Cell Biology
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Course Introduction
Cell Biology explores the structure, function, and processes of cells the fundamental units of life. This course covers the molecular and biochemical mechanisms that govern cell organization, gene expression, membrane dynamics, cell communication, and energy production. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of cellular components such as organelles, the cytoskeleton, and cell membranes, as well as essential processes like cell division, signaling pathways, and apoptosis. Emphasis is placed on the role of cell biology in development, disease, and biotechnology applications.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Genetic Analysis 11th Edition by Anthony J.F. Griffiths
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Chapter 1: The Genetics Revolution
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Q1) Which of the following is/are TRUE of the DNA structure solved by Watson and Crick?
A)It is a double-helical structure.
B)Sugar-phosphate backbone is always toward the outside of the DNA.
C)There are three hydrogen bonds between A and T and two hydrogen bonds between C and G.
D)All of the answer options are correct.
E)It is a double-helical structure with the sugar-phosphate backbone always toward the outside of the DNA.
Answer: E
Q2) Using a concept map,indicate all the relationships that exist among the following: chromosomes,DNA,genes,genomes,proteins,histones,chromatin,nucleus,and mitochondria.
Answer: Example: - chromosomes:
[are comprised of] DNA,histone (proteins) [carry] genes
[are located in] the nucleus,in mitochondria (each "term" should be related to at least three other terms)
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a plant of genotype A/a is selfed,and numerous offspring are scored,what proportion of the progeny is expected to have homozygous genotypes?
A)0
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Answer: C
Q2) "Dumpy" is a commonly used mutant phenotype in the nematode worm C.elegans.Two "Dumpy" individuals are crossed to each other,and this cross produces 210 "Dumpy" and 68 wild-type individuals.If one of the "Dumpy" individuals used in this cross was mated with a wild type,what "Dumpy": wild-type ratio would we observe in the offspring?
A)0:1
B)1:0
C)1:1
D)1:3
E)3:1
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Independent Assortment of Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A corn plant of genotype A/a;B/B;C/c;D/d;E/e;f/f;G/g is selfed.How many different completely homozygous genotypes could be produced?
A)2
B)4
C)8
D)16
E)32
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is/are TRUE with respect to haploid and diploid cells?
A)Following DNA replication,haploid cells become diploid.
B)In diploid cells,meiosis I results in the formation of two haploid cells.
C)In haploid cells,condensed chromosomes have an "I" shape,while in diploid cells they have an "X" shape.
D)In haploid cells meiosis is simpler,owing to unpaired chromosomes.
E)The process of meiosis is identical in haploid and diploid cells.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Mapping Eukaryote Chromosomes by
Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an experimental plant,the genes t and q are linked.A pure breeding t/t individual is crossed to a pure breeding q/q individual to obtain a dihybrid F<sub>1</sub>.Genotypically,the F<sub>1 </sub>individuals can be described as:
A)complementary dihybrids.
B)crossover dihybrids.
C)dihybrids in cis.
D)recombinant dihybrids.
E)dihybrids in trans.
Q2) A dihybrid in cis is crossed to a dihybrid in trans (the two genes of interest,A and B,are linked).What proportion of the progeny is expected to be homozygous recessive with respect to the two genes of interest?
A)less than 6.25%
B)more than 6.25%,but less than 18.75%
C)about 18.75%
D)more than 18.75%,but less than 37.5%
E)more than 37.5%
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Chapter 5: The Genetics of Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Str<sup>R</sup> mutant:
A)can grow in the presence of streptomycin.
B)can make its own streptomycin.
C)cannot grow in the presence of streptomycin.
D)cannot grow without streptomycin.
E)cannot make its own streptomycin.
Q2) The most commonly used phage characters in the study of phage inheritance are:
A)phage morphology and host morphology.
B)phage morphology and host range.
C)plaque morphology and host morphology.
D)plaque morphology and host range.
E)plaque morphology and phage morphology.
Q3) A bacterial chromosome has four markers,A,B,C,and D,evenly spaced throughout the circle.A generalized transducing phage will:
A)always transduce at least two of the four markers.
B)never transduce more than one marker.
C)transduce any of the markers by different transduction events.
D)transduce only one specific marker such as A.
E)pick up all the markers in one particle.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Gene Interaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dihybrid plant is selfed,and the offspring shows a 13:3 phenotypic ratio for flower color.If the same dihybrid plant was testcrossed instead of being selfed,what would be the expected phenotypic ratio in the offspring?
