Chairside Assisting Techniques
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Chairside Assisting Techniques is a foundational course designed to equip students with the essential skills and knowledge required for effective dental assisting in the clinical environment. The course covers the principles and practices of preparing the treatment area, assisting the dentist during a variety of dental procedures, instrument transfer, four-handed dentistry, infection control protocols, and patient management. Emphasis is placed on developing proficiency in anticipating the needs of the dentist, maintaining proper ergonomics, and ensuring patient comfort and safety throughout dental procedures. Students will also learn about the application of dental materials, proper use and maintenance of dental equipment, and adherence to occupational health and safety standards.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 10th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Q1) Dental disease was first recorded:
A)in the 1900s.
B)in the 1800s.
C)in the 1700s.
D)since the beginning of time.
Answer: D
Q2) ___________ is recognized for her research related to HIV and AIDS.
A)Ida Rollins
B)Lucy Hobbs-Taylor
C)Deborah Greenspan
D)Geraldine Morrow
Answer: C
Q3) Before formal training in dental colleges,the profession of dentistry was learned through preceptorship.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Q1) Which of the following is considered to be the role of an expanded-functions dental assistant?
A)Mixing and passing dental materials
B)Pouring and trimming models
C)Placing dental sealants
D)Instituting infection-control procedures
Answer: C
Q2) Which is not considered an expanded function?
A)Trimming study models
B)Placing retraction cord
C)Applying fluoride
D)All of the above are considered expanded functions.
Answer: A
Q3) Sharing a funny event about a patient that occurred in the dental office with a friend at lunch at a restaurant is:
A)permissible.
B)a breach of confidentiality.
C)in bad taste.
D)commended.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Q1) A duty that may not be delegated to a dental hygienist in most states is:
A)removing deposits on teeth.
B)placing sealants.
C)providing restorative treatment.
D)administering local anesthesia.
Answer: C
Q2) Requirements for a registered dental hygienist (RDH) include:
A)four academic years of college study.
B)an associate degree in an ADHA (American Dental Hygienists Association) accredited dental hygiene program.
C)passing the written national or regional board examinations and the clinical state board examination.
D)certification to administer local anesthesia.
Answer: C
Q3) A general dentist may legally perform all dental and specialty functions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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5
Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Q1) The ADAA code of ethics:
A)is a set of laws.
B)was established by the federal government.
C)is a set of voluntary standards set by members of the dental profession.
D)was established in 1972 and may not be modified or abrogated.
Q2) Membership in the ADAA is:
A)required.
B)necessary to take the DANB.
C)an ethical decision.
D)unnecessary.
Q3) Continuing education for dental assistants is:
A)a legal requirement in every state
B)established by the federal government
C)the ethical obligation of dental assistants
D)not necessary
Q4) The law that deals with patient confidentiality is:
A)HIPAA.
B)OSHA.
C)the Patient Confidentiality Act.
D)the Patient's Bill of Rights.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Q1) As a dental professional,you have the obligation to be aware of signs of ______ abuse.
A)elder
B)child
C)spousal
D)all of the above
Q2) Consent for treatment of a minor child must be given by:
A)the child.
B)the parent.
C)the legal guardian.
D)both b or c.
Q3) A patient of record is a patient who has:
A)been examined by a licensed dentist.
B)been diagnosed by a licensed dentist.
C)had a treatment plan performed by a licensed dentist.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Informed consent is a form that the patient fills out.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Q1) The body plane that is a vertical plane that is at right angles to the midsagittal plane and divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is the _______ plane.
A)medial
B)frontal
C)sagittal
D)midline
Q2) The stomach is located in the ______ cavity.
A)thoracic cavity
B)abdominal
C)pelvic
D)dorsal
Q3) The scientific study of the shape and structure of the body is:
A)biology.
B)physiology.
C)anatomy.
D)pathology.
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Q1) A gomphosis is a:
A)fibrous joint that moves.
B)cartilaginous joint that does not move.
C)synovial joint that does not move.
D)synovial joint that moves.
Q2) The function of the atria of the heart is to:
A)receive the blood.
B)pump the blood.
C)supply blood to the heart muscle.
D)send the blood to the lungs.
Q3) The temporal-mandibular joint that allows you to open and close your mouth is considered to be what type of joint?
A)Fibrous
B)Cartilaginous
C)Synovial
D)None of the above
Q4) Toxic shock syndrome is a disorder of which body system?
A)Female reproductive
B)Urinary
C)Lymphatic
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Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Q1) The structure that surrounds,supports,and is attached to the teeth is the:
A)alveolar bone.
B)cementum.
C)periodontal ligament.
D)periodontium.
Q2) The tissue that covers the inside of the cheeks,vestibule,lips,soft palate,and ventral surface of the tongue is called _____ mucosa.
A)masticatory
B)lining
C)specialized
D)gingival
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of succedaneous teeth?
