
D) III, IV
Q2) What is the main carbohydrate in the seeds and roots of plants?
A) Starch
B) Glucose
C) Cellulose
D) Glycogen
Q3) A natural product was isolated in the laboratory, and its observed rotation was +10° when measured in a 1 dm sample tube containing 1.0 g of compound in 10 mL of H<sub>2</sub>O. What is the specific rotation of this compound?
A) -10°
B) +100°
C) +10°
D) -100°
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Q1) Which of the following reaction quantities will have an effect on reaction rate?
A) "\(\Delta\)G°"
B) "\(\Delta\)H°"
C) "K<sub>eq</sub>"
D) "E<sub>a</sub>"
Q2) Which of the following statements about the equilibrium constant, K<sub>eq</sub>, is true?
A) When K<sub>eq</sub> > 1, the equilibrium favors the reactants.
B) When K<sub>eq</sub> < 1, the equilibrium favors the products.
C) The size of K<sub>eq</sub> tells about the position of equilibrium.
D) For a reaction to be useful, the equilibrium must favor the reactants.
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Bond breaking is endothermic.
B) The bond dissociation energy for bond breaking is always negative.
C) Bond making is exothermic.
D) The bond dissociation energy for bond formation is always negative.
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Q1) Rank the following in order of decreasing leaving group ability, putting the best first.
\[\begin{array} { l c c c }
\mathrm { Cl } ^ { - } & \mathrm { Br } ^ { - } & \mathrm { I } ^ { - } & \mathrm { H } _ {
2 } \mathrm { O } \\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV }
\end{array}\]
A) III > II > IV > I
B) III > II > I > IV
C) IV > I > II > III
D) II > III > I > IV
Q2) Which of the following statements about the S<sub>N</sub>2 mechanism for nucleophilic substitution reactions is true?
A) Involves one step and occurs with retention of configuration.
B) Involves two steps and occurs with inversion of configuration.
C) Involves one step and occurs with inversion of configuration.
D) Involves one step and occurs with racemization.
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Q1) Which of the following represents the rate law for an E2 reaction?
A) Rate = k[alkyl halide]
B) Rate = k[alkyl halide][base]
C) Rate = k[alkyl halide]<sup>2</sup>
D) Rate = k[base]<sup>2</sup>
Q2) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of an E2 reaction is not true?
A) It is fastest with tertiary halides.
B) It exhibits first-order kinetics.
C) A better leaving group should make a faster reaction.
D) All bonds are broken and formed in a single step.
Q3) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is not true?
A) It is a two-step process and has the same first step as an S<sub>N</sub>1 mechanism.
B) It involves the formation of a carbocation from eliminating a good leaving group.
C) A common competing reaction is rearrangement of a less stable carbocation to a more stable carbocation.
D) The loss of a proton by the carbocation is a slow step.
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Q1) What is the IUPAC of the following compound? (CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>3</sub>COH
A) 2-Ethyl-2-pentanol
B) 2-Ethyl-3-pentanol
C) 3-Ethyl-3-pentanol
D) 2,2-Diethyl-1-butanol
Q2) Which of the following reactions will provide the best yield of ether by the Williamson ether synthesis?
A) Bromobenzene and sodium methoxide.
B) Phenol and sodium methoxide.
C) Bromobenzene and bromomethane.
D) Sodium phenoxide and bromomethane.
Q3) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of tert-butyl methyl ether with excess HI?
A) tert-Butyl alcohol and iodomethane
B) tert-Butyl iodide and iodomethane
C) tert-Butyl alcohol and methanol
D) tert-Butyl iodide and methanol
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Q1) Which of the following statements about alkenes is not true?
A) They are less reactive than alkanes.
B) They can exist as cis/trans isomers.
C) The bond angle around the C-C double bond is approximately 120°.
D) The carbon of the C-C double bond is sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized.
Q2) Calculate the degree of unsaturation for a molecule with molecular formula C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>9</sub>N.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q3) Markovnikov addition of HBr to CH<sub>3</sub>CH=CH<sub>2</sub> involves which of the following?
