Cell Biology
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Cell Biology explores the fundamental unit of life the cell delving into its structure, function, and processes. This course examines cellular components such as membranes, organelles, and the cytoskeleton, and covers critical mechanisms including energy production, cell signaling, growth, division, and death. Students will investigate how cells interact with their environment and each other, and learn experimental techniques central to cell biology research. By understanding the molecular basis of cellular function, students will gain insight into broader biological systems and the foundation for advanced topics in molecular biology, genetics, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece
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56 Chapters
5383 Verified Questions
5383 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the organisms on your campus make up which of the following?
A)an ecosystem
B)a community
C)a population
D)an experimental group
E)a taxonomic domain
Answer: B
Q2) Why are protists now placed is several groups rather than in one kingdom?
A)Because it was discovered that there were both single and multi-cellular protists.
B)Because protists are the most abundant organisms on earth.
C)Because protists were discovered to be both eukaryotic and prokaryotic.
D)Because some protists use DNA as their genetic molecule and other protists use RNA.
E)Because it was determined that some protists were more closely related to plants, animals and fungi than other protists.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Van der Waals interactions result when
A)hybrid orbitals overlap.
B)electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
C)molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
D)two polar covalent bonds react.
E)a hydrogen atom loses an electron.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living matter.
B)Some trace elements are very abundant on Earth.
C)Virtually all organisms require the same elements in the same quantities.
D)Iron is an example of an element needed by all organisms.
E)Other than some trace elements, animals are mostly made up of the same elements as plants, in similar proportions.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does evaporation of water from a surface cause cooling of the surface?
A)The breaking of bonds between water molecules absorbs heat.
B)The water molecules with the most heat energy evaporate more readily.
C)The solute molecules left behind absorb heat.
D)Water molecules absorb heat from the surface in order to acquire enough energy to evaporate.
E)The expansion of water vapor extracts heat from the surface.
Answer: B
Q2) The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule.What is this attraction called?
A)a covalent bond
B)a hydrogen bond
C)an ionic bond
D)a hydrophilic bond
E)a van der Waals interaction
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecule shown above contains a carboxyl group? A)A B)B C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes ATP?
A)ATP is hydrophobic.
B)ATP is inorganic.
C)ATP is unable to react with water.
D)ATP has two covalently attached phosphates.
E)ATP is able to store energy for the cell.
Q3) Which molecule shown above can form a dimer linked by a covalent bond?
A)A B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) The label on a container of margarine lists "hydrogenated vegetable oil" as the major ingredient.What is the result of adding hydrogens to vegetable oil?
A)The hydrogenated vegetable oil has a lower melting point.
B)The hydrogenated vegetable oil stays solid at room temperature.
C)The hydrogenated vegetable oil has more "kinks" in the fatty acid chains.
D)The hydrogenated vegetable oil has fewer trans fatty acids.
E)The hydrogenated vegetable oil is less likely to clog arteries.
Q2) Which of the following molecules contain(s)an aldehyde type of carbonyl functional group?
A)1
B)4
C)8
D)10
E)1 and 4
Q3) Which class of biological polymer has the greatest functional variety?
A)polysaccharides
B)proteins
C)DNA
D)RNA
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a potassium ion (K )moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root,it must pass through several cellular structures.Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion?
A)plasma membrane primary cell wall cytoplasm vacuole
B)secondary cell wall plasma membrane primary cell wall cytoplasm vacuole
C)primary cell wall plasma membrane cytoplasm vacuole
D)primary cell wall plasma membrane lysosome cytoplasm vacuole
E)primary cell wall plasma membrane cytoplasm secondary cell wall vacuole
Q2) What are the two domains prokaryotes belong to?
A)Bacteria and Eukarya
B)Bacteria and Archaea
C)Archaea and Protista
D)Bacteria and Protista
E)Eukarya and Protista
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8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell membranes are asymmetrical.Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
A)The cell membrane forms a border between one cell and another in tightly packed tissues such as epithelium.
B)Cell membranes communicate signals from one organism to another.
C)The two sides of a cell membrane face different environments and carry out different functions.
D)The "innerness" and "outerness" of membrane surfaces are predetermined by genes. E)Proteins can only be associated with the cell membranes on the cytoplasmic side.
Q2) The cell membranes of Arctic ice fish might have which of the following adaptations?
A)very long chain fatty acids
B)branched isoprenoid lipids
C)a high percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids
D)a higher percentage of trans-fatty acids
E)no cholesterol
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9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The active site of an enzyme is the region that
A)binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme.