A)Succedaneous teeth are permanent teeth.
B)Succedaneous teeth begin forming at 12 to 14 weeks of gestation.
C)Succedaneous teeth are only permanent molars.
D)Succedaneous teeth form during the cap stage of tooth development.
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Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Q1) A "stone" that can develop in the salivary duct that prevents the saliva from flowing into the mouth is a(n):
A)hamulus.
B)meatus.
C)sialolith.
D)ossicles.
Q2) The spinal cord passes through which foramen into the occipital bone?
A)Foramen magnum
B)Mandibular foramen
C)Mental foramen
D)Supraorbital foramen
Q3) Which major vein corresponds to the common carotid artery and empties blood from the upper portion of the body?
A)Internal jugular
B)External jugular
C)Common facial
D)Deep facial
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11
Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Q1) The rectangular area between the two ridges running under the nose to the midline of the upper lip is the:
A)outer canthus.
B)inner canthus.
C)philtrum.
D)tragus.
Q2) Two small papillae are located on either side of the lingual frenum under the tongue that serve as openings for the ______ salivary glands.
A)submandibular
B)sublingual
C)parotid
D)none of the above
Q3) The _____ is the pear-shaped pad of tissue located behind the maxillary central incisors.
A)incisive papilla
B)hard palate
C)soft palate
D)uvula
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12
Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Q1) The canines are also known as:
A)laterals.
B)bicuspids.
C)cuspids.
D)none of the above.
Q2) The natural teeth in the dental arch are the:
A)deciduous.
B)dentition.
C)embrasure.
D)succedaneous.
Q3) In the Universal/National System,the primary teeth are identified using _____ and the permanent teeth are identified using _____.
A)brackets with letters; brackets with numbers
B)letters A to T; numbers 1 to 32
C)numbers 1 to 32; letters A to T
D)letters A to E; numbers 1 to 8
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13
Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Q1) The first premolar is posterior to the _____ while the second premolar is anterior to the _____.
A)lateral incisor, second molar
B)canine, first molar
C)second premolar, first molar
D)canine, first premolar
Q2) The permanent _____ replace the primary first and second molars.
A)first molars
B)first and second molars
C)canines
D)premolars
Q3) Permanent maxillary molars have _____ roots.
A)three
B)four
C)two
D)one
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Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Q1) Destruction of the tooth structure is not:
A)caused by the bacterial acid released after eating a fermentable carbohydrate.
B)increased as fermentable carbohydrates are eaten more frequently.
C)repaired by cooked starch, such as bread, potatoes, rice, and pasta.
D)increased as the teeth are exposed to fermentable carbohydrates more frequently.
Q2) New restorative materials help reduce recurrent decay by bonding to the tooth surface and releasing fluoride.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is an infectious disease in which children live in constant pain from decayed teeth and swollen gums.
A)Trench mouth
B)Early childhood caries
C)Rampant decay
D)All of the above
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15
Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Q1) A 50-year-old woman arrives in your dental office and complains of loose teeth,a bad taste in her mouth,and pain.Based on your knowledge,what do you think is occurring?
A)Gingivitis
B)Slight periodontitis
C)Moderate periodontitis
D)None of the above
Q2) The primary cause of periodontal disease is:
A)bacterial plaque.
B)poorly fitting restorations.
C)stress.
D)none of the above.
Q3) Perioscopy uses:
A)a miniature camera attached to a tiny probe that is placed into the sulcus.
B)time-release antibiotic spheres delivered in a mouth tray.
C)a surgical microscope with use of gingival retraction cord.
D)reflection of tissue and treatment of root surfaces with fibronectin.
Q4) Tissue recession is associated with gingivitis.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Q1) An oral irrigation device is used:
A)instead of dental floss.
B)for all periodontal patients.
C)to reduce bacterial levels in subgingival areas.
D)to replace other oral hygiene techniques.
Q2) Dental caries cannot occur without:
A)dietary proteins.
B)dietary sugars.
C)the presence of specific bacteria in the mouth.
D)both b and c.
Q3) The first step in patient education is to:
A)instruct the patient on how to remove plaque.
B)select home care aids.
C)listen carefully to the patient.
D)reinforce home care.
Q4) Automatic toothbrushes may be helpful for:
A)patients with physical disabilities.
B)motivating children.
C)timing brushing.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Q1) _____ can prevent cholesterol from oxidizing and damaging arteries.
A)Vitamins
B)Minerals
C)Lipids
D)Antioxidants
Q2) Types of dietary minerals that are needed in large amounts (100 mg/day or more) include:
A)sodium.
B)potassium.
C)calcium.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Whole grain cereals and breads are good sources of:
A)vitamin A.
B)B vitamins.
C)vitamin C.
D)vitamin D.
