

Chemistry for Allied Health Final Exam
Course Introduction
Chemistry for Allied Health introduces the fundamental principles of general, organic, and biological chemistry with a focus on their application in healthcare settings. Students explore the chemical basis of bodily processes, the properties and interactions of pharmaceuticals, and safety considerations relevant to clinical environments. The course emphasizes problem-solving, critical thinking, and the interpretation of chemical information as it relates to body systems, diagnostic tests, and medical treatments, preparing students for further studies or careers in nursing, pharmacy, and related allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry for Today General Organic and Biochemistry 8th Edition by Seager
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Matter, measurements, and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eighteen students in a class will get this question correct.If that represents 45% of the class,how large is the class?
A) 20
B) 40
C) 60
D) 100
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is an SI unit?
A) gram
B) liter
C) meter
D) calorie
Answer: C
Q3) The number 0.00816 expressed correctly using scientific notation is _____ .
A) 8.16 * 10<sup>2</sup>
B) 8.16 * 10<sup>3</sup>
C) 8.16 * 10<sup>-2</sup>
D) 8.16 * 10<sup>-3</sup>
Answer: D
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Page 3

Chapter 2: Atoms and Molecules
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Q1) How many moles of Na<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub> contain 14 moles of oxygen atoms?
A) 2 mol Na<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>
B) 14 mol Na<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>
C) 7 mol Na<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>
D) 1 mol Na<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>
Answer: A
Q2) The formula for dinitrogen monoxide is N<sub>2</sub>O.If a sample of the oxide was found to contain 0.0800 g of oxygen,how many grams of nitrogen would it contain?
A) 0.140
B) 0.280
C) 0.560
D) 0.0700
Answer: A
Q3) A scanning tunneling microscope (STM)relies on a very strong light source to help see atoms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Electronic Structure and the Periodic Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which element is used for relieving the symptoms of a cold?
A) Au
B) K
C) Zn
D) Fe
Answer: C
Q2) If the formula for sulfuric acid is H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>,what would be the expected formula for the compound between hydrogen and tellurium,Te?
A) H<sub>2</sub>TeO<sub>4</sub>
B) HTe
C) HTe<sub>2</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>Te
Answer: A
Q3) The radius of a K atom is ____ a Ca atom.
A) smaller than
B) larger than C) equal to
D) inverted from
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Forces Between Particles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of interparticle forces leads to compounds with the lowest melting points?
A) covalent
B) dispersion
C) ionic
D) dipole-dipole
Q2) The correct name for K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> is _____ .
A) potassium sulfate
B) potassium sulfide
C) potassium sulfite
D) potassium tetrasulfoxygen
Q3) For some representative metals,two possible ions can be formed.Why?
A) s electrons can fill the next lower d orbital.
B) They can lose electrons to form a cation and gain electrons to form an anion.
C) They can lose the s electrons or all electrons in their outer shell.
D) They can lose just the p electrons or all electrons in their outer shell.
Q4) Only compounds containing hydrogen attached to an oxygen,nitrogen,or fluoride atom can exhibit hydrogen bonding.
A)True
B)False

Page 6
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Chapter 5: Chemical Reactions
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Q1) The reactions NaOH + HCl \(\rarr\) H<sub>2</sub>O + NaCl and Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> + 2HBr \(\rarr\) 2H<sub>2</sub>O + CaBr<sub>2</sub> have the same net ionic equation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Suppose 2.43 g of magnesium is reacted with 3.20 g of oxygen: 2Mg + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2MgO.How many grams of MgO will be produced?
A) 5.63
B) 1.27
C) 8.06
D) 4.03
Q3) Which of the following is a combination reaction?
A) SO<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2SO<sub>3</sub>
B) 2C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> + 5O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 4CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O
C) 2H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2H<sub>2</sub>O + O<sub>2</sub>
D) AgNO<sub>3</sub> + NaCl \(\rarr\) AgCl + NaNO<sub>3</sub>
Q4) Most reactions give a percent yield of almost 100%.
A)True
B)False