B)is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.
C)binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme.
D)is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.
Q2) Which of the following statements describes enzyme cooperativity?
A)A multienzyme complex contains all the enzymes of a metabolic pathway.
B)A product of a pathway serves as a competitive inhibitor of an early enzyme in the pathway.
C)A substrate molecule bound to an active site of one subunit promotes substrate binding to the active site of other subunits.
D)Several substrate molecules can be catalyzed by the same enzyme.
E)A substrate binds to an active site and inhibits cooperation between enzymes in a pathway.
Q3) What is the study of how energy flows through living organisms?
A)metabolism
B)anabolism
C)catabolism
D)bioenergetics
E)thermodynamics
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does glucose oxidation occur in a series of steps?
A)One step wouldn't allow the energy released to be harnessed efficiently.
B)It doesn't have to; it just happens to be that way.
C)Glycolysis evolved first and steps were just added over time.
D)Glucose cannot pass into the mitochondria and oxygen cannot enter the cytosol.
E)Glucose is reduced, not oxidized.
Q2) The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?
A)glycolysis
B)accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
C)the citric acid cycle
D)the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
E)the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP
Q3) Where do the catabolic products of fatty acid breakdown enter into the citric acid cycle?
A)pyruvate
B)malate or fumarate
C)acetyl CoA
D) -ketoglutarate
E)succinyl CoA
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pH of the inner thylakoid space has been measured,as have the pH of the stroma and of the cytosol of a particular plant cell.Which,if any,relationship would you expect to find?
A)The pH within the thylakoid is less than that of the stroma.
B)The pH of the stroma is lower than that of the other two measurements.
C)The pH of the stroma is higher than that of the thylakoid space but lower than that of the cytosol.
D)The pH of the thylakoid space is higher than that anywhere else in the cell.
E)There is no consistent relationship.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the figure above?
A)It represents cell processes involved in C photosynthesis.
B)It represents the type of cell structures found in CAM plants.
C)It represents an adaptation that maximizes photorespiration.
D)It represents a C photosynthetic system.
E)It represents a relationship between plant cells that photosynthesize and those that cannot.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure,the dots in the space between the two structures represent which of the following?
A)receptor molecules
B)signal transducers
C)neurotransmitters
D)hormones
E)pheromones
Q2) Which of the following would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins?
A)G protein-coupled receptor signalling
B)ligand-gated ion channel signalling
C)adenylyl cyclase activity
D)phosphatase activity
E)receptor tyrosine kinase activity
Q3) In general,a signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins
A)brings a conformational change to each protein.
B)requires binding of a hormone to a cytosol receptor.
C)cannot occur in yeasts because they lack protein phosphatases.
D)requires phosphorylase activity.
E)allows target cells to change their shape and therefore their activity.
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) G is represented by which numbered part(s)of the cycle?
A)I or V
B)II or IV
C)III only
D)IV only
E)V only
Q2) When the cell has just completed telophase,which of the following does he see?
A)a clear area in the centre of the cell
B)chromosomes clustered at the poles
C)individual chromatids separating
D)formation of vesicles at the midline
E)two small cells with chromatin
Q3) Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?
A)PDGF
B)MPF
C)protein kinase
D)cyclin
E)Cdk
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14
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transmission of traits from one generation to the next is called A)inheritance.
B)dominance.
C)natural selection.
D)Mendelian genetics.
E)evolution.
Q2) Which of these statements is false?
A)In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
B)In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX)or male (XY).
C)Single, haploid (n)sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
D)At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
E)Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Sample Questions
Q1) When both traits are exhibited in the phenotype,it is said that the alleles display A)co-dominance.
B)incomplete dominance.
C)complete dominance.
D)recessive traits.
E)gene silencing.
Q2) One species of green plant,with frondlike leaves,a spine-coated stem,and purple cup-shaped flowers,is found to be self-pollinating.Which of the following is true of this species?
A)The species must be haploid.
B)Its reproduction is asexual.
C)All members of the species have the same genotype.
D)Some of the seeds would have true-breeding traits.
E)All of its dominant traits are most frequent.
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16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)is caused by a gene on the human X chromosome.The patients have muscles that weaken over time because they have absent or decreased dystrophin,a muscle protein.They rarely live past their 20s.How likely is it for a woman to have this condition?
A)Women can never have this condition.