Q4) Nutrition is the science of how the body uses food for development,growth,repair,and maintenance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Q1) Any tooth that remains unerupted in the jaws beyond the time at which it should normally erupt is referred to as:
A)abraded.
B)impacted.
C)ankylosed.
D)fused.
Q2) The body's protective response to irritation or injury is called: A)inflammation. B)erosion.
C)abscess. D)hematoma.
Q3) A _____ diagnosis is made by providing treatment and seeing how the condition responds.
A)historical
B)clinical
C)radiographic
D)therapeutic
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Q1) Antibiotics are ineffective in treating disease caused by: A)bacteria.
B)spores.
C)anaerobes.
D)viral infections.
Q2) Which chemicals are capable of destroying viruses in an external environment?
A)Chlorine (bleach), iodine, phenol, and formaldehyde
B)Alcohol, Lysol
C)Birex, antimicrobial soap
D)All of the above
Q3) The primary cause of mononucleosis and malignancy of the lymph tissues is: A)herpes zoster.
B)spores.
C)herpes type 1.
D)Epstein-Barr virus.
Q4) Currently all prion diseases found in humans affect the: A)heart.
B)lungs.
C)brain.
D)immune system.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Q1) Transmission of a disease to a susceptible person through the handling of contaminated instruments or by touching contaminated surfaces is a form of _____ transmission.
A)direct
B)indirect
C)airborne
D)spatter
Q2) The CDC established guidelines for needle recapping; this includes:
A)recapping needles using both hands.
B)directing the point of the needle toward any body part when recapping.
C)using the single-handed scoop method or a recapping device.
D)none of the above.
Q3) The links in the chain of infection are: virulence,number of microorganisms,susceptible host,and:
A)anaphylaxis.
B)portal of entry.
C)immunity.
D)occupational exposure.
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21
Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Q1) _________ Blood-borne Pathogens Standards require that contaminated surfaces be disinfected between patients,even if no evidence of contamination is visible.
A)CDC
B)OSHA
C)FDA
D)None of the above
Q2) Current infection control guidelines of the Organization for Safety and Asepsis Procedures (OSAP) consider instrument trays to be _____ surfaces.
A)touch
B)transfer
C)splash
D)droplet
Q3) Greener infection control does not include using:
A)traditional film-based radiography.
B)digital radiology.
C)only EPA-registered disinfectants.
D)products with recyclable packaging.
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Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Q1) Which type of sterilization method will not rust,dull,or corrode dry metal instruments?
A)Chemical vapor sterilization
B)Flash sterilization
C)Steam autoclave
D)Liquid chemical sterilization
Q2) Instruments that are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone are _____ instruments
A)noncritical
B)semicritical
C)critical
D)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not a form of sterilization monitoring?
A)Physical
B)Structural
C)Chemical
D)Biologic
Q4) _______ is the process of killing all microorganisms,including bacterial spores.
A)Disinfection
B)Sterilization
C)Ultrasonic cleaning
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Q1) OSHA is responsible for ensuring the safety of the: A)employers.
B)patients.
C)employees.
D)none of the above.
Q2) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requires good manufacturing practices and reviews the safety and effectiveness of drugs and medical devices as well as:
A)approving sterilizers, biologic and chemical indicators, and ultrasonic cleaners.
B)protecting the health and safety of people at home and abroad.
C)regulating antimicrobial hand-washing products and mouth rinses.
D)both a and c.
Q3) All medical and dental devices intended to be sold in the United States must first be cleared by the _____ before being marketed.
A)ADA
B)CDC
C)FDA
D)EPA
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Q1) Manufacturers of eyewash units recommend ________ to reduce microbial content in the waterline.
A)6-minute flushing weekly.
B)3-minute flushing weekly.
C)3-minute flushing monthly.
D)2-minute flushing daily.
Q2) Good ventilation is necessary when dealing with any type of chemical.Which area of the dental office would not require special ventilation?
A)Laboratory
B)Sterilization areas
C)Darkrooms
D)Reception area
Q3) Lead foil from the radiographic film should be:
A)disposed of in the regular trash.
B)recycled as scrap metal.
C)recycled through Eastman Kodak.
D)either b or c.
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25
Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Q1) When choosing a chemical agent to give dental unit water lines a "shock" treatment,care should be taken to:
A)not use a product that will damage the dental units.
B)check with the manufacturer to determine the recommended chemical product and protocol for maintenance.
C)not use more than once a month.
D)both a and b.
Q2) _____ is a type of "plaque" that develops inside DUWLs and consists of bacterial cells and other microbes that adhere to surfaces and form a protective slime layer.
A)Infection
B)Microfilm
C)Biofilm
D)Slime
Q3) The advantages of self-contained water reservoirs include which of the following?
A)They are less expensive to use.
B)Dental personnel can select the quality of water used.
C)Maintenance of the water system is under the control of the dental staff.
D)Both b and c are advantages of self-contained reservoir systems.
