Chairside Assisting Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Chairside Assisting is a vital course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and practices of dental assisting in a clinical setting. The course emphasizes the development of core chairside skills such as preparing treatment rooms, assisting dentists during dental procedures, maintaining infection control, handling dental materials, and ensuring patient comfort and safety. Students will gain hands-on experience in patient management, instrument transfer, and the efficient use of dental equipment, preparing them to be effective team members in any dental practice. This course also covers communication techniques, ethical considerations, and an introduction to dental office protocols to ensure comprehensive support in all aspects of dental care delivery.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 10th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Q1) The ADA Journal published a report of infection control for dental offices in:
A)1900.
B)1978.
C)1982.
D)2000.
Answer: B
Q2) The barber surgeon known as the "Father of Modern Surgery" is:
A)Pierre Fauchard.
B)Ambroise Paré.
C)Leonardo da Vinci.
D)Robert Woofendale.
Answer: B
Q3) The Dr.Samuel D.Harris National Museum of Dentistry is located in.
A)Baltimore.
B)New York City.
C)Washington, D.C.
D)Philadelphia.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Q1) A responsible person will not:
A)arrive on time.
B)leave promptly at the end of the day.
C)volunteer to help a co-worker.
D)stay until to job is done.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is considered to be the role of an expanded-functions dental assistant?
A)Mixing and passing dental materials
B)Pouring and trimming models
C)Placing dental sealants
D)Instituting infection-control procedures
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following statements is not a role of a dental assistant?
A)Ensuring compliance with OSHA
B)Removing hard deposits from teeth
C)Exposing radiographs
D)Providing patient education
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Q1) What is the minimum length of an ADA-accredited dental hygiene program?
A)Six months
B)One academic year
C)Two academic years
D)Four academic years
Answer: C
Q2) The training required for a dental degree in the United States includes:
A)an undergraduate degree.
B)four years of dental education.
C)an apprenticeship.
D)both a and b.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the minimum length of an ADA-accredited dental assisting program?
A)Six months
B)One academic year
C)Three months
D)Two academic years
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Q1) Providing treatment that does not benefit the patient is:
A)immoral.
B)an example of nonmaleficence.
C)moral.
D)both a and b.
Q2) A behavior _____ be unethical and still be legal,but it _____ be illegal and still be ethical.
A)can; can
B)can; cannot
C)cannot; can
D)cannot; cannot
Q3) The steps for solving an ethical dilemma include:
A)identifying the alternatives first.
B)ranking the alternatives last.
C)choosing a course of action before determining the professional implications.
D)determining the professional implications after ranking the alternatives.
Q4) A patient has the right to refuse treatment even if the treatment would benefit him or her.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Q1) Which is not true regarding regulations for dental assistants?
A)Regulations vary greatly from state to state.
B)Regulations are governed under the state dental practice act.
C)Regulations are consistent in each state.
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) _____________ allows an individual currently licensed in one state to become licensed in another state if certain requirements are met.
A)Licensure by credential
B)Reciprocity
C)Licensure exemption
D)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning statutory law?
A)There are four types of statutory law: criminal, civil, contract, and tort.
B)Criminal law involves crimes against society.
C)Civil law seeks to punish the offender, whereas criminal law seeks to compensate the victim.
D)Insurance fraud is an example of a civil act that may be committed in a dental office.
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Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Q1) Stem cells can differentiate into_____ cells.
A)nerve
B)red blood
C)brain
D)all of the above
Q2) Opposite terms for the directional terms for the body are:
A)medial and dorsal.
B)medial and distal.
C)anterior and inferior.
D)proximal and lateral.
Q3) The vertical plane that divides the body into equal left and right halves is the _____ plane.
A)coronal
B)transverse
C)sagittal
D)midsagittal
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Q1) Periosteum:
A)does not contain nerves and blood vessels.
B)is necessary for bone growth and repair.
C)contains an inner layer of dense fibrous connective tissue, containing osteoclasts associated with bone formation.
D)is found adjacent to spongy, trabecular, cancellous bone.
Q2) The digestive process begins in the:
A)mouth.
B)stomach.
C)small intestine.
D)large intestine.
Q3) Which type of joints are the fingers?
A)Fibrous
B)Cartilaginous
C)Synovial
D)Ball-and-socket
Q4) Toxic shock syndrome is a disorder of which body system?
A)Female reproductive
B)Urinary
C)Lymphatic
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Q1) The _____ within the periodontium.
A)cementum connects the alveolar bone and periodontal ligaments
B)alveolar bone connects the cementum and periodontal ligaments
C)periodontal ligaments connect the cementum and alveolar bone
D)cemento-enamel junction connects the alveolar bone and periodontal ligaments
Q2) The tissue that covers the inside of the cheeks,vestibule,lips,soft palate,and ventral surface of the tongue is called _____ mucosa.
