Cell Biology
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Cell Biology explores the structure, function, and dynamics of cells, the fundamental units of life. This course delves into the molecular composition of cells, examining organelles, membranes, cytoskeleton, and cellular processes such as signaling, division, energy production, and transport. Students will learn about the methods used to study cells, including microscopy and molecular techniques, and will investigate how cellular dysfunction can lead to diseases. Emphasis is placed on understanding key concepts such as gene expression, cell communication, and the integration of cellular activities within tissues and organisms.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Biochemistry Life at the Molecular Level 4th Edition by Donald Voet
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phylogeny is
A)the science of biological classification based on gross morphology.
B)the science of biological classification based on the evolutionary relationships between organisms.
C)the science of biological classification based on reproductive strategies.
D)the branch of science that studies phyllopods.
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) The second law of thermodynamics states:
A)that spontaneous processes are characterized by the overall conversion of order to disorder.
B)that spontaneous processes are characterized by the conversion of work to force.
C)that nonspontaneous processes are characterized by the conversion of order to disorder.
D)that spontaneous processes are characterized by the conversion heat to pressure.
E)none of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) A strong acid is completely ionized in water, whereas a weak acid is ______.
A)hydrogen bond
B)rotational
C)H PO
D)H PO
E)HPO 2
F)disordered
G)positive entropy
H)negative entropy
I)higher electronegativity
J)insoluble
K)tetrahedral arrangement
L)acid
M)base
N)only partially ionized
Answer: N
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Chapter 3: Nucleotides, Nucleic Acids, and Genetic Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are three types of RNA that are directly involved in translation.
a.Name these three types of RNA
b.Briefly describe the function of each of these types of RNA.
Answer: a.mRNA, tRNA, rRNA.
b.mRNA moves genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.tRNA decodes the genetic message, it matches sequences of three nucleotides to amino acids.rRNA is involved in the catalysis of amide bond formation.
Q2) The major carrier of energy in the cell is:
A)adenosine monophosphate
B)adenosine diphosphate
C)adenosine triphosphate
D)adenosine tetraphosphate
E)flavin adenine dinucleotide
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zwitterions are
A)amino acids.
B)ionic molecules that are racemic.
C)ions that bear both negatively and positively charged groups.
D)side chain carboxylate anions.
E)delocalized ions.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Amino acids can be derived from purines.
B)Purines and pyrimidines can be derived from amino acids.
C)Corn contains all 20 standard amino acids.
D)Amino acids can be derived from pyrimidines.
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following amino acids has an uncharged polar side chain at pH 7.0?
A)Arg
B)Thr
C)Glu
D)Pro
E)Ile
Q4) Glutamine is an amino acid (pK<sub>a</sub>s are 2.2, and 9.1).Draw the predominant structure of glutamine at pH 1.0.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Primary Structure
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Q1) In order for DEAE to act as an anion exchanger, it must have a ______.
A)electrophoresis
B)hydrophobic interaction
C)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
D)three-dimensional shape
E)N-terminal amino acid
F)negative charge
G)nucleases
H)chromophore
I)foaming
J)high level expression
K)2-mercaptoethanol
L)positive charge
M)cation exchange
N)pI
O)chymotrypsin
P)C-terminal amino acid
Q)Sodium dodecyl sulfate
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Three-Dimensional Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following gives the best example of a nonrepetitive structure in a protein?
A)a random sequence of 12 amino acids with high P<sub> </sub>values forming an helix
B)an amino acid sequence with the following pattern " a-b-c-d-e-a-b-c-d-a-b-c-d "
C)a 13 residue helix with a Gln at position n+12 which hydrogen bonds to a residue at position n+10
D)All of the above statements describe nonrepetitive protein structures.
E)None of the above describe nonrepetitive protein structures.
Q2) Which of the following occurs first when folding a disordered polypeptide chain into a stable protein formation?
A)formation of a low energy state
B)association of ordered subunits
C)aggregation of hydrophobic regions in the protein
D)tertiary structure refinement
E)formation of a low entropy state
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8
Chapter 7: Protein Function Part I: Myoglobin and Hemoglobin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myoglobin's primary physiological role is to facilitate oxygen ________.
A)storage
B)metabolism
C)binding
D)reduction
E)diffusion
Q2) IgG is the most common immunoglobulin in the circulatory system and in the extravascular fluid.It is composed of two light chains and two heavy chains.What is the approximate molecular mass of an IgG molecule?
A)23 kDa
B)75 kDa
C)150 kDa
D)360 kDa
E)950 kDa
Q3) The oxygen binding by hemocyanins is mediated by
A)an iron ion
B)a pair of iron ions
C)a heme group
D)a copper atom
E)a pair of copper atoms
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many stereoisomers are possible for an aldopentose such as ribose?