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Q1) Deviation from the neutral position includes:
A)twisting and leaning forward.
B)overbending back and reaching.
C)neither of the above.
D)both a and b.
Q2) Repetitive motion,overflexion,and overextension of the wrist can significantly increase the risk for:
A)cumulative trauma disorders.
B)breaking the bone.
C)arthritis.
D)both a and b.
Q3) To prevent eyestrain,the dental assistant should:
A)always wear safety glasses.
B)look up frequently and focus at a distance for about 20 seconds.
C)focus on the dentist's hands and patient's mouth.
D)never look at the curing light.
Q4) Eyestrain is caused by not focusing for long enough periods of time during dental procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) Which of the following information-gathering forms is used to record the patient's overall health and dental status before any treatment is provided?
A)Patient registration
B)Medical-dental health history
C)Medical alert information
D)Consent
Q2) Quality assurance is vital in the delivery of dental care.What are some examples of quality assurance?
A)Completing treatment in one appointment
B)Timely recall of patients to address dental need and documentation of when radiographs were taken
C)Current, up-to-date emergency standards maintained by the dental team and current and up-to-date licenses, registrations, and training of dental team members
D)Both b and c
Q3) The patient record is not considered a legal document.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) Which of the following best describes a pulse?
A)Palpate the artery
B)Oxygen taken into the body
C)Body's temperature
D)Rhythmic expansion of an artery each time the heart beats
Q2) Which of the following blood pressure readings of an adult patient would be considered Stage 2 (moderate) hypertension?
A)120 over 80
B)180 over 120
C)140 over 90
D)160 over 108
Q3) Which artery is used when a patient's blood pressure is taken?
A)Femoral
B)Radial
C)Carotid
D)Brachial
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Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Q1) When palpating the lymph nodes,the lymph node chain is followed from:
A)front of ear downward to the clavicle (collar bone).
B)side of head downward to the sternum.
C)front of one ear to front of the other ear.
D)none of the above.
Q2) Using Black's classification of cavities,a pit and fissure on the occlusal surface of molars and premolars is considered a class _____ restoration or cavity.
A)V
B)I
C)II
D)III
Q3) On the Dental Mobility Scale,what number indicates moderate mobility?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)0
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Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Q1) A patient shows loss of memory as well as impairment of judgment and comprehension.These are symptoms of which neurological disorder?
A)Epilepsy
B)Multiple sclerosis
C)Alzheimer's
D)All of the above
Q2) What may cause teeth to darken and become more brittle because of aging?
A)Reduced size of the pulp chamber
B)Deposits of secondary dentin
C)Large caries
D)Both a and b
Q3) "Stable" angina is a sharp pain in the chest that is:
A)usually predictable.
B)unpredictable.
C)unstable.
D)none of the above.
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31
Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) Tylenol with codeine is a common drug prescribed in dentistry for analgesic (pain-relief) purposes.What schedule type of drug is it?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q2) A patient is allergic to penicillin.What drug could be used as an alternative antibiotic for dental infections?
A)Ampicillin
B)Clindamycin
C)Tetracycline
D)Amoxicillin
Q3) Which of the following is not a common reason for the use of beta blockers?
A)Control blood pressure.
B)Slow fast arrhythmias.
C)Reduce chest pain associated with angina.
D)Lower cholesterol.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Q1) An adult patient is not responding to any type of sensory stimulation.This patient is: A)sleeping.
B)conscious.
C)paralyzed.
D)unconscious.
Q2) Erythema is another term for:
A)pain.
B)redness.
C)swelling.
D)infection.
Q3) CPR combines external cardiac compressions to stimulate the heart with rescue breathing to ensure that adequate air is entering the lungs.All steps in this emergency support system should be initiated only after the arrival of a trained emergency medical service rescuer.Which of the following is correct?
A)Both statements are true.
B)The first statement is true, and the second is false.
C)The first statement is false, and the second is true.
D)Both statements are false.
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33
Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41098
Sample Questions
Q1) An instrument used to harden dental materials is the:
A)central air compressor.
B)curing light.
C)view box.
D)amalgamator.
Q2) In what room would a dentist discuss the diagnosis and treatment plans with a patient?
A)Reception
B)Dentist's private office
C)Dental laboratory
D)Consultation
Q3) When the dental chair is in the supine position,the:
A)back of the chair is positioned at a vertical 90-degree angle.
B)patient is positioned as if lying down.
C)patient's head is lower than the feet.
D)patient is in the correct position for exposure of radiographs and for taking impressions.
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34
Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What classification of motion is described as movement of fingers,wrist,and elbow?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class IV
D)None of the above
Q2) When passing a dental instrument,the dental assistant should grasp the instrument:
A)at the working end.
B)at the end of the handle.
C)opposite the working end.
D)both b and c.
Q3) The EFDA performs an expanded function while the dentist is in the same treatment area.This assistant works under _____ supervision.