A)masticatory
B)lining
C)specialized
D)gingival
Q3) The primary dentition will begin to form during the _____ month of gestation.
A)second
B)fourth
C)sixth
D)eighth
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Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Q1) Which artery supplies the major blood supply for the face and mouth?
A)Internal carotid
B)Aorta
C)External carotid
D)Jugular
Q2) Axillary lymph nodes are located:
A)in the head.
B)in the neck.
C)under the arms.
D)in the lower abdomen.
Q3) The spinal cord passes through which foramen into the occipital bone?
A)Foramen magnum
B)Mandibular foramen
C)Mental foramen
D)Supraorbital foramen
Q4) Which muscle of the floor of the mouth aids during swallowing?
A)Mylohyoid
B)Digastric
C)Styloid
D)Geniohyoid
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Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Q1) The _____ frenum passes from the floor of the mouth to the midline of the ventral border of the tongue.
A)buccal
B)maxillary labial
C)mandibular labial
D)lingual
Q2) The irregular ridges of masticatory mucosa that are located behind the maxillary central incisors are called: A)rugae.
B)incisive papilla.
C)oral mucosa.
D)raphe.
Q3) The angle at the corner of the mouth is called the: A)labia.
B)vermilion border.
C)angle of the mandible.
D)labial commissure.
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12
Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Q1) The jaw position that produces maximal stable contact between the occluding surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth is:
A)functional occlusion.
B)malocclusion.
C)basic occlusion.
D)centric occlusion.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the Palmer Notation System (PNS)?
A)The permanent teeth are numbered from 1 to 32. Numbering begins with the upper-right third molar, works around to the upper-left third molar, drops to the lower-left third molar, and works around to the lower-right third molar.
B)The first digit indicates the quadrant, and the second digit indicates the tooth within the quadrant, with numbering from the midline to the posterior.
C)The First digit indicates the quadrant, and the second digit indicates the tooth within the quadrant, with numbering from the midline to the posterior.
D)Each of the four quadrants is given its own tooth bracket made up of a vertical and a horizontal line.
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Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Q1) The area where the cusp ridges converge at a central point on the occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth is the:
A)central fossa.
B)triangular fossa.
C)central groove.
D)triangular groove.
Q2) There are no ______ in the primary dentition.
A)incisors
B)canines
C)premolars
D)molars
Q3) In the Universal Numbering System,the maxillary permanent premolars are:
A)#4, #5, #12, and #13.
B)#14, #15, #24, and #25.
C)#20, #21, #28, and #29.
D)#34, #35, #44, and #45.
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Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Q1) The carious lesions found frequently in elderly patients are:
A)incipient lesions.
B)rampant caries.
C)root caries.
D)secondary caries.
Q2) _____ caries is a carious lesion that occurs on the tooth around a restoration.
A)Smooth surface
B)Pit and fissure
C)Recurrent
D)Pulpal
Q3) Dissolution of calcium and phosphate from hydroxyapatite crystals is called: A)decay.
B)demineralization.
C)remineralization.
D)calcium depletion.
Q4) New restorative materials help reduce recurrent decay by bonding to the tooth surface and releasing fluoride.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Q1) A patient complaining of bleeding gum tissue has one of the first signs of gingivitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of gingivitis?
A)Difficult to treat and control
B)Loss of connective tissue
C)Loss of bone
D)Inflammation of gingival tissue
Q3) Periodontal disease is considered to be generalized if more than _____% of sites in the mouth are affected.
A)10
B)30
C)50
D)90
Q4) An individual patient's response to oral bacteria and periodontal treatment is constant and predictable.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Q1) A(n) _____is used to clean under fixed dental work.
A)end-tuft brush
B)bridge threader
C)automatic flosser
D)perio-aid
Q2) Dental professionals generally recommend that patients use _____ toothbrushes.
A)soft-bristled
B)hard-bristled
C)only automatic
D)only manual
Q3) A condition that results from chronic overexposure to fluoride is known as:
A)fluorosis.
B)staining.
C)fluoride poisoning.
D)a toxic reaction.
Q4) Foods that cause caries are known as:
A)cariogenic.
B)anticariogenic.
C)xylitol.
D)aspartame.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Q1) Of the following,which is most easily absorbed by the body?
A)Simple sugars
B)Complex carbohydrates
C)Dietary fiber
D)All are absorbed equally
Q2) Eating a variety of fruits and vegetables will supply the body with good sources of vitamins:
A)A and C.
B)B and C.
C)D and B.
D)K and D.
Q3) Sources of ______ can help lower blood cholesterol.