A)2
B)4
C)8
D)16
E)32
Q2) Which polysaccharide is found in a helically coiled conformation?
A)chitin
B) -amylose
C)cellulose
D)lignin
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a heteropolysaccharide?
A)cellulose
B)chitin
C)starch
D)glycogen
E)hyaluronic acid
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Chapter 9: Lipids and Biological Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is comprised primarily of fatty acids and other single tailed amphiphiles?
A)lipid bilayers
B)two-dimensional membranes
C)liposomes
D)micelles
E)solvent-filled vesicles
Q2) The protein that forms a transmembrane pore that allows growing polypeptides to pass through the RER membrane is called the ______.
A)signal recognition particle
B)signal peptide
C)docking protein
D)translocon
E)none of the above
Q3) N-terminal signal peptides function to direct proteins
A)destined for secretion.
B)to the endoplasmic reticulum.
C)destined to be part of the lysosomes.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Chapter 10: Membrane Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rapid transport of K<sup>+</sup> ions by the KcsA ion channel moves up to ____ ions per ______.
A)10<sup>6</sup>; minute B)10<sup>1</sup>; second C)10<sup>23</sup>; minute D)10<sup>8</sup>; second E)10<sup>8</sup>; hour
Q2) In the intestinal epithelium, glucose enters the cell in symport with ______, which is subsequently ejected by ________.
A)K<sup>+</sup>; the Na<sup>+</sup>/K<sup>+</sup> pump
B)H<sup>+</sup>; oxidative metabolism
C)Na<sup>+</sup>; the Na<sup>+</sup>/K<sup>+</sup> pump
D)Na<sup>+</sup>; the GLUT1 transporter
E)Cl<sup>-</sup>; MDR transporter
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a passive-mediated transporter?
A)aquaporins
B)the Kv ion channel
C)GLUT1
D)lactose permease
E)none of the above
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Chapter 11: Enzyme Catalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Curved arrows are conventionally used to illustrate the movement of A)electron pairs.
B)single electrons. C)protons.
D)anions.
E)All of the above use this convention.
Q2) Carbohydrate metabolic enzymes bind D-glucose specifically.D-glucose has an estimated caloric value of 1 kcal per 4 grams of carbohydrate.Based on the methods used to convert the energy of D-glucose into a useable form, what would you estimate the caloric value of L-glucose to be using the same method?
A)1 kcal per 4 grams
B)1 kcal per 2 grams
C)1 kcal per 8 grams
D)0 kcal per 4 grams
E)2 kcal per 8 grams
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13
Chapter 12: Enzyme Kinetics, Inhibition and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pseudo-first-order reaction kinetics would be observed for the reaction A + B
\(\rarr\) C
A)if [A] or [B] > [C].
B)if [C]>[A] and [C]>[B].
C)if [A] or [B] = 0.
D)if [C] = 0.
E)none of the above
Q2) Protein kinases are involved in
A)the digestion of drugs to potentially toxic byproducts.
B)the degradation of enzymes to the component amino acids.
C)the phosphorylation of a wide variety of proteins.
D)the metabolism of drugs to water soluble, excretable compounds.
E)all of the above
Q3) Irreversible enzyme inhibitors
A)inactivate the enzyme
B)inhibit competitively
C)maximize product by minimizing ES\(\rarr\)E+S
D)behave allosterically
E)function via Ping Pong mechanism
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Biochemical Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following proteins has a structural motif called an "EF hand"?
A)insulin
B)calmodulin (CaM)
C)receptor tyrosine kinases (RTK)
D)cAMP-dependent protein kinase
E)scaffold proteins
Q2) The activity of protein kinase A is affected by which of the following?
I.caffeine
II.levels of cAMP
III.phosphodiesterases
IV.cholera toxin
A)I only
B)II only
C)I, IV
D)I, II, III
E)I, II, III, IV
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Chapter 14: Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the correct coenzyme forms that correspond to X and Y in the following reaction as catalyzed by lactate dehydrogenase?
Pyruvate + X Lactate + Y
A)X = NADH , Y = NAD<sup>+</sup>
B)X = NADPH , Y = NADP<sup>+</sup>
C)X = NAD<sup>+</sup> , Y = NADH
D)X = FAD , Y = FADH<sub>2</sub>
E)X = NADH , Y = NADP<sup>+</sup>
Q2) In redox half-reactions, a more positive standard reduction potential means
I.the oxidized form has a higher affinity for electrons.
II.the oxidized form has a lower affinity for electrons.
III.the reduced form has a higher affinity for electrons.
IV.the greater the tendency for the oxidized form to accept electrons.