B)One-half of the daughters of an affected man could have this condition.
C)One-fourth of the children of an affected father and a carrier mother could have this condition.
D)Very rarely would a woman have this condition; the condition would be due to a chromosome error.
E)Only if a woman is XXX could she have this condition.
Q2) What could explain these observations?
A)The human ancestor originally had 24 pairs but complete fusion of C2 and C4 occurred, reducing the total number of chromosomes.
B)A nondisjunction event must have occurred in the human ancestor, increasing the overall ploidy.
C)The loss of a chromosome is due to a deletion event in the human ancestor.
D)C2 must have undergone an inversion with C4.
E)There is not enough information to speculate.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In his transformation experiments,what did Griffith observe?
A)Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections.
B)Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.
C)Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic.
D)Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains.
E)Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.
Q2) What would the results have been if Hershey and Chase had used an RNA virus for their experiments?
A)With an RNA virus radioactive protein would have been in the final pellet.
B)With an RNA virus radioactive RNA would have been in the final pellet.
C)With an RNA virus the liquid portion would have been radioactive.
D)With an RNA virus the protein shell would have been radioactive in both samples.
E)It is not possible to predict the results.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) When translating secretory or membrane proteins,ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by
A)a specific characteristic of the ribosome itself, which distinguishes free ribosomes from bound ribosomes.
B)a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.
C)moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus.
D)a chemical signal given off by the ER.
E)a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message.
Q2) In the structural organization of many eukaryotic genes,individual exons may be related to which of the following?
A)the sequence of the intron that immediately precedes each exon
B)the number of polypeptides making up the functional protein
C)the various domains of the polypeptide product
D)the number of restriction enzyme cutting sites
E)the number of start sites for transcription
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tumour-suppressor genes
A)are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells.
B)are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses.
C)can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion.
D)often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle.
E)do all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following types of mutation would convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?
A)a mutation that blocks transcription of the proto-oncogene
B)a mutation that creates an unstable proto-oncogene mRNA
C)a mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein
D)a deletion of most of the proto-oncogene coding sequence
E)a deletion of the 5' upstream region of the proto-oncogene coding sequence
Q3) Where would B be located in the cell?
A)cytoplasm
B)ER
C)nucleus
D)attached to ribosomes
E)in a vesicle
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans?
A)taking vitamins
B)getting vaccinated
C)taking antibiotics
D)applying antiseptics
E)taking nucleoside analogues that inhibit transcription
Q2) Which of the following is the best predictor of how much damage a virus causes?
A)ability of the infected cell to undergo normal cell division
B)ability of the infected cell to carry on translation
C)whether the infected cell produces viral protein
D)whether the viral mRNA can be transcribed
E)how much toxin the virus produces
Q3) Which of the following characteristics,structures,or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses?
A)metabolism
B)ribosomes
C)genetic material composed of nucleic acid
D)cell division
E)independent existence
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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following uses labeled probes to visualize the expression of genes in whole tissues and organisms?
A)RT-PCR
B)in situ hybridization
C)DNA microarrays
D)RNA interference
E)next generation sequencing
Q2) Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry.Which of the following is not currently one of the uses?
A)production of human insulin
B)production of human growth hormone
C)production of tissue plasminogen activator
D)genetic modification of plants to produce vaccines
E)creation of products that will remove poisons from the human body
Q3) How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
A)by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
B)by using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
C)by adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
D)by forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching
E)by reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is sequencing of eukaryotic genomes more difficult than sequencing genomes of bacteria or archaea?
A)because of the large size of eukaryotic proteins
B)because of hard-to-find proteins
C)because of the high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA
D)because of the large size of eukaryotic genomes and the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA
E)because a different technique must be used to sequence eukaryotic DNA
Q2) Which of the following variations in human DNA sequences involves duplication of relatively long stretches of chromosomes,often including the duplication of protein-coding genes?
A)copy number variants
B)single nucleotide polymorphisms
C)short tandem repeats
D)transposable elements
E)exon shuffling
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23
Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the six ground finch species have evolved most recently,then which of these is the most logical prediction?
A)They should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the sea.
B)Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch species.
C)They should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they share with the tree finches.
D)The chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less than the chances of hybridization between two tree finch species.
Q2) In contrast to Cuvier's ideas,geologists James Hutton and Charles Lyell,proposed that earth's geological features could be explained by
A)slow, gradual processes over time.
B)evolution.
C)island biogeography
D)natural catastrophes.