A)water-soluble fiber
B)insoluble fiber
C)saturated fats
D)none of the above
Q4) It is important to read labels; many times low-fat or reduced-fat foods have replaced fat with sugars.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Q1) The type of cancer that affects the blood-forming organs and is characterized by oral symptoms that include hemorrhage and ulceration is known as: A)leukemia.
B)cellulitis.
C)adenocarcinoma.
D)osteosarcoma.
Q2) Premature loss of primary teeth and shifting of developing teeth horizontally or any other abnormal position may lead to: A)attrition.
B)impaction.
C)ankylosis.
D)bulimia.
Q3) Negative effects on tooth development due to teratogens are caused by: A)genetic factors.
B)environmental factors.
C)rubella virus.
D)ionizing radiation.
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Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Q1) The disease that is transmitted through bloodborne contact and breaks down the body's immune system is:
A)HIV.
B)tuberculosis.
C)tetanus.
D)syphilis.
Q2) How many major groups of microorganisms are there?
A)5
B)10
C)7
D)3
Q3) The bacteria found in freshwater and marine habitats and that contain chlorophyll are:
A)protozoa.
B)algae.
C)fungi. D)rickettsiae.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Q1) Which dental professional falls under category I of the Occupational Exposure Determination?
A)Dentist and hygienist
B)Dental assistant
C)Sterilization assistant and laboratory technician
D)All of the above
Q2) The law designed to protect employees against occupational exposure to blood-borne disease-causing organisms such as HBV,HIV,and HCV is:
A)the OSHA Blood-borne Pathogens Standard.
B)Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003.
C)the OSHA Health and Safety Standards.
D)the exposure control plan.
Q3) The best time to clean and disinfect dental prostheses or impressions that will be handled in the in-office laboratory is:
A)after they have had time to dry.
B)as soon as possible after removal from the patient's mouth.
C)after they are in the laboratory.
D)whenever you have time.
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Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Q1) To effectively clean and disinfect dental treatment rooms:
A)latex examination gloves should be used.
B)the surface should remain moist for the manufacturer's recommended time for fungicidal action, usually a minute.
C)the surface should remain moist for the manufacturer's recommended time for fungicidal action, usually 10 minutes.
D)the surface should remain moist for the manufacturer's recommended time for tuberculocidal action, usually 10 minutes.
Q2) When a surface has been covered with a barrier,it:
A)does not need to be cleaned and disinfected.
B)should still be cleaned and disinfected at the beginning of the workday.
C)should still be cleaned and disinfected at the end of the workday.
D)should still be cleaned and disinfected at the beginning and end of each workday.
Q3) The method to deal with surface contamination is:
A)using a surface barrier to prevent the surface from becoming contaminated.
B)precleaning and disinfecting the surface between patients.
C)wiping the surface with alcohol.
D)both a and b.
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Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Q1) What is the best method of determining whether sterilization has occurred?
A)Use biologic monitoring.
B)Check the sterilizer.
C)Check the single-parameter indicator.
D)All of the above are equally good methods.
Q2) A process indicator is an example of _____ monitoring of the sterilization process.
A)physical
B)external chemical
C)internal chemical
D)biologic
Q3) Recommended methods for sterilizing dental handpieces include which of the following?
A)Chemical liquid sterilization
B)Steam sterilization
C)Chemical vapor sterilization
D)Both b and c
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
A)Regulation of medical device manufacturing
B)Approval of sterilizers
C)Development of biologic and chemical indicators
D)Approval of dental chairs and dental unit lights
Q2) The only federal institute responsible for conducting research and making recommendations for the prevention of work-related disease and injury is the:
A)Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
B)Centers for Disease Control (CDC).
C)National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
D)National Institutes of Health (NIH).
Q3) Which of the following acronyms stands for the premier infection-control education organization in dentistry?
A)CDC
B)EPA
C)NIOSH
D)OSAP
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Q1) Which government agency enforces the disposal of regulated waste?
A)OSHA
B)The EPA
C)The CDC
D)The FDA
Q2) The written program portion of the Hazard Communication Program:
A)must identify all the employers in the office who are exposed to hazardous chemicals.
B)describes how to respond to chemical emergencies.
C)is not a requirement for an office employing fewer than 15 employees.
D)describes employer, but not staff, training.
Q3) In what section of an MSDS would the information include how the product will look and smell as well as some of its physical characteristics?
A)Section V-Health hazard data
B)Section VI-Reactivity data
C)Section I-Product information
D)Section III-Physical hazard data
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Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Q1) _____ is a type of "plaque" that develops inside DUWLs and consists of bacterial cells and other microbes that adhere to surfaces and form a protective slime layer.
A)Infection
B)Microfilm
C)Biofilm
D)Slime
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about dental unit waterlines?
A)Viruses cannot multiply in the DUWL.
B)The use of sterile water in the self-contained water reservoir ensures that water will be sterile at the point of delivery.