A)1:0
B)1:1
C)1:1:1:1
D)2:1:1
E)3:1
Q2) In the multiple-allele series that determines coat color in rabbits,c<sup>+</sup> encodes agouti,c<sup>ch</sup> encodes chinchilla,and c<sup>h</sup> encodes Himalayan.Dominance within this allelic series is c<sup>+</sup>>c<sup>ch</sup> > c<sup>h</sup>.In a cross of c<sup>+</sup>/c<sup>h</sup> \(\times\) c<sup>ch</sup>/c<sup>h</sup>,what proportion of progeny will be chinchilla?
A)0%
B)10%
C)25%
D)50%
E)100%
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Dna: Structure and Replication
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Q1) Initiation of replication occurs at an "origin of replication" site that typically includes an AT-rich region.Initiation benefits from these AT-rich regions because:
A)adenine-thymine pairs are held together by two H-bonds,making them easier to separate during unwinding.
B)the AT-rich region recruits DNA polymerase to begin the process of DNA replication.
C)the AT-rich region recruits topoisomerase to begin the process of DNA replication.
D)GC-rich regions are impossible to replicate because of their strong H-bonds.
E)None of the answers is correct.
Q2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase examined transformation using bacteriophage (bacterial DNA virus)and bacterial cells.In this experiment,how is transformation (altered phenotype)displayed?
A)The bacteria are transformed (by phage DNA)into virus synthesizing cells.
B)The bacteria are transformed from live to dead by the virus.
C)The bacteria are transformed from rough to smooth by the virus.
D)The bacteria are transformed into a virus.
E)Transformation is not exhibited by a virus-infected bacterial cell.
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Chapter 8: Rna: Transcription and Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose that you have sequenced five genes,including the putative promoter region of each gene,that are involved in the cold acclimation process in Arabidopsis.Each of the five genes is expressed only when the temperature falls below a certain temperature.You know that a specific transcription factor (CBF1)binds somewhere between -200 and -250 of these genes to initiate transcription.How could you use the sequences to determine the DNA sequence motif that is bound by CBF1?
Q2) Following splicing,the conserved adenosine nucleotide within the intron displays an unusual array of bonds,including:
A)a phosphate attached to the 4-carbon of the adenine nitrogenous base.
B)phosphodiester bonds attached at three places on the ribose (2 ,3 ,5 ).
C)additional methyl (-CH<sub>3</sub>)groups added to the adenine.
D)a DNA strand attached to the spliced RNA.
E)attachment to an arginine amino acid.
Q3) Of the three classes of functional RNAs,rRNA and tRNA exist in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.However,snRNAs exist only in one of these types of organisms.Do snRNAs exist in prokaryotes or eukaryotes? Explain why they are only found in that type of organism.
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Chapter 9: Proteins and Their Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the attachment of an amino acid to the correct tRNA considered to be such an important step in protein synthesis?
Q2) A gene makes a polypeptide 30 amino acids long containing an alternating sequence of phenylalanine and tyrosine.Assuming Phe = UUU and Tyr = UAU in mRNA,what are the sequences of nucleotides corresponding to this sequence in the following?
a)the mRNA strand (sense)
b)the non-template DNA strand (antisense or noncoding strand)
c)the template DNA strand (sense or coding stand)
d)the tRNA anticodon
e)Do you think that the sequence is the only possible one for these amino acids? Assume that the wobble position for each of these codons can be changed to the base cytosine.Answer questions (a)through (d)again with this new information.
Q3) Fibrous proteins contain a structure that is:
A)rounded and compact.
B)globular.
C)only comprised of secondary structure.
D)linear/extended.
E)random and variable.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Gene Isolation and Manipulation
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Q1) Restriction endonucleases BamH1,NheI,XbaI,and EcoRI make sequence-specific cuts in DNA at the following sequences:
BamHI: \(\quad \) 5'-GGATCC-3'
NheI: \(\quad \) \(\quad \)5'-GCTAGC-3'
XbaI: \(\quad \) \(\quad \)5'-TCTAGA-3'
EcoRI: \(\quad \) \(\quad \)5'-GAATTC-3'
All these enzymes break a phosphodiester bond between the first and second nucleotide (counting from the 5' end),leaving a 5' P and a 3' OH. Could ligase covalently join two ends produced by the following enzymes? If so,would ligation regenerate one of the above restriction sites?
(1)two BamH1 ends?
(2)two XbaI ends?
(3)a BamH1 and an EcoRI end?
