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Change Management explores the theories, strategies, and practical tools necessary to effectively guide organizations through periods of transformation. Students will learn how to assess organizational readiness for change, identify barriers and resistance, and implement successful change initiatives using proven frameworks. Emphasis is placed on leadership, communication, stakeholder engagement, and the human aspects of change. Case studies and real-world examples are used to illustrate how professionals can cultivate resilience and adaptability while aligning change efforts with organizational goals.
Recommended Textbook
Organization Development and Change 10th Edition by Thomas G. Cummings
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23 Chapters
473 Verified Questions
473 Flashcards
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Q1) Which of the following areas do OD practitioners need to be familiar with to carry out strategic change?
A) competitive strategy
B) organizational structure
C) culture
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Productivity and QWL ideas were originated by Kurt Lewin.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Strategic change interventions involve improving
A) the alignment among an organization's environment, strategy, and organization design
B) the organization's relationship to its environment
C) the fit between the organization's technical, political and cultural systems
D) all of the above
Answer: D
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Q1) The relationship between planned change and organizational performance and effectiveness is well understood.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) To be a successful in international settings, the OD practitioner must
A) educate client on their own cultural biases
B) follow the same general model of planned change as in domestic settings
C) adapt the action research process to fit the cultural context
D) provide feedback once process is complete
Answer: C
Q3) Which theory of planned change serves as the foundation for appreciative inquiry (AI)?
A) Lewin's Change Model
B) Action Research Model
C) The Positive Model
D) all of the above
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following is a foundation competency required of organization development practitioners?
A) organization design
B) systems dynamics
C) individual psychology
D) organizational development history
Answer: C
Q2) refers to the ability to recognize and express emotions appropriately, to use emotions in decisions, and to regulate emotions.
A) ethics
B) emotional intelligence
C) intervention
D) evaluation
Answer: B
Q3) Despite the flexibility of the OD profession, most OD professionals have had specific training in OD.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) How would you explain the contracting process to someone who had never heard of OD?
Q2) When it comes to entering into an OD relationship, what is meant by the phrase, "the problem is never the problem"?
A) new problems arise during the OD process
B) the presenting problem may just be a symptom rather than the real problem
C) the client may not reveal the problem
D) OD interventions only address symptoms, not problems
Q3) Why is it important to identify the relevant client in the organization when entering into an OD relationship?
A) there should be a good fit between the organizational decision-maker and the OD consultant
B) the client will be the one to explain the problem
C) OD efforts could fail if there are political struggles going on among the key decision makers
D) the relevant client has access to the right data
Q4) How might entering into an OD relationship differ for an internal OD practitioner compared to an external OD practitioner?
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Q1) An organization-level diagnosis is appropriate when A) the desired effectiveness of the firm has not yet been obtained
B) problems regarding employee effectiveness on an individual level exist
C) groups are struggling with goal clarity
D) tasks are being redesigned to enhance task significance
Q2) Compare and contrast the key dimensions of the general environment, the task environment and the enacted environment of an organization.
Q3) By nature of the "open systems" model, organizations are largely unaffected by external forces.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One indicator of effectiveness is that all levels of the organization "fit" and support each other.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Collaborating with management is essential for a successful diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Establishing a "diagnostic relationship" refers to
A) getting to know the client one-on-one
B) meeting organizational members regularly
C) clarifying expectations between relevant organizational members and the consultant
D) gathering data with organizational members
Q2) Questionnaires are often used because
A) they can collect data from many people
B) data can be analyzed quickly
C) they are inexpensive on a per-person basis
D) all of the above
Q3) Data analysis is usually guided by
A) the client system
B) the organization
C) the conceptual model underlying diagnosis
D) the type of data collected
Q4) Interview data can be collected and analyzed quickly.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Work design gets at the issue of job enrichment via greater task variety, autonomy, and feedback results.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following best describes technostructural interventions?
A) changing the high-tech areas within the organization
B) helping organizations decide on markets, products or services
C) changing job design and division of labor
D) none of the above
Q3) What aspects of an organization do OD interventions seek to change?
A) cultural context
B) specific process features
C) external environment
D) task environment
Q4) Human resources management practitioners mainly focus on
A) structure
B) strategy only
C) people
D) information systems
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Q1) Activity planning involves:
A) making a road map of key activities
B) identifying key people
C) creating special structures
D) creating new change strategies
Q2) Which power strategy is most closely aligned with OD's traditional humanistic values?