C)Microfilters reduce the bacterial contamination of water and destroy the biofilms that colonize the DUWLs.
D)Flushing for 20 to 30 seconds after each patient will remove biofilms from the lines.
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Q1) While exercising daily will help prevent injuries and strain,before you begin exercising you should:
A)make sure you can endure the daily regimen.
B)check with your physician that it is safe to perform the exercises.
C)check with your physician if you experience pain while attempting any movements.
D)both b and c.
Q2) Prevention of CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome) can be accomplished by:
A)warming the muscles and joints of hands by slowly opening and closing hands.
B)frequently resting the hands.
C)holding one arm out in front of body with hand extended, then pulling back gently with fingers of other hand.
D)all of the above.
Q3) To prevent eyestrain,the dental assistant should:
A)always wear safety glasses.
B)look up frequently and focus at a distance for about 20 seconds.
C)focus on the dentist's hands and patient's mouth.
D)never look at the curing light.
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) The most graphic and detailed form in the patient record is the _____ form.
A)patient registration
B)clinical examination
C)treatment plan
D)progress notes
Q2) The written policy that must be provided to all patients regarding patient right to privacy is called:
A)PHI.
B)HIPAA.
C)medical alert information.
D)none of the above.
Q3) All dental practices now have a written privacy policy,required by _____,that must inform the patient that the office will not use or disclose Protected Health Information (PHI) for any purpose other than treatment,diagnosis,and billing.
A)HIPAA
B)OSHA
C)NHII
D)ADA
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28
Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) The process of physical and chemical change that takes place in the production of the body's heat is called:
A)temperature.
B)metabolism.
C)blood pressure.
D)respiration.
Q2) Which of the following includes all vital signs?
A)Temperature, metabolism, blood count, blood pressure
B)Temperature, pulse, rate, depth
C)Temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure
D)None of the above
Q3) What is the distance above the antecubital space for the placement of the blood pressure cuff for taking a patient's blood pressure?
A)2 inches
B)2 mm
C)1½ inches
D)None of the above
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29
Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Q1) Tooth #30 has occlusal caries,what Class would this be?
A)I
B)II
C)V
D)VI
Q2) Presentation of the treatment plan:
A)should be conducted at the conclusion of the clinical examination.
B)is typically scheduled as a 30-minute to 1-hour appointment in a casual atmosphere such as at a restaurant during lunch hour.
C)should be conducted in the treatment room where the procedures will be done. D)should be done in terms the patient will understand.
Q3) In the Universal Numbering System,what are the numbers of the four lateral incisors?
A)7, 10, 23, 26
B)6, 11, 24, 25
C)8, 9, 24, 25
D)7, 10, 24, 25
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Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Q1) What may cause teeth to darken and become more brittle because of aging?
A)Reduced size of the pulp chamber
B)Deposits of secondary dentin
C)Large caries
D)Both a and b
Q2) There are three major areas for the role of the dental assistant in caring for the medically and physically compromised patient.Which of the following does not apply?
A)Aids in diagnosis and treatment planning
B)Aids dentist in providing treatment
C)Makes the patient more comfortable and reduces anxiety
D)Serves as a source of information to patient and the patient's family
Q3) When an assistant is asked to work with a medically and physically compromised patient and family in developing and implementing a preventive program:
A)it should be tailored to the needs of the patient.
B)it should be the same preventive program that is presented to all patients.
C)he or she should respond that this is not a delegable function for an assistant.
D)he or she should transfer the patient to the dental hygienist for instructions.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) When a patient has taken a drug over time and the drug has lost its effectiveness,the patient has developed a(n):
A)drug tolerance.
B)drug interaction.
C)drug addiction.
D)allergic reaction.
Q2) Which type of drug can only be ordered by a written prescription signed by a dentist?
A)Narcotics
B)Antibiotics
C)Antidepressants
D)Bronchodilators
Q3) Who can prescribe drugs to a patient within the dental profession?
A)Dental office manager
B)Dental hygienist
C)Dental assistant
D)Dentist
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Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myocardial infarction is commonly known as:
A)a stroke.
B)hypertension.
C)a heart attack.
D)angina.
Q2) A reduction of blood flow to the brain that causes the patient to lose consciousness is called:
A)syncope.
B)fainting.
C)hypertension.
D)both a and b.
Q3) CPR is not performed until the patient is determined to be:
A)unconscious. B)unresponsive.
C)choking.
D)conscious.
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33
Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morning and evening routines for clinical areas are:
A)performed with the goal of leaving the office as soon as patient treatment is completed for the day
B)performed with the goal of leaving the office ready for patient care in the morning
C)the responsibility of the dentist to perform, in most practices
D)the responsibility of the business office staff to perform, in most practices
Q2) In preparing the morning routine (opening the office),the dental assistant should arrive _____ minutes before the first scheduled patient.