Page 7
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Chapter 6: The States of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who developed the concept of partial pressure of gases in a mixture?
A) Charles
B) Boyle
C) Avogadro
D) Dalton
Q2) Small compressibility is a characteristic of which state of matter?
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gaseous
D) more than one response is correct
Q3) You have a patient that is currently experience extreme discomfort after eating a large quantity of beans.The pain is being caused by the build up of gas pressure in the large intestines.If you were able to put a pressure gauge in to the patient,which of the following would be a reasonable pressure that you might observe.
A) 860 torr
B) 860 psi
C) 860 pascal
D) 860 atm
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8

Chapter 7: Solutions and Colloids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Express the following concentration of solution in terms of molarity: 3.00 L of solution contains 1.75 mol of solute.
A) 5.25 M
B) 0.583 M
C) 1.71 M
D) too little information to know
Q2) A solution is made by combining 4.00 g of sugar and 100 mL of water (density = 1.00 g/mL).What is the concentration in % w/w?
A) 26.0
B) 4.00
C) 0.0400
D) 3.85
Q3) Oil should be a good solvent for polar compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rock candy (large table sugar crystals)can be produced by allowing a hot,saturated solution of sugar in water to cool off.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Reaction Rates and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reaction conditions for a specific reaction,BCD + HA \(\rarr\) ABCDH,are correct,but the reaction does not occur.What could be the reason?
A) There are no collisions between the molecules.
B) The collisions of the particles with the container walls remove the required energy because it is transferred to the container molecules.
C) The orientation of the molecules with respect to each other is not correct for the reaction to occur.
D) There is more than one answer.
Q2) A reaction is spontaneous when the conditions are A) present for that reaction to progress and it does.
B) at STP.
C) such for an exothermic reaction that there is less energy in the reactants than in the products.
D) There is more than one correct response.
Q3) At equilibrium,the relative concentrations of each species is the same as the coefficients in the balanced chemical equation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Acids,bases,and Salts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the following list of pK<sub>a</sub> values for a series of acids.Which is the strongest acid?
A) 5.74
B) 3.21
C) 10.6
D) Cannot be determined.
Q2) What would be the pH of a solution of NH<sub>4</sub>Cl in pure water?
A) higher than 7
B) lower than 7
C) equal to 7
D) can't be predicted
Q3) Which of the following statements is true for neutral solutions in which water is the solvent?
A) Neutral solutions contain no H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> ions.
B) Neutral solutions contain no OH<sup>-</sup> ions.
C) Neutral solutions contain H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup> ions in equal concentrations.
D) More than one response is correct.
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11

Chapter 10: Radioactivity and Nuclear Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you are a medical professional and have a chance to be exposed to many sources of radiation,which of the following units to measure biological radiation will most likely be used to express your level of total exposure?
A) roentgen
B) rad
C) gray
D) rem
Q2) In nuclear reactions,the principle change occurs in the ______.
A) molecular bonds
B) electron arrangement
C) physical state of the matter
D) nucleus of the atom
Q3) The reasons why I-131 is not suitable for use as a tracer are the same reasons why I-131 is an appropriate choice to treat thyroid cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Radioisotopes which emit alpha rays make the best diagnostic tracers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Organic Compounds: Alkanes
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many isomers (structural + geometric)exist for dibromocyclopentane (C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>8</sub>Br<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3
Q2) Alkanes are ____ in water and ____ than water.
A) insoluble,less dense
B) soluble,less dense
C) insoluble,more dense
D) soluble,more dense
Q3) A characteristic of the alkanes is that they burn in air.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An organic food is defined as something that contains organic chemicals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Isomers have identical physical and chemical properties.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
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Q1) Comparing unbranched alkanes and alkenes of the same length,alkenes have higher melting and boiling points.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of hybridization is associated with the carbons in ethene?
A) sp
B) sp<sup>2</sup>
C) sp<sup>3</sup>
D) sp<sup>4</sup>
Q3) Acetylene is commercially useful as a fuel for torches and as A) a starting material for plastics.
B) an industrial solvent.
C) an ingredient in pesticides.
D) a component in paint formulations.
Q4) The addition of two moles of hydrogen to an alkyne produces an _____ .
A) alkane
B) alkene
C) aromatic
D) alkyl halide
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Chapter 13: Alcohols, phenols, and Ethers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohols can form either alkenes or ethers upon dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which compound would have the highest boiling point?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>-O-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>3</sub>
B)
CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>3</sub>
C) CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-O-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>3</sub>
D) CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-OH
Q3) Because phenol contains a hydroxy,it is referred to as an alcohol,but the presence of the benzene ring takes phenol out of the alcohol class.The reason is that phenol is remarkably stable and is not able to react chemically as an alcohol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare glycerol with ethanol.
A) They both contain 3 carbons in the skeleton.
B) They both have the hydroxy on an interior carbon.
C) Glycerol is a long chain alcohol;ethanol is a short chain alcohol.
D) Glycerol is a triol;ethanol is not a triol.
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Chapter 14: Aldehydes and Ketones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances can be used to produce a chemical tan?
A) benzaldehyde
B) dihydroxyacetone
C) menthone
D) citral
Q2) The name 4,5-dichlorocyclohexanone should be
A) 1,2-dichlorocyclohexanone.
B) 2,3-dichlorocyclohexanone.
C) 3,4-dichlorocyclohexanone.
D) 4,5-dichlorocyclohexanone.
Q3) Which of the following is a water soluble,organic solvent?
A) vanilloids
B) hemiacetals
C) acetone
D) diethyl ether
Q4) What are the risks of constant sunbathing?
A) skin cancer
B) premature aging of the skin
C) thickening of the skin
D) more than one response is correct