A)direct
B)indirect
C)doctor
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Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Articulating paper can be used to check a patient's bite on which of the following?
A)Crown/bridge
B)Denture
C)A new restoration
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following restorative instruments is made from anodized aluminum or Teflon?
A)Amalgam carrier
B)Condensers
C)Composite placement instrument
D)Plastic instrument
Q3) Double-ended hand instruments _____ and have two working ends.
A)have two shanks
B)have two handles
C)have a single shank
D)are made in left-handed sets for left-handed operators and right-handed sets for right-handed operators
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _____-shaped diamond rotary instrument is used to cut through fixed prostheses.
A)cylinder
B)flame
C)wheel
D)disc
Q2) Because abrasive discs and wheels are supplied separately and not attached to a shank,a _____ is used to attach these abrasives to the dental handpiece.
A)console
B)mandrel
C)shank
D)torque
Q3) The parts of a rotary instrument are the:
A)shank, neck, and head.
B)handle, shank, and nib.
C)stem and cutting tips.
D)latch and grip.
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental assistant grasps the evacuator in the _____ hand when assisting a right-handed dentist.
A)right
B)left
C)either a or b
Q2) Maintenance of the evacuation system should include which of the following?
A)Flush the hoses at the end of the day with antimicrobial solution.
B)Check disposable traps weekly, replace if needed.
C)Open saliva ejector hoses, clean or replace screens.
D)All of the above should be included.
Q3) Which of the following does not describe an operative suction tip?
A)Smaller in circumference than a surgical suction tip
B)Beveled working end
C)Made of plastic or stainless steel
D)Designed with a straight or slight angle in the middle
Q4) The purpose of a limited-area rinsing of the patient's oral cavity is to:
A)frequently remove debris as it accumulates during a procedure.
B)rinse the patient's entire mouth when it needs refreshing.
C)rinse after the dental prophylaxis.
D)provide fresh breath.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of local anesthetic would be used for a patient with a medical history that indicates a recent myocardial infarction?
A)Lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine
B)Lidocaine with 1:50,000 epinephrine
C)Mepivacaine with 1:20,000 Neo-Cobefrin
D)Carbocaine plain
Q2) The lengths of the needles used in dentistry are:
A)1½ inches and 2 inches
B)1 inch and 15/8 inches
C)½ inch and 1½ inches
D)5/8 inch and 1 inch
Q3) The anesthetic syringe consists of all of the following parts with the exception of: A)harpoon.
B)rubber stopper.
C)thumb ring.
D)piston rod.
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Chapter
38: Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic
Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maximum permissible dose for an occupational worker for an individual 18 years old or over is ___ rems per year:
A)3
B)5
C)1.25
D)0.3
Q2) A lead apron and a thyroid collar:
A)are utilized for a full mouth series of films but are not necessary for single periapical films.
B)must be used on all patients for all exposures.
C)are required for pediatric patients but is optional for adults.
D)are mandated only for pregnant women.
Q3) The uses of dental images include the detection of:
A)incipient occlusal lesions.
B)periodontal probing depths.
C)bone loss in its early stages.
D)percussion sensitivity as part of endodontic evaluation.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an extraoral film that is placed outside the mouth during x-ray exposure?
A)Periapical
B)Bite-wing
C)Panoramic
D)Occlusal
Q2) Which is not true of digitizing film-based radiographs?
A)The process is similar to other film duplication.
B)Desktop scanners capture the light signal.
C)It duplicates the same detail as the original film.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Dental film holders,used to position and hold the dental x-ray films in the patient's mouth,include which of the following?
A)PID
B)XCP and disposable block
C)Eezee-Grip and EndoRay
D)Both b and c
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is responsible for overall quality assurance in a dental practice?
A)Dentist
B)Dental assistant
C)Dental hygienist
D)Office manager
Q2) Regulations regarding certification for dental assistants in radiography:
A)are not required by federal law.
B)vary from state to state.
C)do not exist.
D)both a and b.
Q3) Transporting PSP films should be done by placing them in:
A)your lab coat pocket.
B)a black transfer box.
C)a paper cup.
D)a baggy with disinfecting solution.
Q4) With normal usage,processing solutions should be changed:
A)once a day.
B)once a week.
C)every 3 to 4 weeks.
D)annually.
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Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exposure sequence for the posterior teeth should begin with the _____ view.
A)maxillary right premolar
B)maxillary right molar
C)mandibular right premolar
D)mandibular right molar
Q2) For the patient with a hypersensitive gag reflex,the _____ should be exposed last.
A)maxillary molars
B)mandibular molars
C)mandibular anteriors
D)maxillary premolars
Q3) According to the guidelines for film placement,which of the following is true?
A)The colored side of the film always faces the teeth.
B)Anterior films are always placed horizontally.
C)Posterior periapical films are always placed vertically.