A) playing it straight
B) avoiding confrontation
C) using social networks
D) going around the formal system
Q3) Activity planning and commitment planning are key activities in
A) managing a transition
B) creating a vision
C) entry and contracting
D) diagnosis
Q4) Understanding how people experience change requires the change agent to have great capacity for empathy and support.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Understanding how an intervention is progressing is an example of feedback.
A) intervention
B) implementation
C) evaluation
D) personal
Q2) Job enrichment calls for adding discretion, variety, and meaningful feedback to people's jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define institutionalization and discuss specific institutionalization processes.
Q4) What are the two kinds of feedback involved in evaluation and what do they tell us?
Q5) External validity is irrelevant without internal validity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Evaluating OD interventions always involves measuring their impact on employee satisfaction, productivity, and the bottom line.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Discuss setting up valid research designs.
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Q1) Discuss how team building interventions help an organization. Describe activities that are relevant to individuals, the group and organization relationships.
Q2) The basic difference between process consultation and third-party interventions is that the latter focuses on interpersonal dysfunctions in social relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is difficult to isolate the impact of process consultations from other interventions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following are team building interventions?
A) role clarification
B) mission and goal development
C) goal setting
D) all of the above
Q5) Describe process consultation. Discuss when is should be used and how it applies to organization development.
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Q1) System wide process interventions include which of the following:
A) change programs directed at improving processes
B) task accomplishment between groups
C) subsystems
D) all of the above
Q2) Intergroup relations interventions are necessary whenever there is conflict between two or more groups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identifying the core mission of an organization and assessing the organization's responses to environmental expectations are two important aspects of what type of large group intervention:
A) open space methods
B) open system methods
C) diagnostic methods
D) conference methods
Q4) Describe the key success requirements for a microcosm group intervention.
Q5) Discuss the similarities and differences between an organization confrontation meeting and an intergroup conflict resolution intervention.
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Q1) Discuss the difference between process-based and network-based structures.
Q2) Which of the following is <u>not</u> one of the four basic network-based structures?
A) internal market network
B) opportunity network
C) strategic market network
D) aftermarket network
Q3) Which is <u>not</u> a characteristic of a process-based structure?
A) management defines performance metric standards
B) structures organized around 3-5 key processes that define the work of the organization
C) work is simplified by removing non-essential tasks and reducing layers of management
D) teams are fundamental
Q4) Downsizing is generally a response to at least two major conditions: organization decline due to implementation of a new structure or opposition to growth and expansion issues.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The key factors driving interest in Employee Involvement were competitive demands for lower costs, higher performance, and greater flexibility in organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the TQM approach to EI and how does it differ from other approaches? Discuss Deming's influence on this approach.
Q3) Employee involvement generally refers to the amount of power, rewards, information, and knowledge and skills associated with employee's work.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parallel structures are also called .
A) collateral structures
B) dualistic structures
C) shadow structures
D) all of the above
Q5) Describe the four elements associated with employee involvement interventions.
Q6) Discuss parallel structures and the type of organization that would benefit most from this approach.
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Q1) Which is not a principle of sociotechnical systems design?
A) compatibility
B) joint optimization
C) minimum critical specification
D) integration
Q2) Self-managed work group supervisors may feel
A) ambiguity about responsibilities and authority
B) a lack of personal and technical skills to deal with the group
C) a lack of organizational support
D) all of the above
Q3) Traditional jobs that show little need for worker cooperation are characterized as
A) having a high degree of technical uncertainty
B) having a low degree of technical uncertainty
C) having a high degree of technical interdependence
D) having a low degree of technical interdependence
Q4) "Vertical loading" of a job results in combined tasks and increased autonomy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the technical and personal-need factors that affect work design success?
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Q1) Which of the following is not a design criterion for performance appraisal?
A) acceptance by organizational members
B) must be available to top performing employees
C) focuses on critical control points
D) meets a cost/benefit test
Q2) Reward system process issues are concerned with
A) who designs the reward systems
B) who administers the reward systems
C) what kind of communication should exist about rewards
D) all of the above
Q3) What can be done to improve performance appraisal systems?
Q4) The goal setting process involves
A) establishing challenging goals
B) setting of goals
C) clarifying goal measurement
D) all of the above
Q5) Most decisions about promotions in organizations are made in a top-down, open manner.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Career planning is generally considered the responsibility of the employer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is <u>not</u> a distinct career stage?