(4)an XbaI and an NheI end?
(5)a BamH1 and an NheI end?
Q2) Bacterial cells have a variety of restriction enzymes that can degrade the DNA of an attacking virus.How do these bacterial cells protect their own DNA from being degraded by the very restriction enzymes that are meant to help them?
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Q1) In the bacteriophage \(\lambda\),the cI gene encodes the \(\lambda\) repressor,which:
A)represses lytic growth and promotes lysogeny.
B)represses lysogeny and permits lytic growth.
C)represses both lytic growth and lysogeny.
D)promotes lytic growth.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) The order of the structural genes controlling the trp operon is:
A)trpE,trpD,trpC,trpB,trpA.
B)trpA,trpC,trpB,trpD,trpE.
C)trpE,trpD,trpC,trpA trpB.
D)trpA,trpB,trpC,trpD,trpE.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) In the presence of the repressor molecule and free tryptophan,the trp operon is:
A)constitutively transcribed.
B)derepressed.
C)induced.
D)repressed.
E)transcribed but not translated.
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Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Histones are essentially identical in sequence/structure in all eukaryotic organisms from yeast to plants to animals.What does this say about the biophysical properties of DNA-packaging and the evolution of eukaryotic organisms?
Q2) The "domain-swapping" experiment that grafts the Gal4 activation domain to the LexA DNA-binding domain generates a chimeric protein that will:
A)bind to the Gal4 site.
B)bind to the LexA site.
C)activate transcription of the Gal4 gene.
D)activate transcription of the Gal7 gene.
E)All of the answer options are correct.
Q3) The mating-type (MAT)locus in yeast has how many alleles?
A)1
B)2 C)3
D)4
E)The precise number is unknown.
Q4) Describe the difference between transcriptional gene regulation and post-transcriptional gene regulation in eukaryotes.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Genetic Control of Development
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Q1) The class of genes required for establishing the formation of a contiguous block of segments is the:
A)maternal-effect genes.
B)gap genes.
C)pair-rule genes.
D)segment polarity genes.
E)Hox genes.
Q2) Genes with products provided by the female to the egg are called:
A)paternal-effect genes.
B)maternal-effect genes.
C)sex-linked genes.
D)embryo-specific genes.
E)egg-specific genes.
Q3) The class of genes required that act at a double-segment periodicity is the:
A)maternal-effect genes.
B)gap genes.
C)pair-rule genes.
D)segment polarity genes.
E)Hox genes.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Genomes and Genomics
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Q1) Sanger DNA sequencing determines the nucleotide sequence because:
A)dideoxy nucleotides are incorporated into a growing DNA strand.
B)dideoxy nucleotides terminate the growing DNA strand.
C)PPi is incorporated into the growing DNA strand.
D)PPi is released from the growing DNA strand.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) The principle of parsimony refers to:
A)the most complicated explanation involving the smallest number of evolutionary changes.
B)the most complicated explanation involving the largest number of evolutionary changes.
C)the simplest explanation involving the smallest number of evolutionary changes.
D)the simplest explanation involving the largest number of evolutionary changes.
E)explanations that support your hypothesis.
Q3) Describe the information content of a genome.
Q4) Please list three (3)approaches to reverse genetics.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Dynamic Genome: Transposable Elements
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Q1) A corn plant is homozygous for a mutant allele that results in no pigment in the seed (i.e.,white).The mutant is caused by Ds insertion that often exits late in seed development,when there is an active Ac element in the genome.If there is NO active Ac element,the seeds of this plant will be:
A)no pigment (i.e. ,white).
B)pigmented all over.
C)white with small spots of pigment.
D)white with large spots of pigment.
E)weakly pigmented.
Q2) The movement of transposable elements can cause either forward mutations or reversions.
a)Define "forward mutations" and "reversions," and describe the transposition events that cause these two types of phenotypic changes.
b)Why did Barbara McClintock focus on reversions rather than forward mutations when she first studied the inheritance of transposable elements in maize?
Q3) a)What is the C-value paradox?
b)What is the explanation for the C-value paradox?
Q4) Compare and contrast autonomous and nonautonomous transposable elements.
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Chapter 16: Mutation, Repair, and Recombination
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Q1) A mutant plant with white flowers exists that lacks red anthocyanin pigment,normally made by enzyme P.Indeed the petal tissue lacks all detectable activity for enzyme P.Despite the lack of enzyme activity,a study of homozygous mutant cells using antibodies against the wild-type enzyme demonstrated that the cells homozygous for the mutation still had the enzyme (i.e.,the antibody showed the presence of the enzyme).Which statement could explain these results?