E)the design of the earth's Creator.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) In a hypothetical population's gene pool,an autosomal gene,which had previously been fixed,undergoes a mutation that introduces a new allele,one inherited according to incomplete dominance.Natural selection then causes stabilizing selection at this locus.Consequently,what should happen over the course of many generations?
A)The proportions of both types of homozygote should decrease.
B)The proportion of the population that is heterozygous at this locus should remain constant.
C)The population's average heterozygosity should decrease.
D)The two homozygotes should decrease at different rates.
Q2) Which of these is closest to the allele frequency in the founding population?
A)0)1 a, 0.9 A
B)0)2 a, 0.8 A
C)0)5 a, 0.5 A
D)0)8 a, 0.2 A
E)0)4 a, 0.6 A
Q3) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A)0)25
B)0)50
C)0)75
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Plant species A has a diploid number of 12.Plant species B has a diploid number of 16.A new species,C,arises as an allopolyploid from A and B.The diploid number for species C would probably be A)14.
B)16.
C)28.
D)56.
E)The diploid number can be any even number between 24 and 32.
Q2) Which of the following statements about speciation is correct?
A)The goal of natural selection is speciation.
B)When reunited, two allopatric populations will interbreed freely if speciation has occurred.
C)Natural selection chooses the reproductive barriers for populations.
D)Prezygotic reproductive barriers usually evolve before postzygotic barriers.
E)Speciation is a basis for understanding macroevolution.
Q3) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A)V is most closely related to species W.
B)X is most closely related to species W.
C)Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D)It is not possible to say from this tree.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Evolution includes all of the following points with the exception of A)species can undergo species selection just like populations of individuals undergo natural selection.
B)differential speciation success in macroevolution plays a similar role to differential reproductive success in microevolution.
C)evolutionary trends result from natural selection.
D)complex biological structures can evolve through incremental modifications, which benefit the organisms that possess them.
E)some evolutionary trends are goal oriented.
Q2) If two continents converge and are united,then the collision should cause
A)a net loss of intertidal zone and coastal habitat.
B)the extinction of any species adapted to intertidal and coastal habitats.
C)an overall decrease in the surface area located in the continental interior.
D)a decrease in climatic extremes in the interior of the new supercontinent.
E)the maintenance of the previously existing ocean currents and wind patterns.
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the phylogenetic trees above,numbers represent species and the same species are shown in both trees.Which two species are represented as sister species in Tree 2 but are not shown as sister species in Tree 1?
A)1 and 2
B)2 and 3
C)3 and 4
D)4 and 5
Q2) If it turns out that the whale lineage diverged from the lineage leading to hippos after the divergence of the lineage leading to the pigs and other artiodactyls,and if the whales continue to be classified in the order Cetacea,then what becomes true of the taxon Cetartiodactyla?
A)It should be considered as one monophyletic order.
B)It should be considered a superorder that consists of two monophyletic orders.
C)It should be established as a paraphyletic order.
D)It should be thrown out or modified by taxonomists if classification is to reflect evolutionary history.
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28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following involves metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic cells?
A)binary fission
B)endospore formation
C)endotoxin release
D)biofilms
E)photoautotrophy
Q2) During which two times can the recipient accurately be described as "recombinant: due to the sequence of events portrayed in the above figure?
A)during Times C and D
B)during Times A and C
C)during Times B and C
D)during Times A and B
E)during Times B and D
Q3) Although not present in all bacteria,this cell covering often enables cells that possess it to resist the defences of host organisms,especially their phagocytic cells.
A)endospore
B)sex pilus
C)cell wall
D)capsule
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells,how did mitochondria originate?
A)from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for proteins in energy-transfer reactions
B)from engulfed, originally free-living proteobacteria
C)by secondary endosymbiosis
D)from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
E)when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protocell
Q2) Giardia's mitosome can be said to be "doubly degenerate," because it is a degenerate form of a ________,an organelle that is itself a degenerate form of a(n)________.
A)nucleus; archaean
B)nucleus; bacterium
C)mitochondrion; proteobacterium
D)mitochondrion; spirochete
E)chloroplast; cyanobacterium
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about plant reproduction?
A)Embryophytes are small because they are in an early developmental stage.
B)Both male and female bryophytes produce gametangia.
C)Gametangia protect gametes from excess water.
D)Eggs and sperm of bryophytes swim toward one another.
E)Bryophytes are limited to asexual reproduction.