A)I only
B)II only
C)II, III
D)I, IV
E)II, IV
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Glycogen Metabolism and Gluconeogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______ activates glycogen breakdown.
A)phosphorylase
B)gluconeogenesis
C)glucagon
D)glucose-6-phosphatase
E)cAMP
F)biotin
G)insulin
H)glycogenolysis
I)liver
J)glucose-1-phosphate
K)dolichol
L)muscle
Q2) Muscle cells are not able to supply glucose for other tissues because
A)they lack the GLUT2 transporter.
B)they lack pyruvate carboxylase.
C)they lack glucose-6-phosphatase.
D)they lack the malate-aspartate shuttle.
E)they lack glycogen phosphorylase.
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Chapter 16: Glucose Catabolism
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Q1) Which enzyme is involved in substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis?
A)Hexokinase
B)Pyruvate kinase
C)Glyceraldehyde-3phosphate dehydrogenase
D)Aldolase
E)None of the above.
Q2) Which reaction above is an oxidation reaction?
A)I, III
B)II, III
C)III only
D)IV only
E)None of the reactions I-V is oxidation reactions.
Q3) In which reaction above is ATP required?
A)I, II
B)II only
C)III only
D)IV, V
E)None of the reactions I-V requires ATP.
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18
Chapter 17: Citric Acid Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following amino acid residues facilitates the transfer of a phosphate group in the reaction producing succinate and GTP?
A)aspartate
B)glutamate
C)histidine
D)lysine
E)serine
Q2) How many electrons are transferred from one acetyl group during the citric acid cycle?
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
E)10
Q3) Which of the following enzymes of the citric acid cycle is inhibited by ATP?
A)citrate synthase
B)isocitrate dehydrogenase
C)(\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase)
D)succinyl-CoA synthetase
E)A and B
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Chapter 18: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Cytochrome c oxidase contains four redox centers: two heme groups and two redox centers containing_______.
A)shuttle
B)matrix
C)respiration
D)copper
E)heme
F)tunnel
G)plasma membrane
H)coenzyme Q
I)cytosol
J)antioxidant
K)wire
L)proton pump
Q2) The structure of ATP synthase changes in conformation as a result of A)the rotation of the and subunits.
B)the rotation of the subunit.
C)the rotation of ATP.
D)the rotation of the \(\gamma\) subunit.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 19: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Electron transfer in PbRC is approximately ____ efficient.
A)25%.
B)50%.
C)75%.
D)96%.
E)100%.
Q2) Which of the following would decrease the activity of RuBP carboxylase?
I.a change in the pH of the stroma from 6.7 to 7.9
II.an increase in the concentration of Mn<sup>2+</sup> in the stroma
III.an uncoupling protein embedded in the thylakoid membrane
IV.presence of the transition state analog CA1P
A)I, II, III, IV
B)I, III, IV
C)II, III, IV
D)III, IV
E)I, III
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21
Chapter 20: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) The molecules acetoacetate, acetone, and d-\(\beta\)-hydroxybutyrate are metabolic fuels termed ________.
A)HDL
B)propionyl-CoA
C)LDL
D)Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
E)malonyl-CoA
F)ACP
G)chylomicrons
H)phosphopantetheine
I)flavin
J)albumin
K)ketone bodies
L)cholesterol
Q2) Which enzyme catalyses the key regulatory step of cholesterol synthesis?
A)(\(\beta\)-ketothiolase)
B)HMG-CoA synthase
C)HMG-CoA reductase
D)mevalonate-5-phosphotransferase
E)phenyltransferase
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements about tryptophan synthase is FALSE?
A)Indole can pass between active sites via a channel in the enzyme.
B)Tryptophan synthase catalyzes two distinct reaction steps to form tryptophan.
C)The enzyme is a tetramer of four identical subunits.
D)The enzyme has two states, an "open" and "closed", to ensure that bound indole is not lost to solvent.
E)The indole group is produced following release of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate from the indole-glycerol-3-phosphate.
Q2) In which cellular location listed below does the following reaction take place?
arginine urea + ornithine
A)cytosol
B)mitochondrial matrix
C)lysosome
D)A or B
E)none of the above
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Chapter 22: Mammalian Fuel Metabolism: Integration and Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following metabolizes ketone bodies?
I.brain
II.liver
III.muscle
IV.adipose tissue
A)I, II, III, IV
B)I, II, III
C)I, III
D)II only
E)III only
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms for ATP regeneration are listed in order utilized?
A)glycolysis, phosphocreatine, oxidative phosphorylation
B)phosphocreatine, glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation
C)phosphocreatine, oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis,
D)phosphocreatine, oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis, gluconeogenesis
E)none of the above
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Chapter 23: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the choices correctly represents the synthesis of dTTP as represented by the following reactions?