A)The mutant had another gene the researcher was not aware of which produced an enzyme that could function like the mutated enzyme.
B)The mutant cells likely had large scale chromosomal mutations that resulted in the expression of some gene similar to the gene for enzyme P.
C)The mutant allele must have had a nonsense mutation that resulted in complete formation of a non-functioning enzyme.
D)The mutant allele must only have missense mutations that simply knocked out enzyme function yet the enzyme would still bind to the antibody.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q2) How do mutation and DNA damage differ?
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Large-Scale Chromosomal Changes
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Q1) You discover a Drosophila male that is heterozygous for a reciprocal translocation between the second and third chromosomes,each break having occurred near the centromere (which for these chromosomes is near the center).
a)Draw a diagram showing how these chromosomes would synapse at meiosis.
b)You find that this fly has the recessive genes bw (brown eyes)and eb (ebony body)on the second and third chromosomes,respectively,and wild-type alleles on the translocated ones.The fly is crossed with a female having normal chromosomes and homozygous for bw and eb.What phenotypic classes and in what ratio would be expected in the progeny of this cross? (Hint: Zygotes with an extra chromosome arm or deficient for one do not survive.Also,remember that there is no crossing over in Drosophila males.)
Q2) Which of the following diagnostic features is indicative of an inversion having occurred?
A)formation of chromosomal "loop" structures in meiosis I
B)reduced fertility
C)pseudodominance
D)formation of chromosomal loops during meiosis and reduced fertility
E)reduced fertility and pseudodominance
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Chapter 18: Population Genetics
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Q1) After a thorough analysis of the DNA from 150 university students,a small region of the human X chromosome is found to have three SNP sites.Two of those sites have three different variants,while the third site has four.How many different haplotypes were present in each student's cells?
A)1 or 2
B)3 or 6
C)10 or 20
D)32 or 64
E)It is impossible to determine based on this information alone.
Q2) Red hair (autosomal recessive)is found in approximately 4 percent of the people in Norway.If we assume that the Norwegian population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to hair color:
a)what are the frequencies of the red hair (r)and non-red hair (R)alleles?
b)what is the frequency of heterozygotes?
c)what proportion of all marriages could potentially have a child with red hair?
Q3) In a Pygmy group in central Africa,the frequencies of alleles determining the ABO blood groups were estimated as 0.2 for I<sup>A</sup>,0.1 for I<sup>B</sup>,and 0.7 for i.Assuming random mating with respect to blood group,determine the expected frequencies of the blood types A,B,AB,and O.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) In a population of beetles,the total variance of body weight is 130.It is estimated that the environmental variance is 35,and dominance genetic variance is 45.Calculate the narrow-sense heritability (h<sup>2</sup>)of body weight in these beetles.
Q2) A behavioral biologist suspects the "N" locus to be involved in the learning ability of dogs.Learning is measured through a standardized test in which each dog can score from 0 (very poor)to 20 points (excellent).In an experiment,the mean score was 15.6 for dogs of genotype N/N,12.1 for dogs of genotype N/n and 7.2 for those of genotype n/n.What is the dominance/additivity ratio for this locus?
A)0
B)higher than 0,but lower than 0.5
C)0.5
D)higher than 0.5,but lower than 1
E)1
Q3) a)What is the role of marker genes for the identification of quantitative trait loci? b)How do they differ from candidate genes?
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Chapter 20: Evolution of Genes and Traits
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Q1) When considering the rate of nucleotide divergence for a particular gene over time,which of the following has been observed to be true?
A)Nonsynonymous mutations will become established less frequently.
B)Adenine nucleotides are more readily mutated than other nucleotides.
C)Synonymous mutations will become established less frequently.
D)Nucleotide changes over time are impossible to measure.
E)Only noncoding sequences display change.
Q2) What will determine the rate of a molecular clock for a gene that codes for a functional protein?
Q3) Some of the most striking and best understood examples of morphological divergence are found in:
A)populations of antibiotic resistant bacteria.
B)virology.
C)animal body-color patterns.
D)mouse eye-color mutants.
E)blood-type examples in mammals.
Q4) Based on your knowledge of the endogenous causes of mutation,what features of an organism's phenotype or ecology should affect the molecular clock?
Q5) How will pleiotropy affect selection at particular loci?
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