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Chemical Science is a multidisciplinary field that explores the composition, structure, properties, and changes of matter at the molecular and atomic levels. The course provides foundational knowledge in general, organic, inorganic, physical, and analytical chemistry, examining both theoretical concepts and practical laboratory techniques. Through the study of chemical reactions, bonding, energetics, and kinetics, students learn how chemical principles underpin a wide range of phenomena in natural and industrial processes. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, problem-solving, and the real-world applications of chemistry in fields such as pharmaceuticals, materials science, environmental science, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry 6th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Convert 1 m to meters.
A)1 × 10<sup>-9</sup> m
B)1 × 10<sup>-6</sup> m
C)1 × 10<sup>-3</sup> m
D)1 × 10<sup>6</sup> m
Answer: B
Q2) A piece of metal ore weighs 8.25 g.When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water,the liquid level rises from 21.25 mL to 26.47 mL.What is the density of the ore?
A)0)312 g/mL
B)0)633 g/mL
C)1)58 g/mL
D)3)21 g/mL
Answer: C
Q3) Given that 2.54 cm = 1 in,350 in<sup>3</sup> = ________ L.
Answer: 5.74
Q4) The quantity 3.00 cm<sup>3</sup> is the same as ________ mL.
Answer: 3.00
Q5) Pb is the symbol for the element ________.
Answer: lead

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Q1) What kind of decay process is occurring in the decay of isotope B to isotope C in the figure shown above?
A) emission
B) emission
C) emission
D)electron capture or positron emission
Answer: B
Q2) The ion,IO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>,is named
A)iodate ion.
B)iodite ion.
C)iodine dioxide ion.
D)iodine(II)oxide ion.
Answer: B
Q3) Which drawing represents the ionic compound Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>?
A)drawing (a)
B)drawing (b)
C)drawing (c)
D)drawing (d)
Answer: B
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Q1) Given the chemical equation: N<sub>2</sub> + 3 H<sub>2</sub> 2 NH<sub>3</sub>.On a molecular level,what do the coefficients mean?
A)1 atom of nitrogen reacts with 3 atoms of hydrogen to give 2 atoms of ammonia.
B)28 g of nitrogen reacts with 6 grams of hydrogen to give 34 grams of ammonia.
C)1 mole of nitrogen reacts with 3 moles of hydrogen to give 2 moles of ammonia.
D)1 molecule of nitrogen reacts with 3 molecules of hydrogen to give 2 molecules of ammonia.
Answer: D
Q2) What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.80 g of NaOH in enough water to make 250 mL of solution?
Answer: 0.080 M
Q3) The balanced equation for the reaction of acetylene,C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>,and oxygen in an acetylene torch is 2 C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> + 5 O<sub>2</sub> 4 CO<sub>2</sub> + 2 H<sub>2</sub>O.
In this reaction the number of grams of oxygen required to react with 0.13 g of acetylene is ________.
Answer: 0.40 g
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Q1) What is the oxidation number of the oxygen atom in H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>?
A)-2
B)-1
C)+1
D)+2
Q2) Based on the balanced chemical equation shown below,what volume of 0.250 M K<sub>2</sub>S<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>(aq),is needed to completely react with 24.88 mL of 0.125 M KI<sub>3</sub>(aq)?
2 S<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)+ I<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)
S<sub>4</sub>O<sub>6</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)+ 3 I<sup>-</sup>(aq)
A)6)22 mL
B)12.4 mL
C)24.9 mL
D)99.5 mL
Q3) When NaOH(aq)is mixed with CuSO<sub>4</sub>(aq)a precipitate forms.Based on solubility guidelines the formula of the precipitate is ________.
Q4) CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H is an example of a ________ electrolyte.
Q5) The oxidation number of hydrogen in CaH<sub>2</sub> is ________.
Q6) The best oxidizing agents are found at the ________ of the activity series.
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Balmer-Rydberg equation,which transition results in the emission of a photon in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum?