A)15
B)60
C)10
D)30
Q3) What item(s) are important to have in the reception area for patients to make their wait more comfortable?
A)Current reading material
B)Adequate seating for all patients
C)Proper lighting
D)All of the above
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Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the best ways to know your patients,and be better prepared for the day ahead,is to have a brief meeting or review:
A)as each patient arrives.
B)in the morning, during lunch, and at the end of the day.
C)each morning, before patients arrive.
D)on the following day before heading home for the evening.
Q2) The dentist and the dental assistant try to eliminate or reduce class _____ movements to reduce stress and body fatigue.
A)IV and V
B)III and IV
C)II and III
D)I and II
Q3) What is an example of Class IV motion?
A)Picking up a pen to write
B)Using a computer mouse
C)Operating an x-ray unit
D)Transferring an instrument
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35
Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most convenient and efficient ways to organize instruments and supplies for a specific procedure is the use of:
A)trays.
B)a color-coding system.
C)storage tubs.
D)autoclave bags.
Q2) Which two of the basic set-up instruments are to be transferred simultaneously using the two-handed transfer?
A)Explorer and cotton pliers
B)Mouth mirror and explorer
C)Mouth mirror and excavator
D)Explorer and periodontal probe
Q3) _____ instruments allow the operator to thoroughly inspect the health status of the oral cavity.
A)Examination
B)Hand cutting
C)Restorative
D)Accessory
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shank fits into a contra-angle attachment for a low-speed handpiece?
A)Friction-grip
B)Straight
C)Latch-type
D)Round-type
Q2) Which is the most varied category of rotary instruments?
A)Diamond rotary instruments
B)Laboratory burs
C)Carbide burs
D)Abrasive rotary instruments
Q3) Advantages of a laser handpiece over a high-speed handpiece include:
A)faster preparation time.
B)immediate vaporization of previous amalgam restorations.
C)use of an air turbine.
D)treatment that is usually painless, so anesthesia is unnecessary.
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an indication for using the saliva ejector?
A)Control saliva and moisture accumulation
B)Cementation of crown
C)Removal of solid debris
D)Fluoride treatments
Q2) Dental dams are made of either latex or latex-free material and come precut as squares that measure _____ inches.
A)4 × 4
B)5 × 5
C)6 × 6
D)both b and c
Q3) Which of the following does not describe dry-angle isolation?
A)Triangular absorbent pad
B)Isolates posterior areas of maxillary/mandibular arches
C)Tightly formed absorbent cotton
D)Blocks the flow of saliva and protects tissues in the area
Q4) The dental dam is placed _____ the local anesthetic is administered.
A)before
B)after
C)either a or b
38
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most surgical procedures are scheduled in the _____,because patients must not eat or drink for 8 to 12 hours before receiving general anesthesia.
A)early morning
B)early afternoon
C)late afternoon
D)early evening
Q2) What part of the anesthetic syringe must engage so that aspiration can occur during the injection?
A)Piston rod
B)Thumb ring
C)Barrel
D)Harpoon
Q3) The hollow center of the needle through which the anesthetic flows is called the: A)needle hub.
B)bevel.
C)gauge.
D)none of the above.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic
Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Q1) The heart of the x-ray generating system is the:
A)x-ray tube.
B)insulating oil.
C)transformer.
D)position indicator device.
Q2) Exposure to radiation:
A)no matter how small, has the potential to cause harmful biologic changes.
B)has a threshold, below which exposure is entirely safe.
C)is safer when there is a single, large dose rather than a series of smaller doses.
D)from a dental x-ray machine does not involve particulate radiation and is completely safe.
Q3) The time lapse from x-ray exposure until noticeable damage occurs is known as:
A)the latent period.
B)chronic exposure.
C)the cumulative period.
D)none of the above.
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Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A film cassette made of plastic or metal is used to hold and protect the extraoral film.During exposure,the _____ side of the cassette must always face the patient.
A)front
B)back
C)right
D)left
Q2) Digital radiography requires less radiation than traditional radiography because the:
A)exposure time is increased.
B)sensor is smaller.
C)sensor is more sensitive to x-ray energy.
D)sensor is attached to the computer.
Q3) Which is the correct order of steps in manual film processing?
A)Fix, rinse, develop, wash
B)Develop, rinse, fix, wash
C)Fix, wash, rinse, wash
D)Rinse, develop, fix, wash
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) After performing the film-screen contact test,areas of good film-screen contact will:
A)be uniform.
B)be darker.
C)vary in densities.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is not true regarding the preparation of the operatory for dental imaging?
A)Barriers should be used on all surfaces that cannot be easily cleaned and disinfected.