A) Initial attack by bromide anion (Br<sup>-</sup>).
B) Initial attack by bromine radical (Br ).
C) Formation of a primary carbocation.
D) Formation of a secondary carbocation.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about tautomers is true?
A) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a hydrogen atom.
B) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a carbon atom.
C) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a hydrogen atom.
D) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a carbon atom.
Q2) What is the relationship between the keto and enol forms of acetone, CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub>?
A) Same compounds
B) Diastereomers
C) Enantiomers
D) Constitutional isomers
Q3) Which of the following explains why 1-pentyne has a slightly higher boiling point than 1-pentene?
A) 1-Pentyne has more carbons than 1-pentene.
B) 1-Pentyne has more carbons per hydrogen than 1-pentene.
C) 1-Pentyne is linear while 1-pentene is trigonal planar.
D) The C-C triple bond in 1-pentyne is more polar than the C-C double bond in 1-pentene.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about oxidation and reduction is not true?
A) The conversion of an alkyne to an alkene is reduction.
B) The conversion of an alkene to an alkane is reduction.
C) Oxidation results in a decrease in the number of C-H bonds.
D) Reduction results in an increase in the number of C-Z bonds.
Q2) What happens to the carbon atom in the transformation of chloromethane to methyllithium? CH<sub>3</sub>Cl + 2Li \(\to\) CH<sub>3</sub>Li + LiCl
A) Oxidized
B) Reduced
C) Oxidized and Reduced
D) Neither oxidized nor reduced
Q3) Which of the following statements about the reduction of epoxides with LiAlH<sub>4</sub> is true?
A) The nucleophile is a hydride (H<sup>-</sup>).
B) In unsymmetrical epoxides, nucleophilic attack of H<sup>-</sup> occurs at the more substituted carbon atom.
C) The reaction follows S<sub>N</sub>1 mechanism.
D) The nucleophile, H<sup>-</sup>, is a weak nucleophile.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is (are) true about a compound that has a molecular ion peak in its mass spectrum at mass 104, and shows prominent peaks in its IR spectrum at 3200-2850 cm<sup>-1</sup>?
A) The compound has a molecular mass of 104.
B) The compound contains a C=O group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds.
C) The compound contains an OH group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds.
D) Both (The compound has a molecular mass of 104) and (The compound contains a C=O group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds) are true statements.
E) Both (The compound has a molecular mass of 104) and (The compound contains an OH group and C<sub>sp</sub><sub>3</sub>-H hybridized bonds) are true statements.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the base peak of a mass spectrum is always true?
A) The base peak corresponds to the molecular ion.
B) The base peak corresponds to the most abundant ion.
C) The base peak corresponds to the lowest m/z.
D) None of the above.
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Q1) What region of the electromagnetic spectrum does nuclear magnet resonance spectroscopy use?
A) Radio frequency
B) Microwave frequency
C) Infrared frequency
D) Visible frequency
E) Ultraviolet frequency
Q2) Which of the following statements about <sup>13</sup>C NMR is not true?
A) "In <sup>13</sup>C proton-decoupled NMR spectra, all peaks are singlets."
B) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR spectra display peaks for only carbons that bear hydrogen atoms."
C) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR chemical shifts occur over a greater range than <sup>1</sup>H NMR chemical shifts."
D) "<sup>13</sup>C NMR easily differentiates between the different hybridized carbons (sp<sup>3</sup>, sp<sup>2</sup> and sp hybridized carbons)."
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Q1) Which step is the rate-determining step in the mechanism of radical halogenation?
A) Initiation
B) Propagation
C) Termination
D) Initiation and Propagation
Q2) Which of the following statements about radical reactions is not true?
A) Light or heat provides the energy needed for homolytic bond cleavage to form radicals.
B) Breaking the weak O-O bond of peroxides initiates radical reactions.
C) The diradical O<sub>2</sub> removes radicals from a reaction mixture.
D) Radicals rearrange.
Q3) How many monochlorination products (constitutional isomers and stereoisomers) are formed from the reaction of butane with Cl<sub>2</sub> and hv?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
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Q1) What is the definition of a resonance structure?