Q2) Of the following list,flagellated (swimming)sperm are generally present in which groups?
1)Lycophyta
2)Bryophyta
3)Angiosperms
4)Chlorophyta
5)Pterophyta
A)1, 2, and 3
B)1, 2, 4, and 5
C)1, 3, 4, and 5
D)2, 3, and 5
E)2, 3, 4, and 5
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure above,the process labelled "6" involves A)nuclear fission.
B)mitosis.
C)meiosis.
D)fertilization.
E)binary fission.
Q2) How many chromosomes should be in a megasporangium nucleus?
A)4
B)8
C)16
D)24
E)32
Q3) If the beetles survive by consuming cycad pollen,then whether the beetles should be considered mutualists with,or parasites of,the cycads depends upon
A)the extent to which their overall activities affect cycad reproduction.
B)the extent to which the beetles are affected by the neurotoxins.
C)the extent to which the beetles damage the cycad flowers.
D)the distance the beetles must travel between cycad microsporophylls and cycad megasporophylls.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following has the least affiliation with all of the others?
A)Glomeromycota
B)mycorrhizae
C)lichens
D)arbuscules
E)mutualistic fungi
Q2) Sexual reproduction has not been observed in Bd.If its morphology and genetics did not identify it as a chytridiomycete,then to which fungal group would Bd be assigned?
A)ascomycetes
B)zygomycetes
C)glomeromycetes
D)basidiomycetes
E)deuteromycetes
Q3) At which location is the mycelium currently absorbing the most nutrients per unit surface area,per unit time? A)A
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) What do animals as diverse as corals and monkeys have in common?
A)body cavity between body wall and digestive system
B)number of embryonic tissue layers
C)type of body symmetry
D)presence of Hox genes
E)degree of cephalization
Q2) At which developmental stage should one be able to first distinguish a protostome embryo from a deuterostome embryo?
A)fertilization
B)cleavage
C)gastrulation
D)coelom formation
E)metamorphosis
Q3) Protostome characteristics generally include which of the following?
A)a mouth that develops secondarily, and far away from the blastopore
B)radial body symmetry
C)radial cleavage
D)determinate cleavage
E)absence of a body cavity
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Page 34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lateral flaps of planaria heads have a function most similar to that of A)rhinophores.
B)dorsal plummules.
C)cerata.
D)more than one of these.
Q2) Cold water corals are prevalent in the Atlantic Ocean off the coast of Nova Scotia.These cold water corals
A)contain different species of algal symbionts compared to tropical water corals.
B)do not harbor algal symbionts due to lack of light.
C)grow slowly due to cold temperatures.
D)are not negatively impacted by fishing because they are not in tropical waters.
E)B and C
Q3) Sponges
A)have larvae which are motile and move via the motion of cilia.
B)are the simplest diploblastic animals.
C)have a nerve net but not a central nervous system.
D)have feeding cells called dinoflagellates.
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Chordate pharyngeal slits appear to have functioned first as
A)the digestive system's opening.
B)suspension-feeding devices.
C)components of the jaw.
D)gill slits for respiration.
E)portions of the inner ear.
Q2) Gd is a cold-loving fungus.Thus,which characteristics of normal bat behaviour can be most expected to favour the spread of this fungus to uninfected bats?
A)southward migration during the winter
B)communal roosting in tightly packed clusters during hibernation
C)reliance on fat reserves for calories during hibernation
D)much-reduced metabolic rate during hibernation
E)hibernating in parts of the cave that are farthest away from the mouth of the cave
Q3) Jaws first occurred in which extant group of fishes?
A)lampreys
B)chondrichthyans
C)ray-finned fishes
D)lungfishes
E)placoderms
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person working with plants may reduce the inhibition of apical dominance by auxin via which of the following?
A)pruning shoot tips
B)deep watering of the roots
C)fertilizing
D)treating the plants with auxins
E)feeding the plants nutrients
Q2) What would be a plant adaptation that increases exposure of a plant to light in a dense forest?
A)closing of the stomata
B)lateral buds
C)apical dominance
D)absence of petioles
E)intercalary meristems
Q3) What tissue makes up most of the wood of a tree?
A)primary xylem
B)secondary xylem
C)secondary phloem
D)mesophyll cells
E)vascular cambium
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to a cell with few aquaporins in its membrane,a cell containing many aquaporins will
A)have a faster rate of osmosis.
B)have a lower water potential.
C)have a higher water potential.
D)have a faster rate of active transport.
E)be flaccid.