A) the growth stage
B) the establishment stage
C) the maintenance stage
D) the withdrawal stage
Q3) In contrast to other career stages, organizations have been effective in helping employees cope with the "withdrawal" stage.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Coaching is a skill that any manager can develop.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast leadership development interventions with career development interventions? In what areas and activities might they overlap?
Q6) How do coaching and mentoring contribute to leadership development?
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Q1) Workforce diversity refers primarily to the increasing number of ethnic backgrounds entering the workforce.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Stress has been linked to hypertension, heart disease, and depression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is/are true of stress?
A) it involves physiological responses
B) it can be positive
C) it can ultimately lead to withdrawal behaviors
D) all of the above
Q4) Role clarification helps to alleviate stress in employees who are overworked.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the major diversity trends facing organizations and how organizations might use various OD interventions to respond to these trends.
Q6) Discuss methods to diagnose employee stress and the specific OD interventions aimed at alleviating it in the workplace.
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Q1) Transformations in organizations are often generated by significant environmental shocks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transformational changes are often driven by key senior executives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The competing values approach views culture as
A) a resolution of value dilemmas
B) a search for the right set of values
C) a fight among functional groups for the best culture
D) a simple clarification of what's most important
Q4) Under what conditions are transformational changes necessary?
Q5) Mechanistic designs support efficiency and control while organic designs promote innovation and change.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Transformational change is always developmental in nature.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Built-to-change interventions are best suited for organizations that are .
A) experiencing a change in ownership
B) facing a rapidly changing environment
C) performing poorly compared to last year's profits
D) operate in a stable market
Q2) How can an OD practitioner help an organization become self designing?
Q3) The most prevalent form of learning in organizations is single-loop learning which is focused on improving the status quo.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Knowledge management is more concerned with developing organizational capabilities while organization learning is more concerned with technical issues, such as how to store organization experience.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Organization learning (OL) interventions are typically associated with A) management and leadership teams
B) information systems and technology departments
C) human resources and social processes
D) none of the above

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Q1) In the identification stage of creating a network, which of the following activities do OD practitioners participate?
A) take an activist role in choosing potential members
B) survey the political realities of the new network
C) clarify the goals, products & technology exchanges of the network organizations
D) all of the above
Q2) The relational quality of alliances benefits from OD interventions aimed at increasing trust.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the convention stage of network formation, OD practitioners should remain neutral, treating all members alike.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How can OD practitioners help two organizations build trust between them?
Q5) Explain the four phases of network development. When should network development be applied?
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Q1) Organizations should generate sustainable outcomes across economic, social, and ecological objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Upon which of the following does an SMO derive its long-term success?
A) a powerful board of directors
B) its code of ethics
C) its organizational identity
D) its mission
Q3) GSCOs have as their primary task to serve as an agent of change in creating environmentally and socially sustainable world futures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is false about GSCOs?
A) they advocate a mission of economic prosperity
B) their missions are supported by a network structure
C) they may interact with constituencies which are in conflict
D) they have strong values that guide their work
Q5) Explain the three activities with which GSCOs enact planned change.
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Q1) Risk and equity are valued by family businesses while non-family-run businesses value security above all else.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As outlined in the text, which of the following does not describe a "family first" value system?
A) security and equality
B) unity and support
C) competitive
D) relationship based
Q3) Discuss the initial meetings with the family business client. Include key questions and strategies for the OD consultant to prepare for a successful intervention.
Q4) According to the text, which of the following is not a trend in health care?
A) erosion of comprehensive health insurance and access to care
B) a surplus of healthcare workers
C) a growing reliance on philanthropy
D) employer support of consumer-directed healthcare
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Q5) How would OD interventions need to be adapted to fit the public-sector organization?

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Q1) Most sustainability models go beyond ecological concerns to promote a multidimensional view called the triple bottom line.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pragmatic trend is distinguished by an emphasis on change technologies and change management.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why do the pragmatists in OD wish to require certification of OD practitioners?
A) certification would establish the requirements OD practitioners must meet
B) certification would provide a stream of revenue for the OD Assocation
C) certification would enable certified OD practitioners to charge a higher hourly rate
D) all of the above
Q4) Discuss how technological changes might change OD processes.
Q5) How can OD support ecological sustainability in the future?
Q6) Traditionally, OD has focused on small entrepreneurial start-ups.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Compare and contrast the traditional, pragmatic, and scholarly trends within OD.
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