B)Barriers are preferred over switches to prevent electrical shorts.
C)Barriers do not need to be used because spatter of blood and saliva is unlikely.
D)All of the above are not true.
Q3) A record-keeping log for processing solution does not need to include:
A)date of solution replacement.
B)date the tanks were cleaned.
C)date of solution replenishment.
D)what the tanks were cleaned with.
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Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of bitewing films needed is based on the curvature of the arch and the: A)age of the patient.
B)size of the patient's mouth.
C)number of teeth present in the posterior areas.
D)number of periapical x-rays taken.
Q2) Incorrect horizontal angulation of the PID results in:
A)elongation.
B)foreshortening.
C)blurred images.
D)overlapped contact areas.
Q3) When using a #2 film sensor for anterior views using the paralleling technique,there are _____ anterior images.
A)four
B)six
C)seven
D)eight
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43
Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct position of the Frankfort plane for a diagnostically correct panoramic image is:
A)parallel to the floor
B)perpendicular to the floor
C)tipped downward
D)tipped upward
Q2) The part of the unit that aligns the patient's teeth as accurately as possible is the: A)head positioner.
B)focal trough.
C)Frankfort plane.
D)tubehead.
Q3) If the patient does not stand or sit with a straight spine:
A)the panoramic image will be blurred.
B)an "exaggerated smile line"" or curved downward smile line will appear.
C)detail of the apical regions of the teeth will be lost.
D)the cervical spine will appear as a radiopacity in the center of the film, obscuring the diagnostic information.
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44
Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glass ionomer can be used for class _____ restorations.
A)II
B)III
C)IV
D)V
Q2) Which is not true regarding how composite resin materials are supplied?
A)They are supplied in a lightproof syringe.
B)They require mixing.
C)They are supplied in various shades.
D)They do not require mixing.
Q3) ________ occurs when a metal restoration is touched by a fork.
A)Microleakage
B)Galvanic action
C)Sheer stress
D)Corrosion
Q4) Chewing is an example of _______ stress.
A)compressive
B)tensile
C)shear
D)all of the above
45
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium hydroxide:
A)cannot be placed under direct composite resins because it will inhibit polymerization.
B)stimulates the production of reparative dentin.
C)functions as a thick base to support extensive restorations.
D)consists of a resin in an organic solvent.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the process of removing the smear layer in dentin bonding?
A)During preparation, thousands of dentin tubules are cut.
B)Open ends of dentin tubules lead to sensitivity.
C)All moisture must be removed to assist in adhesion.
D)Completely drying the tooth structure will harm the tooth.
Q3) If a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Varnish should be placed on the ______ of the preparation.
A)walls
B)floor
C)margins
D)all of the above
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) A delay between the final mix and the actual seating of the restoration could result in _____ and the possibility of the casting not fitting completely.
A)decreased viscosity
B)an initial setting process
C)improved thermal properties of the material
D)improved flow characteristics
Q2) A cement frequently used for cementing provisional coverage is:
A)type I .
B)type II ZOE.
C)composite resin.
D)glass ionomer.
Q3) Type _____ glass ionomer cement is designed for restoring areas of erosion near the gingiva.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although technique may vary,when assisting a dentist in taking an elastomeric impression,mix the light-bodied material first.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What may be done to alleviate the gag reflex when taking alginate impressions?
A)Use fast-set alginate, as it allows the impression tray to be removed from the mouth much sooner than if using normal set alginate.
B)Do not overload the posterior regions of the trays.
C)Have the patient take deep breaths through the nose.
D)All of the above may be done.
Q3) If an alginate impression is stored in water or in a soaked paper towel,the alginate will absorb the additional water and expand.This property is called:
A)syneresis.
B)imbibition.
C)tempering.
D)viscosity.
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Light-cured resin can be used to make trays for ________ impressions.
A)edentulous
B)dentulous
C)partially edentulous
D)all types of impressions
Q2) When constructing custom trays it is best to remove excess material with a lab knife after it has cured.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which form of gypsum products is used for the creation of dies?
A)Plaster
B)Model plaster
C)Dental stone
D)High-strength stone
Q4) A trimmed maxillary model will be _____ at the anterior portion,and the mandibular model will be _____ at the anterior portion.
A)pointed; rounded
B)rounded; pointed
C)rounded; rounded
D)pointed; pointed
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulpal floor is also known as the _____ wall.
A)enamel
B)dentinal
C)external
D)pulpal
Q2) An example of a restorative dental procedure is a(n):
A)veneer.
B)teeth bleaching.
C)amalgam.
D)cavity.
Q3) A comprehensive class II restoration may involve as many as _____ surfaces of a tooth.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is having a class V restoration on the lower left first molar,what type of matrix system would be used?