Q2) Which of the following best explains why very few CAM plants are tall?
A)They have difficulty moving water and minerals to the top of the plant during the day.
B)They would be unable to supply sufficient sucrose for active transport of minerals into the roots during the day or night.
C)Transpiration occurs only at night, and this would cause a highly negative in the roots of a tall plant during the day.
D)Since the stomata are closed in the leaves, the Casparian strip is closed in the endodermis of the root.
E)With the stomata open at night, the transpiration rate would limit plant height.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the most effective strategy to remove toxic heavy metals from a soil?
A)heavy irrigation to leach out the heavy metals
B)application of fertilizers to compete with heavy metal uptake
C)application of sulphur to lower the soil pH and precipitate the heavy metals
D)adding plant species that have the ability to take up and volatilize heavy metals
E)inoculating soil with mycorrhizae to avoid heavy metal uptake
Q2) Most of the water taken up by a plant is
A)used as a solvent.
B)used as a hydrogen source in photosynthesis.
C)lost during transpiration.
D)converted to CO .
E)used to keep cells turgid.
Q3) The following statements are true about carnivorous plants,with the exception of A)all parasitic plants lack chlorophyll.
B)carnivorous plants do not require insects to survive.
C)many carnivorous plants live in acid bogs.
D)some plants are parasites of mycorrhizae.
E)carnivorous plants capture both insects and small mammals.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fruits develop from A)microsporangia.
B)receptacles.
C)fertilized eggs.
D)ovaries.
E)ovules.
Q2) You are studying a plant from the Amazon rain forest that shows strong self-incompatibility.To characterize this reproductive mechanism,you would look for A)ribonuclease (RNAase)activity in stigma cells.
B)RNA in the plants.
C)pollen grains with very thick walls.
D)carpels that cannot produce eggs by meiosis.
E)systems of wind, but not insect, pollination.
Q3) A seed develops from A)an ovum.
B)a pollen grain.
C)an ovule.
D)an ovary.
E)an embryo.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) In lettuce seeds,blue light initiates germination.If you measured hormone levels within the seed,which hormone would be produced upon exposure to blue light?
A)gibberellin
B)ethylene
C)abscisic acid
D)cytokinins
Q2) In order for a plant to initiate chemical responses to herbivory
A)the plant must be directly attacked by an herbivore.
B)volatile "signal" compounds must be perceived.
C)gene-for-gene recognition must occur.
D)phytoalexins must be released.
E)it must be past a certain developmental age.
Q3) Which of the following is a major mechanism whereby hormones control plant development?
A)cell respiration via regulation of the citric acid cycle
B)cell division via the cell cycle
C)cell elongation through production of cellulase
D)cell differentiation through altered spliceosome activity
E)cell synthesis of proteins via altered gene expression
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An exchange surface in direct contact with the external environment is found in the A)lungs.
B)skeletal muscles.
C)liver.
D)heart. E)brain.
Q2) Consider the energy budgets for a human,an elephant,a penguin,a mouse,and a snake.The ________ would have the highest total annual energy expenditure,and the ________ would have the highest energy expenditure per unit mass.
A)elephant; mouse
B)elephant; human
C)human; penguin
D)mouse; snake
E)penguin; mouse
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells that secrete acidic fluid in the stomach are
A)the chief cells of the stomach.
B)the parietal cells of the stomach.
C)not needed for the transformation of pepsinogen to pepsin.
D)in the lumen of the stomach.
E)adding secretions along the esophagus.
Q2) If the ob gene,which is responsible for the production of leptin,is down-regulated,the result would be
A)an increased appetite and an increased body mass.
B)a decreased appetite and a decreased body mass.
C)an increased appetite and a decreased body mass.
D)a decreased appetite and an increased body mass.
E)an unchanged appetite and normal body weight.
Q3) A mineral that is especially important for preventing anemia is A)zinc.
B)iron.
C)iodine.
D)molybdenum.
E)folic acid.
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mechanisms are used to regulate blood pressure in the closed circulatory system of vertebrates?
I.changing the force of heart contraction
II.constricting and relaxing sphincters in the walls of arterioles
III.adjusting the volume of blood contained in the veins
IV.synthesizing new capillaries
A)only I and II
B)only I and III
C)only II and III
D)I, II, and III
E)I, II, and IV
Q2) An oil-water mixture works as an insecticidal spray against mosquitoes and other insects because it
A)coats their lungs.
B)blocks the openings into the tracheal system.