A) Compounds with the same molecular formula
B) Compounds with different carbon frameworks
C) Structures that differ only in the placement of pi and nonbonding electrons
D) Structures that differ only in the location of bonds
Q2) What is the kinetic product obtained from the addition of 1 equivalent of HBr to 1,3-butadiene?
A) 3-Bromo-1-butene
B) 1-Bromo-2-butene
C) 2-Bromo-2-butene
D) 2-Bromo-1-butene
Q3) Which of the following statements about kinetic vs. thermodynamic products is true?
A) The product that is formed faster is the thermodynamic product.
B) The kinetic product predominates at low temperature.
C) The product that predominates at equilibrium is the kinetic product.
D) The thermodynamic product is less stable.
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the Hückel's criteria for aromaticity?
A) The molecule must be cyclic.
B) The molecule must be planar.
C) The molecule must be completely conjugated.
D) The molecule must have 4n pi electrons.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the structure of benzene is not true?
A) Benzene is planar.
B) Benzene has three short double bonds alternating with three longer single bonds.
C) The electrons in the pi bonds are delocalized around the ring.
D) Benzene has six pi electrons.
Q3) Which of the following statements about benzene is true?
A) Benzene is a saturated hydrocarbon.
B) Benzene undergoes addition reactions.
C) Benzene has five degrees of unsaturation.
D) Benzene undergoes substitution reactions.
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Q1) What is the electrophile in aromatic sulfonation?
A) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
C) SO<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>
D) HSO<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>
Q2) Which of the following substituents is an ortho, para director?
A) "- CHO"
B) "- COOH"
C) "- NHCOR"
D) "- CN"
Q3) Which of the following substituents is a meta director?
A) "- N(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>"
B) "- OCH<sub>3</sub>"
C) "- NHCOCH<sub>3</sub>"
D) "- SO<sub>3</sub>H"
Q4) How can polyalkylation be minimized in Friedel-Crafts alkylation?
A) Use a large excess of alkyl halide relative to the aromatic compound.
B) Use a large excess of benzene relative to the alkyl halide.
C) Use an alkyl halide without a Lewis acid catalyst.
D) Use a large excess of the Lewis acid catalyst.
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Q1) What physical property and reaction type are used by extraction as useful techniques to separate and purify mixtures of compounds?
A) Physical property = solubility differences; reaction type = acid-base reaction.
B) Physical property = boiling point; reaction type = acid-base reaction.
C) Physical property = solubility differences; reaction type = oxidation-reduction.
D) Physical property = density; reaction type = oxidation-reduction.
Q2) Where do the two noteworthy peaks of carboxylic acids appear in <sup>1</sup>HNMR spectra?
A) Between 10 and 12 ppm for the OH proton and 2-2.5 ppm for the protons on the \(\alpha\) carbon to the carboxy group.
B) Between 6 and 9 ppm for the OH proton and 2-2.5 ppm for the protons on the \(\alpha\) carbon to the carboxy group.
C) Between 10 and 12 ppm for the OH proton and 1-1.5 ppm for the protons on the \(\alpha\) carbon to the carboxy group.
D) Between 6 and 9 ppm for the OH proton and 1-1.5 ppm for the protons on the \(\alpha\) carbon to the carboxy group.
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Q1) A carbonyl group, C=O, and an alkene, C=C, double bonds, are both sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized. However, the chemistry of these two functional groups is very different. This can be explained by which of the following statements?
A) The bond angle of the carbonyl is larger than the bond angle of the alkene.
B) The electronegative oxygen of the C=O group makes this bond polar.
C) The bond of the C=C is longer that the bond of the C=O.
D) There is more steric crowding in the carbonyl than in the alkene.
Q2) What is the name of the general reaction type that carboxylic acids, esters, and amides undergo?
A) Electrophilic acyl addition
B) Nucleophilic acyl addition
C) Nucleophilic acyl substitution
D) Electrophilic acyl substitution
Q3) Which of the following terms explain why aldehydes are more reactive than ketones?