A)Tofflemire matrix with a wedge
B)Automatrix system
C)Mylar system
D)None of the above
Q2) A(n) _____ Tofflemire retainer has been designed with a slight bend in the body to accommodate positioning from the lingual surface.
A)automatrix
B)Palodent-type matrix band
C)contra-angle
D)spot-welded band
Q3) Once the automatrix band is positioned on the tooth,a tightening wrench is inserted into the coil and turned:
A)counterclockwise to tighten the band.
B)until the coil is snug around the tooth.
C)clockwise to tighten the band.
D)to form the contour around the tooth.
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient has a fixed prosthesis,such as a three-unit bridge,the area under the pontic is maintained by:
A)brushing with a toothbrush.
B)threading dental floss under the pontic with a bridge threader.
C)irrigation with a cannula.
D)swishing with a mouthrinse.
Q2) The most common method to obtain gingival retraction is:
A)chemical retraction.
B)mechanical retraction.
C)surgical retraction.
D)completed with an infuser.
Q3) An indication for prescribing fixed prosthodontics is that:
A)the patient wants it.
B)one or two adjacent teeth are missing in the mouth.
C)supportive teeth are healthy.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using a pre-formed provisional crown,the crown is tried on for shape and size _____ the tooth is prepared.
A)after
B)during the time
C)before
D)none of the above; the pre-formed crown is tried on at an appointment that occurs before the crown preparation appointment.
Q2) The usual set time for the mixed acrylic before placement into the mouth is:
A)1 to 2 minutes.
B)approximately 3 minutes.
C)20 to 30 seconds.
D)4 to 5 minutes.
Q3) Once the acrylic-loaded impression is on the prepared tooth,it should remain on the tooth for approximately how long?
A)1 to 2 minutes
B)3 minutes
C)90 seconds
D)4 to 5 minutes
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53
Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ is not a component of a removable partial denture.
A)post dam
B)connector
C)retainer
D)rest
Q2) Retention of a maxillary denture depends on the suction seal known as the:
A)flange.
B)palatal suction.
C)post dam.
D)border molding.
Q3) An advantage of using acrylic teeth as opposed to porcelain teeth in partial dentures is that:
A)acrylic teeth do not produce a clicking sound during chewing.
B)they do not wear as easily as porcelain teeth do.
C)they do not stain as easily as porcelain teeth do.
D)they are more susceptible to fractures.
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A properly placed dental implant has a success rate of more than ___%.
A)90
B)80
C)70
D)60
Q2) The implantation process involves several steps and may take _____ months to complete.
A)one to three
B)three to six
C)three to nine
D)six to twelve
Q3) The dental team that works together to perform the implant procedure may includes a periodontist,prosthodontist,oral and maxillofacial surgeon,and:
A)implantologist.
B)orthodontist.
C)pedodontist.
D)endodontist.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common signs and symptoms of pulpal nerve damage include:
A)pain during chewing.
B)sensitivity to hot and cold foods.
C)facial swelling.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The two types of tests that the dentist uses to determine whether the inflammatory process has gone into the periapical tissues are ____ and ____.
A)objective; subjective
B)palpation; percussion
C)chronic; acute
D)reversible; irreversible
Q3) Which vitality test is the least useful?
A)Heat
B)Cold
C)Percussion
D)Electronic pulp
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Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruments are used primarily in periodontal procedures?
A)Hoes and files
B)Chisels and hoes
C)Scalers and files
D)Scalers and curettes
Q2) Which statement is not true concerning ultrasonic scalers?
A)The spray of water at the tip of the ultrasonic scaler prevents the tip from getting too hot and continuously flushes debris and bacteria from the pocket.
B)The ultrasonic scaler is used to remove only supragingival calculus and difficult stain.
C)The ultrasonic scaler may damage porcelain crowns, composite resins, and laminate veneers.
D)The ultrasonic scaler should not be used on primary teeth or newly erupted permanent teeth.
Q3) _____ is defined as a surgical procedure involving the removal of bone.
A)Osseous surgery
B)Ostectomy
C)Osteoplasty
D)A pedicle graft
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dislodgement of the clot from the socket or an infection in the socket that results in a failure of the healing process can lead to:
A)alveolitis.
B)dry socket.
C)severe bleeding.
D)both a and b.
Q2) A hospital may grant the oral surgeon privileges to operate in the hospital based on:
A)the surgical team.
B)if they have room.
C)their experience and competency.
D)their training only.
Q3) Which of the following is an absorbable suture material?
A)Silk
B)Polyester fiber
C)Plain catgut
D)Nylon
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a child is 10 years old and acts as if he is 8,you are describing his _____ age.
A)chronological
B)mental
C)emotional
D)none of the above
Q2) The dentist will treat severely decayed and endodontically treated primary teeth with:
A)stainless steel crowns.