C)interferes with gas exchange across the capillaries.
D)clogs their bronchi.
E)prevents gases from leaving the atmosphere.
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In active immunity,but not passive immunity,there is
A)acquisition and activation of antibodies.
B)proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow.
C)the transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta.
D)the requirement for direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen.
E)the requirement of secretion of interleukins from macrophages.
Q2) In Cases 1 and 2 in the table,the mothers would be able,if needed,to supply blood to the newborn even seven to nine months after birth; the same would not be true for Case 3.This is because
A)the fetus in Case 3 would provoke an immune response in the mother that would carry over after the birth.
B)the newborn in Case 3 would soon be able to make antibodies to the B antigen of the mother.
C)newborn children, until about age 2, do not make appreciable antibodies, except against Rh antigen.
D)passive immunity would have worn off for the third newborn, but not for the other two.
E)this difference is based on which of the mothers has been nursing her children, not on blood antigens.
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45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The osmolarity of human urine
A)can be four times as great as normal osmolarity of human plasma.
B)is always exactly equal to plasma osmolarity.
C)is always less than plasma osmolarity.
D)is always greater than plasma osmolarity.
E)is determined primarily by the concentration of glucose.
Q2) Why are the renal artery and vein critical to the process of osmoregulation in vertebrates?
A)The kidneys require constant and abnormally high oxygen supply to function.
B)The renal artery delivers blood with nitrogenous waste to the kidney and the renal vein brings blood with less nitrogenous wastes away from the kidneys.
C)The kidneys require higher than normal levels of hormones.
D)The renal artery and vein are the main pathways regulating how much urine is produced by the kidneys.
E)The renal artery delivers oxygenated blood and the renal vein removes deoxygenated blood.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testosterone is an example of
A)an androgen.
B)an estrogen.
C)a progestin.
D)a catecholamine.
E)an adrenal steroid.
Q2) Which category of signal exerts its effects on target cells by binding to membrane-bound receptor proteins?
A)neurohormones
B)estrogens
C)androgens
D)vitamin D
E)neurohormones, estrogens, androgens, and vitamin D
Q3) Hormones that promote homeostasis
A)are not found as members of antagonistic signalling mechanisms.
B)travel to target cells without passage in the plasma.
C)utilize receptors that bind any hormone.
D)initiate signal transduction in the target cell without binding to receptors.
E)usually operate as part of a negative feedback system.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the LH surge is inhibited during the ovarian cycle,which of the following events would not occur?
A)release of FSH from the pituitary gland
B)production of estradiol by the follicle
C)maturation of the primary follicle
D)ovulation of the secondary oocyte
E)release of GnRH from the hypothalamus
Q2) During human gestation,rudiments of all organs develop
A)in the first trimester.
B)in the second trimester.
C)in the third trimester.
D)while the embryo is in the oviduct.
E)during the blastocyst stage.
Q3) Most flatworms,including parasitic liver flukes,are hermaphrodites that form zygotes as the result of
A)internal fertilization.
B)external fertilization.
C)parthenogenesis.
D)eggs and sperm mixing together in excreted feces.
E)eggs and sperm mixing together in waste water.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a correct description of an anatomical relationship?
A)The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B)The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
C)The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
D)The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
Q2) The small portion of the embryo that will become its dorsal side develops from the A)morula.
B)primitive streak.
C)archenteron.
D)grey crescent.
E)blastocoel.
Q3) At the moment of sperm penetration,human eggs
A)have used flagellar propulsion to move from the ovary to the oviduct.
B)accept as many sperm as possible in order to select the one with the highest fertility.
C)are still located within the ovary.
D)have a paper-thin cell of calcium carbonate that prevents desiccation.
E)are still surrounded by follicular cells.
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Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the communication between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle
A)the motor neuron is considered the presynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the postsynaptic cell.
B)the motor neuron is considered the postsynaptic cell and the skeletal muscle is the presynaptic cell.
C)action potentials are possible on the motor neuron but not the skeletal muscle.
D)action potentials are possible on the skeletal muscle but not the motor neuron.
E)the motor neuron fires action potentials but the skeletal muscle is not electrochemically excitable.
Q2) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)occurs in a membrane made more permeable to
A)potassium ions.
B)sodium ions.
C)calcium ions.
D)ATP.
E)all neurotransmitter molecules.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system leads to
A)decreased heart rate.
B)increased secretion by the pancreas.
C)increased secretion by the gallbladder.