A) Electronegativity and resonance
B) Hybridization and resonance
C) Electronegativity and hybridization
D) Sterics and electronics
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Q1) Identify how you could synthesize an enamine.
A) React a ketone or an aldehyde with a secondary amine.
B) React a ketone or an aldehyde with a primary amine.
C) React a ylide with a primary amine.
D) React a ylide with a secondary amine.
Q2) What is the first step in nucleophilic addition under acidic conditions?
A) Protonation of the nucleophile
B) Addition of the nucleophile
C) Loss of water
D) Protonation of the carbonyl
Q3) Why can't you use acidic conditions (such as aqueous hydrochloric acid) for the addition of a Grignard reagent to a ketone?
A) Because the Grignard reagent will react with the acid and be quenched.
B) Because the ketone will be protonated and thus unreactive.
C) Because the ketone will form an unreactive enol.
D) Because the Grignard reagent won't dissolve in aqueous solutions.
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Q1) How can you convert a carboxylic acid into an ester?
A) Heat with an alcohol and catalytic acid
B) Deprotonate with a base and react with an alcohol
C) Deprotonate with a base and react with an alkyl halide
D) Both (a) heat with an alcohol and catalytic acid and (c) deprotonate with a base and react with an alkyl halide
E) Both (a) heat with an alcohol and catalytic acid and (b) deprotonate with a base and react with an alcohol
Q2) What is the first step in the general mechanism for nucleophilic acyl substitution?
A) Protonation of the carbonyl
B) Removal of an \(\alpha\)-proton
C) Addition of the nucleophile to the carbonyl
D) Loss of the leaving group
Q3) Which of the following reaction conditions can be used to synthesize an ester (RCOOR')?
A) RCOCl + R'NH<sub>2</sub> + pyridine
B) RCOOH + R'OH + H<sup>+</sup>
C) RCOOH + R'OH + OH<sup>-</sup>
D) RCONH<sub>2</sub> + R'OH
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Q1) Which of the following compounds is the most acidic?
A) Ethyl acetoacetate
B) 2-Butanone
C) 1-Butanol
D) 3-Pentanone
Q2) For most compounds with a single keto group in the molecule, equilibrium favors the keto form over the enol form of the compound. This is due largely to what?
A) The C=O bond is much stronger than the C=C bond.
B) The C=C bond is much stronger than the C=O bond.
C) The keto form can undergo intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
D) The enol form can undergo intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Q3) Why is the enolate of acetone less basic than the allyl anion derived from propene?
A) Because there are more atoms in acetone
B) Because there are more resonance structures for the enolate of acetone
C) It isn't; the allyl anion is less basic.
D) One of the resonance structures for the enolate places the negative charge on the more electronegative oxygen.
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Q1) In the correct order, what are the three general steps in the mechanism of a Claisen reaction?
A) Enolate formation, elimination, nucleophilic addition.
B) Enolate formation, nucleophilic addition, elimination.
C) Elimination, enolate formation, nucleophilic addition.
D) Nucleophilic addition, enolate formation, elimination.
Q2) In what situation can the yield of a single crossed Aldol product be increased?
A) The electrophilic carbonyl component is relatively unhindered and is used in excess.
B) The electrophilic carbonyl carbon component is relatively hindered and is used in limited amount.
C) The nucleophilic carbonyl component is relatively unhindered and is used in excess.
D) The nucleophilic carbonyl component is relatively hindered and is used in limited amount.
Q3) What is the name given to the Claisen reaction between two different esters?
A) multiple Claisen reaction
B) differential Claisen reaction
C) crossed Claisen reaction
D) versatile Claisen reaction
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Q1) What is the approximate bond angle of the substituents around a nitrogen atom in amines?
A) 90°
B) 109.5°
C) 120°
D) 180°
Q2) Which of the following alkyl halides cannot be used to prepare primary amines by the Gabriel synthesis?
A) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
B) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
C) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
D) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
Q3) Why are 1°, 2°, and 3° alkylamines more basic than ammonia (NH<sub>3</sub>)?