A)m = 1 n = 2
B)m = 3 n = 4
C)m = 2 n = 1
D)m = 4 n = 3
Q2) What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron (m = 9.11 × 10<sup>-31</sup>
kg)moving at a velocity of 3)0 × 10<sup>7</sup> m/s (10% of the speed of light)?
A)less than 3.9 × 10<sup>-12</sup> m
B)2)4 × 10<sup>-11</sup> m
C)3)3 × 10<sup>-8</sup> m
D)greater than 1.1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> m
Q3) What is the general valence-electron ground-state electron configuration for neutral alkaline earth metals?
A)ns<sup>1</sup>
B)ns<sup>2</sup>
C)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>1</sup>
D)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sphere most likely represents the K<sup>+</sup> ion?
A)A
B)B
C)A or B
D)C or D
Q2) How many electrons are in the outermost shell of the In<sup>3+</sup> ion in its ground state?
A)2
B)3
C)6
D)18
Q3) Which ion does not have a noble gas configuration in its ground state?
A)Sc<sup>3+</sup>
B)Al<sup>3+</sup>
C)Ga<sup>3+</sup>
D)As<sup>3-</sup>
Q4) The element in group 7A with the least favorable (least negative)electron affinity is
Q5) The ion Q<sup>2+</sup> contains 10 electrons.The identity of element Q is
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which element can accommodate more than eight electrons in its valence shell?
A)C
B)O
C)P
D)He
Q2) Given that O<sub>2</sub> is paramagnetic and has a bond order of 2,and its highest occupied molecular orbital is antibonding,what would be the expected bond orders for O<sub>2</sub><sup>2-</sup> and O<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup>?
A)1 for O<sub>2</sub><sup>2-</sup> and 3 for O<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup>
B)3/2 for O<sub>2</sub><sup>2-</sup> and 5/2 for O<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup>
C)5/2 for O<sub>2</sub><sup>2-</sup> and 3/2 for O<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup>
D)3 for O<sub>2</sub><sup>2-</sup> and 1 for O<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup>
Q3) The orbital hybridization on the carbon atom in HCN is A)sp.
B)sp<sup>2</sup>.
C)sp<sup>3</sup>.
D)None of these
Q4) The Lewis electron-dot structure of N<sub>2</sub> has ________ nonbonding electrons pairs,________ bonding electron pairs,and a bond order of ________.
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Q1) The first law of thermodynamics
A)defines chemical energy.
B)defines entropy.
C)is a statement of conservation of energy.
D)provides a criterion for the spontaneity of a reaction.
Q2) For the reaction I<sub>2</sub>(g) I<sub>2</sub>(s), H° = -62.4 kJ at 25°C.Based on these data,at 25°C
A) H°<sub>vap</sub> = -62.4 kJ/mol.
B) H°<sub>vap</sub> = 62.4 kJ/mol.
C) H°<sub>sub</sub> = -62.4 kJ/mol.
D) H°<sub>sub</sub> = 62.4 kJ/mol.
Q3) Which combination always results in a reaction being spontaneous?
A) H is negative and S is negative.
B) H is negative and S is positive.
C) H is positive and S is negative.
D) H is positive and S is positive.
Q4) Is chemical energy a form of kinetic or potential molecular energy?
Q5) A reaction for which E = -450 kJ is one in which products have 450 kJ ________ internal energy than the reactants,and products are ________ stable than the reactants.
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Q1) What is the average speed (actually the root-mean-square speed)of a neon atom at 27°C?
A)5)78 m/s
B)19.3 m/s
C)183 m/s
D)609 m/s
Q2) Which of the following regions of the earth's atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
A)mesosphere
B)stratosphere
C)thermosphere
D)troposphere
Q3) Some assumptions from the kinetic molecular theory are listed below.Which one is most frequently cited to explain Charles' law?
A)The average kinetic energy of gas particles is proportional to the Kelvin temperature.
B)Collisions of gas particles are elastic and total kinetic energy of the gas is constant.
C)A gas consists of tiny particles moving in random straight line motion.
D)The volume of the particles is negligible compared to the volume of the gas.