Page 16
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Chapter 15: Carboxylic Acids and Esters
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Q1) What would be the products if ethyl stearate were to undergo hydrolysis?
A) There would be no products formed.
B) The products would be ethylaldehyde and stearone.
C) The products would be ethanol and stearic acid.
D) The products would be ethyl stearate hydrate.
Q2) Esters contain a carbonyl group attached directly to two carbons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following correctly shows what is produced as a result of increased oxidation of carbon?
A) alcohol > aldehyde > ketone > carboxylic acid
B) alkene > alcohol > aldehyde > carboxylic acid
C) ketone > alcohol > carboxylic acid > aldehyde
D) alcohol > alkene > ketone > aldehyde
Q4) Nitroglycerin is a compound that is formed by the reaction of three molecules of nitric acid with a molecule of glycerol,and is an ester.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17

Chapter 16: Amines and Amides
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Q1) Hydrolysis of an amide under basic conditions produces
A) a carboxylic acid and amine.
B) a carboxylate salt and amine salt.
C) a carboxylic acid and amine salt.
D) a carboxylate salt and amine.
Q2) The amines are very common organic compounds that behave as bases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An alkaloid present in some cough syrups is _____.
A) morphine
B) cocaine
C) codeine
D) methadone
Q4) Nylon,a polyamide,forms from the reaction of a diacid chloride and a ____.
A) amide
B) amine
C) diamide
D) diamine
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Chapter 17: Carbohydrates
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Q1) The cyclic form of glucose has how many possible stereoisomers compared to the noncyclic form?
A) double
B) triple
C) reduced by half
D) remains the same
Q2) Which of the following is a disaccharide?
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) galactose
D) maltose
Q3) The L form of a stereoisomer has an -OH on the left in the Fischer projection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Starch is made up of 50 to 100 glucose units.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Polysaccharides usually give a negative Benedict's test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A phosphoglyceride containing a choline component is called a _____.
A) sphingolipid
B) cephaline
C) glycolipid
D) lecithin
Q2) How many moles of hydrogen would be need to completely hydrogenate two moles of arachidonic acid (shown below)in the presence of a Ni catalyst?
CH<sub>3</sub>(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>4</sub>(CH=CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>4</sub>(C H<sub>2</sub>)<sub>2</sub>COOH
A) 1 mole H<sub>2</sub>
B) 4 moles H<sub>2</sub>
C) 2 moles H<sub>2</sub>
D) 8 moles H<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Fats are saponifiable lipids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cell membranes are about 60% lipids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Proteins
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Q1) The association of several protein chains into a larger structure as in the case of hemoglobin is an example of ____ structure.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
Q2) The major difference between normal hemoglobin and that of sickle cell anemia is
A) sickle cell hemoglobin is the L isomer and the normal is the D isomer.
B) sickle cell hemoglobin is a much smaller molecule than normal hemoglobin.
C) sickle cell hemoglobin is assembled in a reverse manner.
D) sickle cell hemoglobin has one different amino acid in each \(\beta\)-chain.
Q3) What type of interaction forms when two nonpolar side chains are in close proximity?
A) disulfide bridge
B) hydrogen bond
C) hydrophilic interaction
D) hydrophobic interaction
Q4) All twenty common amino acids contain at least one chiral carbon.
A)True
B)False