D)The identification dot on the film is always placed in the slot of the film holder.
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Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the patient's chin is too high during the panoramic exposure:
A)the maxillary premolars will be blurred.
B)the floor of the nasal cavity will be superimposed over the roots of the mandibular teeth.
C)a "reverse smile line" will appear on the radiograph.
D)detail of the mandibular region will be lost.
Q2) Computed tomography:
A)is used in dentistry primarily for diagnosing of lesions and planning implant cases. B)uses a magnetic field, thereby not exposing the patient to x-radiation.
C)has long been used in dental radiology and the scanners are common in dental offices.
D)requires the use of film and processing.
Q3) The CBCT is useful in helping the dentist:
A)decide the correct placement of implants.
B)with extractions of impacted teeth.
C)determine the exact location of the mandibular nerve before surgery.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) To ensure an accurate ratio of alloy and mercury,you should:
A)use premeasured capsules.
B)measure accurately.
C)reuse capsules.
D)do all of the above.
Q2) Single spill capsules:
A)contain 600 mg of alloy.
B)are used for small restorations.
C)should be discarded immediately after use.
D)all of the above.
Q3) _______ is(are) the process(es) of mixing alloy and mercury together to form a mass.
A)Amalgamation
B)Trituration
C)Condensing
D)Both a and b
Q4) Retention holds a material in place and seals the structures together.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _______ appearance assures a tooth has been properly etched.
A)shiny
B)pitted
C)frosted appearance
D)none of the above
Q2) If a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What step is necessary in preparation for dentin bonding?
A)Application of an etchant
B)Addition of the smear layer
C)Removal of the smear layer
D)Both a and c
Q4) Which of the following is an example of biological pulpal stimuli?
A)Changes from hot and cold coming into contact with the tooth
B)Traumatic occlusion, which occurs when a person's "bite" does not occlude properly
C)Acidic materials reaching pulpal tissues
D)Bacteria from saliva coming into contact with pulpal tissues
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) When removing cement from a casting,never:
A)use a explorer.
B)use a firm fulcrum.
C)move instruments in a horizontal direction.
D)pull excess cement down away from the casting.
Q2) Which type(s) of cements can be light-cured?
A)Composite resin
B)Glass ionomer
C)ZOE
D)Both a or b
Q3) When dispensing most cement,generally the powder should be _______ before dispensing.
A)packed
B)fluffed
C)measured
D)both b and c
Q4) The provisional should be lined with ZOE cement when being placed for temporary coverage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of reversible hydrocolloid material is the most viscous?
A)Syringe
B)Plate
C)Hysteretic
D)Tray
Q2) Which of the following is the most durable material for occlusal bite registration?
A)Softened baseplate wax
B)Polysiloxane bite registration paste
C)Zinc oxide-eugenol (ZOE) bite registration paste
D)Polyether impression material
Q3) Although technique may vary,when assisting a dentist in taking an elastomeric impression,mix the light-bodied material first.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The three classifications of impressions in dentistry are:
A)prospective, retrospective, and introspective.
B)preliminary, functional, and occlusal, or bite, registration.
C)preliminary, final, and occlusal, or bite, registration.
D)diagnostic, functional, determinative.
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the pouring methods used to create the base portion of a dental model?
A)The art portion of the cast is poured first when the double-pour method is used.
B)The completed box should extend at least 1 inch above the palatal area of the maxillary impression when the box-and-pour method is used.
C)The inverted-pour method consists of mixing one large mixture of plaster or stone and pouring both portions of the model in a single step.
D)The "box" used in the box-and-pour method is made of baseplate wax.
Q2) The _____ is used to polish or trim custom trays,provisional coverage,dentures,and indirect restorations.
A)sandblaster
B)model trimmer
C)vacuum former
D)dental lathe
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a class III or IV restoration,the dentist may use a _________ to help reproduce the correct contours and contact.
A)Tofflemire matrix system
B)Mylar matrix system
C)universal matrix system
D)gingival retraction cord
Q2) A step in the final cavity preparation is:
A)placing retention forms.
B)designing the cavity walls.
C)placing a desensitizing or lining agent.
D)placing the intermediate restorative material.
Q3) Operative dentistry is the primary responsibility of the:
A)oral surgeon.
B)periodontist.
C)general dentist.
D)endodontist.
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ is used for anterior composite resin or glass ionomer restorations.
A)automatrix
B)clear plastic matrix
C)Tofflemire
D)T-band
Q2) The component of a universal matrix retainer that serves to guide the direction of the matrix loop according to the quadrant that is being treated is the:
A)spindle.
B)outer guide slots.
C)inner knob.
D)diagonal slot.
Q3) Which of the following is the instrument of choice when positioning a wooden wedge?
A)Amalgam carrier
B)Mouth mirror
C)Howe pliers
D)Cowhorn explorer
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important step in placing a porcelain veneer is:
A)making a provisional to be worn while the veneer is being made.