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Q1) The critical temperature of a substance is the A)highest temperature at which the liquid phase can exist in equilibrium with the gas phase.
B)temperature above which the compound decomposes.
C)temperature at which all three phases can exist in equilibrium.
D)temperature at which sublimation occurs.
Q2) When a liquid is heated at its boiling point,the A)covalent bonds are broken,allowing vaporization to occur. B)temperature of the liquid increases.
C)temperature of the liquid remains the same as long as any liquid is present. D)temperature of the vapor phase increases.
Q3) Pt(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> is square planar.The isomer of Pt(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> that has a non-zero dipole moment has a Cl-Pt-Cl bond angle of ________ degrees.
Q4) Which of the following molecules does not have a dipole moment?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> <sub> </sub> <sub> </sub>
B)H<sub>2</sub>O
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH D)H I
Q5) The coordination number of each atom in a simple cubic unit cell is ________.
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Q1) Which concentration becomes smaller as the temperature is increased from 20°C to 80°C?
A)mass %
B)molality
C)molarity
D)mole fraction
Q2) When 2.36 g of a nonvolatile solute is dissolved in 100 g of solvent,the largest change in freezing point will be achieved when the solvent is
A)benzene,K<sub>f</sub> = 5.07.
B)camphor,K<sub>f</sub> = 37.8.
C)chloroform,K<sub>f</sub> = 4.70.
D)All are expected to have the same freezing point.
Q3) What is the molality of ethanol in a solution made by dissolving 14.6 g of ethanol,C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>OH,in 53.6 g of water?
A)0)00591 m
B)0)272 m
C)5)91 m
D)272 m
Q4) Molarity is defined as ________,whereas molality is defined as ________.
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Q1) The first-order reaction,SO<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> SO<sub>2</sub> + Cl<sub>2</sub>,has a half-life of 8.75 hours at 593 K.How long will it take for the concentration of SO<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub> to fall to 16.5% of its initial value?
A)0)143 hr
B)2)28 hr
C)6)99 hr
D)22.7 hr
Q2) The first-order decomposition of hydrogen peroxide occurs according to the equation
2 H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>(aq) 2 H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)
Using data from a concentration-time study of this reaction,which plot will produce a straight line?
A)[H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>] versus time
B)[H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>]<sup>2</sup> versus time
C)1/[H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>] versus time
D)ln[H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>] versus time
Q3) A reaction has a rate constant,k = 1.2 × 10<sup>-12</sup> s<sup>-1</sup> at 273 K and k = 5.1 × 10<sup>-7</sup> s<sup>-1</sup> at 373 K has an activation energy,E<sub>a</sub> = ________ kJ/mol.
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Q1) A reaction reaches dynamic equilibrium at a given temperature when
A)the amount of products exceeds the amount of reactants.
B)k<sub>fwd</sub> equals k<sub>rev</sub>.
C)opposing reactions cease and the system is static.
D)the relative amounts of reactants and products are constant and rate<sub>fwd</sub> = rate<sub>rev</sub>.
Q2) A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by providing a lower-energy mechanism for the reaction.When this occurs,which one of the following is not affected?
A)activation energy for the forward reaction
B)activation energy for the reverse reaction
C)equilibrium constant
D)rate of the reverse reaction
Q3) Which nonequilibrium mixtures will react in the reverse direction to reach equilibrium?
A)reaction mixtures (1)and (2)
B)reaction mixtures (1)and (4)
C)reaction mixtures (2)and (3)
D)reaction mixtures (3)and (4)
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Q1) What is the pH of a solution made by mixing 100.0 mL of 0.10 M HNO<sub>3</sub>,50.0 mL of 0.20 M HCl,and 100.0 mL of water? Assume that the volumes are additive.
A)0)30
B)0)82
C)1)00
D)1)10
Q2) Undersea flora prefer a maximum concentration of OH<sup>-</sup> of 1.58 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.The concentration of H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> in the seawater is ________,and this solution is ________ (acidic,basic,neutral).