Page 21
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Chapter 20: Enzymes
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Q1) Which of the following terms is a general definition of an enzyme?
A) catalyst
B) lipid
C) carbohydrate
D) activator
Q2) The conversion of a zymogen into an enzyme usually involves another enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Enzymes increase the rates of only certain reactions involving certain substances.This general characteristic is called ____.
A) selectivity
B) enzyme regulation
C) specificity
D) catalytic efficiency
Q4) Which of the following is a common function of many vitamins in the body?
A) substrates
B) apoenzymes
C) coenzymes
D) activators
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Chapter 21: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis
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Q1) -phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar- is an example of a ____ backbone.
A) human
B) chemical
C) nucleic acid
D) all the choices
Q2) Modified plasmids can diffuse into bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chemicals which cause mutations are called _____ .
A) mutagens
B) mutations
C) genetic inhibitors
D) genetic modifiers
Q4) What is the difference between deoxyribose and ribose?
A) Deoxyribose is a d form,whereas ribose does not form either d or l forms.
B) Deoxyribose has one less oxygen atom than does ribose.
C) Ribose is found in the straight chain structure,whereas deoxyribose is not.
D) Ribose is a monosaccharide,but deoxyribose is a polysaccharide.
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Energy for Life
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Q1) The 2000-Calorie diet was chosen as the standard because all humans require 2000 calories daily.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a risk(s)of male having a waist over 40 inches?
A) some types of cancer
B) stroke
C) heart disease
D) all of these
Q3) Reactions requiring energy often occur with the simultaneous hydrolysis of ___ .
A) acetyl CoA
B) glucose
C) ATP
D) P<sub>i</sub>
Q4) Minerals needed by the body are in the form of _____ .
A) free elements
B) ions
C) compounds
D) More than one response is correct.
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Chapter 23: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) In the body,the fermentation process is limited to production of lactate from pyruvate in the muscles.However,there are other types of fermentation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each turn of the citric acid cycle produces ____ NADH coenzyme(s).
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q3) What is the final acceptor of electrons during electron transport?
A) NAD<sup>+</sup>
B) NADH
C) FAD
D) O<sub>2</sub>
Q4) The function of insulin is that it causes the cells to remove glucose from the circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Lipid and Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) If an individual does not have a sufficient level of insulin in the blood,the uptake of glucose by the cells is inhibited.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The enzyme associated with the hydrolysis of fats in the intestines is a _____.
A) hydrolase
B) ligase
C) lipase
D) hydroxylase
Q3) Which of the following substances is not considered one of the ketone bodies?
A) methyl ethyl ketone
B) acetone
C) acetoacetate
D) (\(\beta\)-hydroxybutyrate)
Q4) Which of the following is NOT considered a source of amino acids in humans?
A) protein turnover
B) transamination
C) diet
D) nitrogen fixation
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Chapter 25: Body Fluids
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Q1) A patient comes in with all the signs of jaundice.You order a test of the patient's urine.What constituent in the urine would you be looking for at elevated levels?
A) glucose
B) protein
C) ketone bodies
D) bile pigments
Q2) Prolonged diarrhea can lead to _____ .
A) metabolic acidosis
B) metabolic alkalosis
C) respiratory acidosis
D) respiratory alkalosis
Q3) Carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream chiefly in the form of _____ .
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
C) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
D) CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>
Q4) The largest category of body fluids is intracellular fluid.
A)True
B)False
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