B)matching the tooth color of the veneer to the adjacent teeth.
C)making sure the veneer is thick enough block out underlying color.
D)making the cement used a shade darker than the veneer.
Q2) When one or more teeth are missing from the same arch,a permanent _____ is recommended.
A)partial denture
B)fixed bridge
C)porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
D)denture
Q3) The device that is used to determine the tooth color for ceramic crowns or bridges is a(n):
A)articulator.
B)chamfer.
C)shade guide.
D)infuser.
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52
Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The provisional should _____ below the margin of the preparation.
A)not extend
B)extend one to three mm
C)extend four to six mm
D)extend six to eight mm
Q2) A disadvantage of using custom provisional coverage is that is:
A)can only be used for anterior teeth.
B)can be the most time-consuming to make.
C)is hard to fit the prepared tooth.
D)does not look natural.
Q3) Prefabricated temporary crowns:
A)can be used for posterior but not anterior preparations.
B)are available in cast gold.
C)are available in porcelain fused-to-metal.
D)made of polycarbonate are used where appearance is important.
Q4) The purpose of provisional coverage is to:
A)restore function to the area of the mouth.
B)keep the patient comfortable.
C)maintain function to the area of the mouth.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)_____ is placed immediately after the extraction of the patient's remaining anterior teeth and must be replaced or relined in 3 to 6 months.
A)overdenture
B)immediate denture
C)partial denture
D)duplicate denture
Q2) Festooning is completed during which appointment?
A)Records appointment
B)Final impression appointment
C)Try-in of baseplates and occlusal rim appointment
D)Try-in appointment
Q3) The metal device that is designed to protect the abutment teeth from excessive occlusal loads and stress during mastication is the:
A)minor connector.
B)rests.
C)clasp.
D)stress breaker.
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) When surgically placing implants,it is recommended that the team include:
A)the general dentist.
B)an expanded functions dental assistant.
C)a surgical dental assistant.
D)a sterile circulating assistant.
Q2) Dental implants:
A)require modification of adjacent teeth.
B)are far less expensive than a conventional bridge.
C)can prevent the bone loss and gum recession that often accompany bridgework and dentures.
D)can support a bridge, but not a denture.
Q3) The ideal candidate for dental implants meets which of the following criteria?
A)Has good stable health and adequate alveolar bone
B)Is willing to commit to conscientious oral hygiene and regular dental visits
C)Is concerned about the financial investment of implants
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term root canal therapy is a(n):
A)apicoectomy.
B)hemisection.
C)pulpectomy.
D)pulpotomy.
Q2) Which tissues surround the root of the tooth?
A)Periradicular
B)Periapical
C)Gingival
D)Root canal
Q3) The electric pulp tester is:
A)the most reliable means of testing for pulp vitality.
B)not affected by the size of the restorations on a tooth.
C)battery operated which may weaken over time and give a false reading.
D)able to determine if one canal is vital and other nonvital.
Q4) Symptoms that are described by the patient are considered to be:
A)objective.
B)acute.
C)chronic.
D)subjective.
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Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instrument is used to measure the horizontal and vertical pocket depth of multirooted teeth?
A)Furcation probe
B)Periodontal probe
C)Periodontal explorer
D)Pocket marker
Q2) Which statement is not true concerning occlusal adjustments?
A)Excessive biting pressure noted in a specific area is referred to as occlusal trauma.
B)Occlusal equilibration adjusts the patient's bite so that occlusal forces are equally distributed over all the teeth.
C)Occlusal trauma can cause periodontal pocket formation.
D)Tooth mobility can be caused by occlusal trauma.
Q3) The ____ the depth of the periodontal pocket,the ____ the loss of bone; therefore,the _____ severe the periodontal disease.
A)greater; greater; more
B)greater; greater; less
C)lesser, lesser; more
D)lesser; greater; less
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes into the office with a lesion that is approximately 2.5 cm on the lateral border of the tongue.Which type of biopsy would most likely be completed?
A)Exfoliative
B)Excisional
C)Incisional
D)No biopsy is done, since the biopsy would cause a functional problem with the tongue.
Q2) Oral surgery instruments are classified as _____ instruments and must be sterilized after each use.
A)critical
B)semicritical
C)noncritical
D)both b and c
Q3) _____ is/are used to remove a tooth in one piece,with the crown and root intact.
A)A periosteal elevator
B)Forceps
C)A surgical curette
D)A rongeur
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stainless steel crowns are:
A)durable enough to last until permanent teeth erupt.
B)indicated when there are rampant caries.
C)used to restore a fractured tooth.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The services routinely provided in a pediatric dental office include:
A)preventive procedures.
B)restorative procedures.
C)interceptive orthodontics.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Guidelines for establishing trust between the child and dentist include:
A)show, do, tell.