Q3) What is the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 100.00 mL of 0.020 M Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> with 50.00 mL of 0.300 M NaOH? Assume that the volumes are additive.
A)13.05
B)13.10
C)13.28
D)13.58
Q4) A 0.10 M KNO<sub>2</sub> solution will have a pH ________ seven.
Q5) A proton hydrated by four water molecules has the formula ________.
Q6) The pH of a 0.025 M KOH solution is ________.
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Q1) What is the percent dissociation of ascorbic acid if the solution has a pH = 5.50 and a pK<sub>a</sub> = 4.10?
A)96%
B)10%
C)5%
D)1%
Q2) Which picture represents the system at the first equivalence point?
A)(1)
B)(2)
C)(3)
D)(4)
Q3) Addition of 0.0125 mol KOH to 150 mL of a 0.150 M formic acid/0.100 M sodium formate buffer results in a pH = ________? The K<sub>a</sub> of formic acid is 1.8 × 10<sup>-4</sup>.
Q4) Which of the following combinations of chemicals could be used to make a buffer solution?
A)HCl/NaOH
B)HCl/NH<sub>3</sub>
C)HCl/H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
D)NaOH/NH<sub>3</sub>

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Q1) Solid NaHCO<sub>3</sub> is heated to 90°C.At equilibrium the total pressure of the gases produced is 0.545 atm.Calculate G° at 90°C for the reaction 2 NaHCO<sub>3</sub>(s) Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(g)+ CO<sub>2</sub>(g).
A)-7.85 kJ
B)-3.67 kJ
C)+3.67 kJ
D)+7.85 kJ
Q2) Which of the following statements must be true for the entropy of a pure solid to be zero?
I.The temperature must be 0 K.
II.The solid must be crystalline,not amorphous.
III).The solid must be perfectly ordered.
IV.The solid must be an element.
A)I
B)I and II
C)I,II,and III
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q3) The entropy of water at 25° is ________ than the entropy of water at 35°C.
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Q1) Calculate the cell potential at 25°C for the cell Fe(s) (Fe<sup>2+</sup>(0.100 M) Pd<sup>2+</sup>(1.0 × 10<sup>-5</sup> M) Pd(s)
Given that the standard reduction potential for Fe<sup>2+</sup>/Fe is -0.45 V and for Pd<sup>2+</sup>/Pd is +0.95 V.
A)+1.16 V
B)+1.28 V
C)+1.52 V
D)+1.68 V
Q2) For the galvanic cell reaction,expressed below using shorthand notation,what half-reaction occurs at the cathode?
Zn(s) Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq) Ni<sup>2+</sup>(aq) Ni(s)
A)Zn(s) Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup>
B)Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup> Zn(s)
C)Ni(s) Ni<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup>
D)Ni<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup> Ni(s)
Q3) If a constant current of 1.50 × 10<sup>8</sup> A is passed through a molten mixture of aluminum oxide and cryolite for 4.00 hour ________ kg of aluminum can be produced.
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Q1) Which isotope of diatomic hydrogen should have the highest heat of vaporization?
A)H<sub>2</sub>
B)D<sub>2</sub>
C)T<sub>2</sub>
D)The values are equal.
Q2) What is the anhydrous form of nitric acid,HNO<sub>3</sub>?
A)NO
B)NO<sub>2</sub>
C)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
D)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
Q3) Which oxide is the most covalent?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q4) Which is not an isotope of hydrogen?
A)hydrogen-1
B)hydrogen-2
C)hydrogen-3
D)hydrogen-4

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Q1) As one traverses the periodic table from left to right,the effective nuclear charge
Z<sub>eff</sub> increases.As a result of this the periodic properties of ________.
A)atomic size increases,IE increases,EA increases and electronegativity increases
B)atomic size decreases,IE increases,EA increases and electronegativity increases
C)atomic size decreases,IE decreases,EA increases and electronegativity increases
D)atomic size decreases,IE increases,EA decreases and electronegativity increases
Q2) What is the oxidation number of carbon in CaC<sub>2</sub>?