I.dUMP + N<sup>5</sup>,N<sup>10</sup>-methylenetetrahydrofolate \(\rarr\) dTMP + dihydrofolate
II.dTMP + ATP \(\rarr\) dTTP + P<sub>i</sub>
III.dUTP + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) dUMP + PP<sub>i</sub>
IV.dUTP + N<sup>5</sup>,N<sup>10</sup>-methylenetetrahydrofolate \(\rarr\) dTTP + dihydrofolate
A)I \(\rarr\) II \(\rarr\) IV
B)IV only
C)III \(\rarr\) IV \(\rarr\) I \(\rarr\) II
D)III \(\rarr\) I \(\rarr\) II
E)III \(\rarr\) 0 I
Q2) Myoadenylate deaminase deficiency is most evident in ______ tissue.
A)liver
B)connective
C)neural
D)muscle
E)brain
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nucleic Acid Structure
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Q1) A circular 25000 base pair DNA molecule with no supercoils will have _____ helical twists if it is B-DNA.
A)about 2.5
B)about 25
C)about 250
D)about 2500
E)about 25000.
Q2) Which of the following statements about zinc fingers is FALSE?
A)Zinc fingers contain Cys and His residues.
B)Zinc is tetrahedrally coordinated as part of a small compact protein domain.
C)More than one finger can be found in a protein; as many as 60 have been observed.
D)Zinc fingers are the predominant DNA-binding motif of restriction enzymes.
E)A zinc finger recognizes specific sequences of DNA via its N-terminal helices.
Q3) The chromosomes of some viruses and bacteria are ______ and often ______.
A)linear; single stranded
B)linear; supercoiled
C)circular; single stranded
D)circular; supercoiled
E)none of the above
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Dna Replication, Repair and Recombination
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Q1) Which of the following would result in single stranded DNA?
A)Klenow fragment
B)Klentaq I
C)DnaB
D)DnaG
E)pol III
Q2) Deamination of cytosine leads to the formation of A)thymine.
B)5-methylcytosine.
C)uracil.
D)5-bromouracil.
E)5-methyluracil.
Q3) Defects in the proteins ______, which associate with RAD-51, are correlated with several types of cancer.
A)BRCA1 and BRCA2
B)RecU and RecB
C)Pol \(\alpha\) and Pol \(\beta\)
D)DSB and NHEJ
E)RecA and RecUGA
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Chapter 26: Transcription and Rna Processing
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Q1) The fact that some eukaryotic rRNAs are self-splicing indicates that
A)RNA structures are highly variable.
B)RNAs can contain modified bases.
C)eukaryotes have multiple RNA polymerases.
D)RNA can act as an enzyme or catalyst.
E)None of the above is correct.
Q2) E.coli RNA polymerase contains multiple subunits, which of the following combinations would result in promoter recognition but no RNA synthesis?
A)(F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 and )
B)(F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 and F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10)
C)(F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10, , ')
D)(F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10, , ')
E)( , , F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10)
Q3) How does the preinitiation complex begin to form at a TATA box-containing promoter?
A)RNAP binds to the sigma factor.
B)RNAP binds to the initiator (Inr)element.
C)TATA-binding protein binds to the TATA box.
D)RNAP binds to the Rho factor.
E)none of the above.
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Chapter 27: Translation
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Q1) Considering elongation of peptides via ribosome-mediated peptide synthesis, how many ATP equivalents are required for addition of on amino acid to the growing peptide chain and translocation such that the assembly is prepared for the subsequent addition of another amino acid?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
E)4
Q2) Which linkage best describes the covalent bond between an amino acid (AA)and its cognate tRNA?
A)amino group of AA linked to 5' -OH of tRNA
B)amino group of AA linked to 5' phosphate of tRNA
C)carboxyl group of AA linked to 3' -OH of tRNA
D)carboxyl group of AA linked to 3' phosphate of tRNA
E)none of the above
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Chapter 28: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which stage of transcription does the lac repressor affect in order to accomplish its function?
A)initial binding of RNAP to the promoter DNA
B)initiation of transcription after RNAP has bound the promoter
C)preventing abortive initiation
D)transcription termination
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements about repetitive DNA sequences is FALSE?
A)Both centromeres and telomeres contain repetitive DNA sequences.
B)Short tandem repeats, such as (CA)?<sub>n</sub>, may be due to replication slippage.
C)Large sections of repetitive sequences are observed in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
D)Familial relationships can be determined by analysis of repetitive DNA.
E)Repetitive sequences are found in some protein-coding genes.
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