B)show, tell, do.
C)tell, show, do.
D)tell, do, show.
Q4) Full coverage of a primary molar usually indicates the use of a(n) ____ crown.
A)amalgam
B)acrylic
C)stainless steel
D)any of the above
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Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using a bristle brush,the brush should be:
A)rotating rapidly before touching the tooth surface.
B)applied lightly to the tooth surface while revolving at the lowest speed.
C)placed on the tooth while not rotating, and then rotated slowly.
D)placed on the tooth while not rotating, and then rotated in a reverse direction.
Q2) The purpose of a fulcrum is to provide:
A)pressure to the fingers.
B)better retraction.
C)stability to the hand.
D)movement for the arm.
Q3) What damage can result from using the prophy angle at a high speed?
A)It can cause frictional heat that can damage the tooth.
B)It can remove dentin.
C)It can cause frictional heat that can burn the gingiva.
D)Both a and c can result.
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Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enamel that has been etched has the appearance of being:
A)shiny.
B)frosty.
C)wet.
D)slightly yellow.
Q2) An advantage of a tinted sealant material over clear or colorless material is that it:
A)is easier to see during application.
B)aids in recall checks for sealant retention.
C)is stronger.
D)both a and b.
Q3) Sealants are indicated for:
A)children but not adults.
B)posterior but not anterior teeth.
C)the smooth surfaces of teeth but not pits and fissures.
D)pits and fissures.
Q4) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT a function of the dental assistant in an orthodontic practice?
A)To motivate and reinforce oral home care
B)To make a diagnosis
C)To make appliance adjustments
D)To take and fabricate diagnostic records
Q2) Buccal arch wire tubes are located on _____ bands.
A)the maxillary first molar
B)the mandibular first molar
C)all
D)both a and b.
Q3) To floss under the arch wire,the patient should be instructed to use:
A)an interproximal brush.
B)floss threader.
C)a Waterpik.
D)all of the above.
Q4) The habit that may be a result of narrowing of the maxilla is:
A)bruxism.
B)tongue thrusting.
C)mouth breathing.
D)all of the above.
62
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Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
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39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41127
Sample Questions
Q1) Generally speaking,the dentist should not be interrupted at chairside to come to the phone.Phone interruptions:
A)reduce productivity and cause treatment delays.
B)are inconsiderate to the seated patient.
C)make it difficult for the dental team to maintain infection control protocols.
D)all of the above.
Q2) A patient comes into the office very upset about a dental procedure that was completed a couple of days ago.He confides in you that he feels like the dentist was not concerned about his situation and is thinking about going somewhere else once the work is completed.What should you do?
A)Explain your side of the situation first.
B)Look at the floor with your head tilted to indicate you are listening.
C)Let the patient finish speaking, then repeat what the patient said, asking if that is correct.
D)Allow a couple of days or so to go by before responding to allow the patient to calm down.
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Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41128
Sample Questions
Q1) Efficient appointment scheduling:
A)can increase stress on the staff to achieve maximum productivity.
B)decreases the time patients spend waiting in the dental office.
C)provides an even pace of work during the day.
D)helps with patient satisfaction.
Q2) When scheduling appointments it is good to remember to:
A)schedule difficult appointments back-to-back to get them over with.
B)allow time for cleaning and setting-up of the treatment areas.
C)overlap patients to reduce downtime.
D)show the schedule to patients so they will understand the importance of being on time for their appointment.
Q3) Which statement is NOT true concerning the HIPAA electronic safeguards?
A)Dental offices must have physical and technical safeguards to maintain the safety and confidentiality of patient personal information.
B)Computer screens can never be in plain sight of patients.
C)Passwords must be put into practice and changed often.
D)Always close the patient file off the screen when not using the file.
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64
Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41129
Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of dental insurance fraud may include:
A)not filing the claim.
B)billing for services not provided.
C)changing fees to obtain a higher payment.
D)both b and c.
Q2) _______ is the means or process of recording,classifying,and summarizing financial transactions.
A)Accounting
B)Financial arranging
C)Bookkeeping
D)Finance
Q3) When making financial arrangements with a patient,it is necessary to:
A)consider the patient's ability to pay.
B)put all agreements on the account statement.
C)send the information to the insurance company.
D)record the agreement on the patient's clinical chart.
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65
Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41130
Sample Questions
Q1) A dental assistant is responsible for complying with all local,state,and federal laws and regulations governing the practice of dentistry where he or she is employed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The purpose of an employment interview is to allow:
A)the dentist to determine whether you are the right employee for the position.
B)you to gather information to help you determine whether you would be happy working in that position.
C)the staff to meet you to see if you would fit in.
D)both a and b.
Q3) Under federal Equal Employment Opportunity regulations,employers may not ask questions regarding:
A)citizenship or appropriate alien status.
B)marital status.
C)work experience.
D)your educational level.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.