D)increased contraction of the stomach.
E)relaxation of the airways in the lungs.
Q2) Failure of an embryonic neuron to establish a synaptic connection to another cell
A)converts that neuron to an ependymal cell.
B)causes the neuron to migrate to another part of the brain.
C)converts that neuron to a glial cell.
D)leads to Alzheimer's disease.
E)results in the programmed cell death of that neuron.
Q3) The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the A)thalamus.
B)hypothalamus.
C)epithalamus.
D)amygdala.
E)Broca's area.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Umami perception follows the oral presence of A)sugar water.
B)a rich chocolate flavour.
C)a savory and complex cheese.
D)acidic orange juice.
E)salt water.
Q2) Muscle cells are stimulated by neurotransmitters released from the synaptic terminals of
A)T tubules.
B)motor neuron axons.
C)sensory neuron axons.
D)motor neuron dendrites.
E)sensory neuron dendrites.
Q3) Which sensory distinction is not encoded by a difference in neuron identity?
A)white and red
B)red and green
C)loud and faint
D)salty and sweet
E)spicy and cool
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Through trial and error,a rat learns to run a maze without mistakes to receive a food reward.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Which of the following experiments best addresses the hypothesis that moths stop flying in response to high-intensity bat sounds?
A)Isolate and characterize the neurons that control flight muscle.
B)Play prerecorded high-intensity bat sounds to flying moths.
C)Observe responses of moths to bats in nature.
D)Put bats and moths in an enclosure and make detailed observations of predator-prey interactions.
E)See if the moths will fly towards a bright light source.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the ocean pelagic biome is true?
A)The ocean is a vast, deep storehouse that always provides sustenance; it is the next "frontier" for feeding humanity.
B)Because it is so immense, the pelagic ocean biome is globally uniform.
C)Globally, more photosynthesis occurs in the ocean neritic biome than in the pelagic biome.
D)Pelagic ocean photosynthetic activity is disproportionately low in relation to the size of the biome.
E)The most abundant animals are vertebrate fishes.
Q2) Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors?
A)speciation ecology
B)population ecology
C)community ecology
D)ecosystem ecology
Q3) Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of
A)insufficient annual precipitation.
B)acidic soils.
C)extreme winter temperatures.
D)overbrowsing by musk ox and caribou.
E)permafrost.
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recent study of ecological footprints concluded that
A)Earth's carrying capacity for humans is about 10 billion.
B)Earth's carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption increased.
C)current demand by industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint of those countries.
D)it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying capacity for humans.
E)the ecological footprint of Canada is large because per capita resource use is high.
Q2) Which curve best describes survivorship in marine molluscs?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Keystone species
A)have little effect on trophic interactions in the community.
B)are usually one of the larger species in the community.
C)exert a strong influence on the community because of population size and their ecological niche.
D)exert a strong influence on the community, not necessarily because of population size, but because of their critical ecological role in the community.
E)can be removed from some communities without drastic effects on the community.
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a keystone species in McDonaldland?
A)Big Mac
B)Large French Fries
C)Premium Caesar Salad with Crispy Chicken
D)Filet-O-Fish
E)Chicken McNuggets
Q3) What interactions exist between acacia trees in South America and stinging ants? A)+/+
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Restoration ecology projects,including the removal of exotic species from the fynbos shrub community described above,are important because
A)they target many species that have low genetic variation.
B)fire is a threat to many restored ecosystems.
C)many habitats that are part of ecology restoration projects are those that have been highly degraded and cannot return to their natural state without human intervention.
D)areas that are being restored are those most threatened by global warming.
E)practices such as captive propagation are not as successful as they were predicted to be.
Q2) The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment yielded all of the following results except
A)Most minerals were recycled within a forest ecosystem.
B)The flow of minerals out of a natural watershed was offset by minerals flowing in.
C)Deforestation increased water runoff.
D)The nitrate concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high.
E)Calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas.
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity,which one is not correct?
A)About 25% of Earth's land area is now protected.
B)National parks are one of many types of protected areas.
C)Most protected areas are too small to protect species.
D)Management of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land surrounding the area.
E)It is especially important to protect biodiversity hot spots.
Q2) According to most conservation biologists,the single greatest threat to global biodiversity is
A)chemical pollution of water and air.
B)stratospheric ozone depletion.
C)overexploitation of certain species.
D)alteration or destruction of the physical habitat.
E)global climate change resulting from a variety of human activities.
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