B)porcelain-fused-to-metal crowns.
C)gold crowns.
D)provisional coverage.
Q3) Mental age:
A)is the child's actual age in terms of years and months.
B)refers to the child's level of intellectual capacity and development.
C)describes the child's level of emotional maturity.
D)is not used to characterize patients less than 18 years of age.
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Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following choices represents an endogenous stain?
A)An excessive amount of fluoride during the development of the tooth
B)Blueberries
C)Dental amalgam that has been incorporated into tooth structure
D)Coffee
Q2) The ______ stain found on some children's teeth may be from poor hygiene and the fungi that are retained in bacterial plaque.
A)black
B)green
C)orange
D)red
Q3) ______ polishing refers to polishing root surfaces that have been exposed during periodontal surgery.
A)Root
B)Apical
C)Therapeutic
D)Coronal
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Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The single most important factor in the success of a sealant is:
A)the type of material used.
B)that it be properly placed.
C)that the patient be recalled.
D)that the child continues to brush.
Q2) Contraindications to sealant placement include proximal decay,because:
A)proximal decay will spread to the occlusal surface.
B)posterior proximal tooth preparation will usually include the occlusal pits and fissures.
C)sealants are placed on smooth surfaces and the proximal area is a smooth surface.
D)sealants are placed on smooth surfaces and the proximal area is a rough surface.
Q3) _______ is sometimes used before sealant application to open fissures and remove slight decay.
A)Rubber cup polishing
B)Bristle-brush polishing
C)Microabrasion
D)Scaling
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What instrument is used to cut ligature ties when removing an arch wire?
A)Ligature cutters
B)Mosquito forceps
C)Explorer
D)Band removing pliers
Q2) When taking photographs,the full direct view includes the:
A)extraoral frontal view, with the lips in a relaxed position.
B)intraoral view, with all teeth in occlusion.
C)extraoral profile view of the patient's right side, with the lips in a relaxed position.
D)intraoral right buccal view, with the distal of the canine to the distal of the last molar.
Q3) Wire ligatures should be twisted and cut leaving a _____ mm pigtail.
A)1-2
B)2-3
C)3-4
D)4-5
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Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Good listening skills:
A)are one of the easiest skills to master.
B)allow you to let your mind wander when talking to a patient.
C)should not be influenced by a person's appearance.
D)do not require you to look at the speaker.
Q2) Methods to reduce stress in the dental workplace include:
A)minimizing staff so everyone is kept hopping; time goes more quickly when you are busy.
B)overbooking the appointment book, so there is never a dull moment.
C)the simultaneous performance of multiple tasks (multitasking).
D)good communication; voice problems and list possible solutions.
Q3) A patient's response to dental treatment:
A)is limited to what is being done at the time.
B)results primarily from causes that are part of the present situation.
C)may be hostile as a result of the dental staff.
D)is influenced by the patient's total personality.
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Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41128
Sample Questions
Q1) The types of preventive recall systems include which of the following?
A)Advance recall system and written recall notification
B)Telephone recall system
C)Fed-Ex recall system
D)Both a and b
Q2) Buffer time in the appointment book:
A)should always be either right before lunch or right before leaving for the day.
B)can be used for short appointments, such as a denture adjustment, if not used for an emergency.
C)should be at least three units of time.
D)should be reserved to work someone in for a routine appointment, such as a cleaning.
Q3) Which of the following is the act of classifying and arranging records so that they will be preserved safely and can be quickly retrieved when needed?
A)Sorting
B)Storage and retrieval
C)Filing
D)Charting
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64
Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41129
Sample Questions
Q1) The federal regulations that require an employer to take certain deductions from an employee's pay for payroll taxes can be found in the:
A)office policy manual.
B)state booklet explaining state income tax.
C)Circular E booklet of the IRS.
D)both b and c.
Q2) Once expenses are incurred by a dental practice,they become:
A)accounts payable.
B)net income.
C)disbursements.
D)accounts receivable.
Q3) The two patient signature boxes on the insurance claim form are necessary for:
A)release of information.
B)assignment of benefits.
C)filing the claim.
D)both a and b.
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65
Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41130
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ provide short-term positions so that you can evaluate firsthand the responsibilities and challenges of a given position; this experience can be helpful in determining whether the dental practice and the prospective employee are a good match for each other.
A)Newspaper advertisements
B)Campus placements
C)Temporary agencies
D)Dental supply companies
Q2) When submitting a cover letter with a resume,the correct salutation would be:
A)To Whom It May Concern.
B)Dear Sir or Dear Madam.
C)Dear Dr. (name of the dentist).
D)Hello.
Q3) A dental assistant is responsible for complying with all local,state,and federal laws and regulations governing the practice of dentistry where he or she is employed.
A)True
B)False
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