A)+ 4
B)+ 1
C)- 1
D)- 2
Q3) When P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>10</sub> is dissolved in water,the water will have a(n)________ (acidic,basic,neutral)pH due to the reaction ________.
Q4) The most acidic oxides of the group 5A elements are oxides of the element
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Q1) A chromium(III)ion forms a complex ion with two ammonia molecules and four thiocyanate ions.What is the formula of the complex ion?
A)[Cr(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(NCS)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>3+</sup>
B)[Cr(NH<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(NCS)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>+</sup>
C)[Cr(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(NCS)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>-</sup>
D)[Cr(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(NCS)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>4-</sup>
Q2) The complex [Ni(CN)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2-</sup> is diamagnetic and the complex [NiCl<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2-</sup> is paramagnetic.What can you conclude about their molecular geometries?
A)Both complexes have square planar geometries.
B)Both complexes have tetrahedral geometries.
C)[NiCl<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2-</sup> has a square planar geometry while [Ni(CN)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2-</sup> has a tetrahedral geometry.
D)[NiCl<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2-</sup> has a tetrahedral geometry while [Ni(CN)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>2-</sup> has a square planar geometry.
Q3) The number of unpaired electrons in square planar PtCl<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> is ________.
Q4) Mn<sup>2+</sup> has ________ d electrons.
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Q1) Steel is a mixture composed primarily of ________.
A)iron and carbon
B)iron and copper
C)iron and silicon
D)iron and sulfur
Q2) Silica (SiO<sub>2</sub>)can be prepared from silicon ethoxide by the sol-gel process.Write a balanced equation for the hydrolysis of silicon ethoxide.
A)SiCl<sub>4</sub> + 4 HOCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> + 4 NH<sub>3</sub>
Si(OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub> + 4 NH<sub>4</sub>Cl (in benzene)
B)Si(OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub> + 4 H<sub>2</sub>O Si(OH)<sub>4</sub> + 4 HOCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
C)Si(OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub> + 4 HOCH<sub>3</sub>
Si(OCH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub> + 4 HOCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
D)Si(OCH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub> + 4 H<sub>2</sub>O Si(OH)<sub>4</sub> + 4 HOCH<sub>3</sub>
Q3) Copper can be obtained from its copper(I)sulfide ore by roasting.What is the balanced equation for the roasting of copper(I)sulfide?
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Q1) Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5715 years.Currently living organisms decay at a rate of 15.3 disintegrations/ min per gram of carbon.If an archeological artifact has a carbon-14 decay rate of 12.0 disintegrations/ min per gram of carbon,the approximate age of the artifact is ________ years old.
Q2) Which unit of radiation describes the amount of energy absorbed by a kilogram of tissue exposed to a radiation source?
A)becquerel
B)curie
C)rad
D)rem
Q3) A sievert is:
A)the amount of sample that undergoes 1 disintegration per second.
B)the amount of sample that undergoes 3.7 × 10<sup>10</sup> disintegrations per second.
C)the amount of tissue damage done by radiation.
D)equal to 0.01 J of energy absorbed per kilogram of tissue.
Q4) <sup>201</sup>Tl is used in myocardial perfusion imaging.It undergoes beta decay with a half-life of 73 hours generating 80 keV X-rays.A typical dose is 2.5 mCi which is equal to ________ Bq.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many isomers exist for C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>? Of these isomers,how many are straight-chain isomers and how many are branched isomers?
Q2) What is the H-C-H bond angle?
A)90°
B)109.5°
C)120°
D)180°
Q3) Lactose,or milk sugar,when hydrolyzed will form ________.
A)amylose and glycogen
B)cellulose and starch
C)glucose and galactose
D)fructose and maltose
Q4) What hybrid orbitals are used by carbon to form covalent bonds with hydrogen?
A)sp
B)sp<sup>2</sup>
C)sp<sup>3</sup>
D)sp<sup>3</sup><sup>d</sup>
Q5) The molecule
CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H contains an ________ functional group and a ________ functional group.
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