A) Because of the electron-withdrawing inductive effect of the alkyl groups.
B) Because of the steric hindrance of the alkyl groups.
C) Because of the resonance delocalization of the alkyl groups.
D) Because of electron-donating inductive effect of the alkyl groups.
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Q1) Dichlorocarbene reacts with an alkene to form a cyclopropane derivative. In this reaction the dichlorocarbene acts as a(n)
A) Lewis base.
B) electrophile.
C) nucleophile.
D) Brønsted-Lowry base.
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes a reaction yielding a dichorocarbene?
A) The reaction of chloroform with KOC(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
B) The reaction of chloroform with Zn(Cu).
C) The reaction of chloroform with (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CuLi.
D) The reaction of diazomethane with KOC(CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
Q3) Which class of compounds listed below does not react with organocuprate reagents to form a coupling product that contains a new carbon-carbon bond?
A) 1° alkyl halides
B) 3° alkyl halides
C) vinyl halides
D) aryl halides
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Q1) How many nodes are present in \(\varPsi\) <sub>5</sub> of 1,3,5,7,9-decapentaene?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q2) Which of the following statements about orbital symmetry and cycloaddition reactions is true?
A) Thermal cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by a suprafacial pathway.
B) Thermal cycloaddition involving an odd number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by an antarafacial pathway.
C) Photochemical cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by an antarafacial pathway.
D) Photochemical cycloadditions involving an even number of \(\pi\) bonds proceed by a suprafacial pathway.
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Q1) Cellulose is a polysaccharide with ________________________ linkages.
A) "\(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
B) "\(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
C) "\(\beta\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
D) "\(\alpha\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
Q2) What is the classification of pyranose forms of monosaccharides?
A) 5-membered cyclic hemiacetals
B) 6-membered cyclic acetals
C) 5-membered cyclic acetals
D) 6-membered cyclic hemiacetals
Q3) Amylose is a polysaccharide with ________________________ linkages.
A) "\(\beta\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
B) "\(\alpha\)-1,4'-glycosidic"
C) "\(\beta\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
D) "\(\alpha\)-1,6'-glycosidic"
Q4) Does a monosaccharide prefer to exist in the open-chain or closed-ring form?
A) open
B) closed
C) Both forms exist in equal ratios.
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the Merrifield synthesis?
A) It uses a solid phase technique for the synthesis of peptides.
B) It uses DCC (dicyclohexylcarbodiimide) to form the amide bond in a peptide synthesis.
C) It uses BOC (tert-butoxycarbonyl) as a protecting group for peptide synthesis.
D) It uses aqueous phase techniques for the synthesis of large polypeptides.
Q2) Which of the following is (are) globular protein(s)?
A) hemoglobin
B) keratins
C) collagens
D) elastins
Q3) Which of the following amino acids is achiral?
A) phenylalanine
B) glycine
C) valine
D) alanine
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Q1) Eicosanoids are derived from what compound?
A) arachidonic acid
B) cyclohexane
C) cholesterol
D) triacyl glycerols
Q2) What happens to the melting point in fatty acids as the unsaturation increases?
A) It increases
B) It decreases.
C) There is no direct correlation between unsaturation and melting point.
D) The melting point stays the same.
Q3) Which of the following correctly describes waxes?
A) long chain alcohols
B) long chain esters
C) long chain ethers
D) long chain fatty acids
Q4) What is (are) the basic subunits of terpenes?
A) cyclohexane
B) triacyl glycerols
C) isoprene
D) carbonyls
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Q1) Which of the following is (are) condensation polymer(s)? I. polypropylene
II) Teflon
III) nylon
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Only III
D) Both II and III
Q2) Which type of polymerization process uses benzoyl peroxide (or other peroxides) as an initiator?
A) free-radical chain-growth
B) cationic chain-growth
C) anionic chain-growth
D) acid-catalyzed step-growth
Q3) Which of the following initiators can be used for anionic chain-growth polymerization?
A) benzoyl peroxide
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>Li
C) BF<sub>3</sub>
D) Al(CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>, TiCl<sub>4</sub>
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