Cell Biology
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Cell Biology is the scientific study of cells, the fundamental units of life. This course explores the structure, function, and organization of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, examining cellular components such as membranes, organelles, and the cytoskeleton. Students will learn about cellular processes including energy production, molecular transport, signal transduction, cell communication, growth, and division. Emphasis is placed on experimental techniques and the role of cells in health and disease, providing a foundational understanding necessary for advanced studies in biology, medicine, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 2nd Edition by Dave Wessner
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24 Chapters
1617 Verified Questions
1617 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these factors has universally facilitated infectious disease spread from the plague times until the modern day? (Select all that apply)
A)Visitations from God
B)Unhealthful air
C)Immigration
D)Air travel
E)Poverty and overcrowding
Answer: C,E
Q2) Which statement below is FALSE concerning the atmosphere of early earth?
A)The atmosphere was a reducing atmosphere.
B)Oxygen was present in very minute amounts.
C)Carbon dioxide was present in very minute amounts.
D)Hydrogen gas was present.
E)Nitrogen gas was present in very large amounts.
Answer: C
Q3) Microbial nitrogen fixation is the conversion of ammonia into dinitrogen gas.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacteria
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72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bacterial flagellum is turned by a motor using energy from:
A)ATP.
B)glucose.
C)a proton motive force.
D)phosphoenolpyruvate.
E)AMP.
Answer: C
Q2) An advantage of polyhydroxybutyrate use in plastics is: (Select all that apply)
A)reduced dependence on petroleum products
B)the likelihood of biodegradability
C)cheaper manufacture
D)potential upcycling of other organic molecules dduring the plastic manufacture
E)less biomass generation
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q3) The bacterial flagellum is structurally and functionally related to the eukaryotic flagellum.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the impermanence of the Paramecium bursaria/Zoochlorella endosymbiosis,choose the organelle whose evolution may have followed the cellular acquisition of chloroplasts and mitochondria:
A)rough endoplasmic reticulum
B)Golgi apparatus
C)Lysosome
D)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Nucleolus
Answer: C
Q2) What are the three major structures that comprise the eukaryal cytoskeleton?
A)microtubules,microfilaments,and intermediate filaments
B)centromeres,microtubules,and microfilaments
C)telomeres,centromeres,and microtubules
D)telomeres,microtubules,and microfilaments
E)telomeres,centromeres,and microfilaments
Answer: A
Q3) The slime-mold Dictyostelium discoideum is classified as a fungus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The length of DNA spooled around a histone complex is determined by digesting DNA bound to histones with a DNA endonuclease which forms breaks at unbound DNA sequences between the histone complexes,releasing fragments whose size and number reveal the spooled length and overall DNA fragment length respectively.Digestion of an archaeal DNA fragment generated two DNA segments.How long was the original DNA?
A)200 base pairs
B)500 base pairs
C)800 base pairs
D)2000 base pairs
E)5000 base pairs
Q2) Members of the archaeal phylum Euryarchaeota are similar in their rRNA gene sequence but differ greatly in their metabolic characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Archaeal cells get most of their protection against osmotic pressure differences from their cell _____ .
Q4) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct ranking of life form sizes (small to large)from the choices provided:
A)Mimivirus,Mycoplasma,poxvirus,picornavirus
B)Mycoplasma,poxvirus,picornavirus,Treponema
C)Treponema,Mimivirus,poxvirus,picornavirus
D)Mycoplasma,Mimivirus,picornavirus,poxvirus
E)Picornavirus,poxvirus,Mimivirus,Treponema
Q2) The capsid of the influenza viris differs from that of the Tobacco mosaic virus because: (select all that apply)
A)there are distinct capsids for multiple chromosomal fragments
B)the chromosome is wrapped around the capsid
C)capsomeres cover each chromosomal segment
D)there is no surrounding envelope
E)the DNA is circular
Q3) What do proto-oncogenes encode?
A)proteins that cause cell death
B)proteins that cause apoptosis in the cell
C)proteins that control cell division
D)proteins that prevent virus infection
E)retroviral proteins
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What must be added to LB medium for a prototrophic E.coli strain to be able to grow?
A)glucose
B)glucose plus nucleotides,amino acids and lipids
C)glucose plus at least one other organic component
D)glucose plus amino acids
E)the medium is sufficient
Q2) In order for a chemostat to operate properly,what must the reservoir contain?
A)a complex medium
B)vitamins
C)all twenty amino acids
D)a limiting nutrient
E)oxygen
Q3) To thrive on a selective medium,a microbe will usually possess: (Select all that apply)
A)Salt tolerance
B)Prototrophic capability
C)Anaerobic capability
D)Acid tolerance
E)Ability to metabolize an unusual nutrient
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Page 8
Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hershey and Chase experiment was able to conclusively demonstrate that DNA,not protein,was the genetic material.They were able to distinguish DNA from protein since labeled _____ incorporated into DNA while labeled _____ incorporated into proteins.
A)nitrogen;sulfur
B)magnesium;nitrogen
C)nitrogen;magnesium
D)phosphorous;sulfur
E)sulfur;nitrogen
Q2) What does Rho-independent termination of transcription in bacteria involve?
A)The formation of a hairpin loop followed by a poly A sequence.
B)The formation of a hairpin loop only.
C)A poly U sequence followed by a poly A sequence.
D)The formation of a hairpin loop followed by a poly U sequence.
E)A poly A sequence followed by a hairpin loop.
Q3) The DNA replication process in Archaea more closely resembles that in Eukarya than in Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the process of mRNA processing in eukaryal cells.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Baltimore classification scheme for viruses divides all viruses into seven groups based on
A)their shape and host.
B)host and presence or absence of an envelope.
C)how they produce mRNA and replicate their genome.
D)their shape and presence or absence of an envelope.
E)their shape,host,and presence or absence of an envelope.
Q2) The SARS virus is most likely to bind a receptor similar in amino acid sequence to: A)CD4
B)ICAM-1
C)Bgp1<sup>a</sup>
D)CR2
E)Sialic acid
Q3) Most likely,"host specificity" of a virus is determined by A)the type of nucleic acid it contains.
B)the presence or absence of an envelope.
C)viral enzymes.
D)interactions between viral attachment proteins and host cell receptors.
E)viral nucleic acid replication strategies.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Term for the direct transfer of DNA from a living donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium.
A)transduction
B)transformation
C)transfection
D)conjugation
E)electroporation
Q2) In order for a plasmid to replicate once it enters a cell,it must contain an ______ of replication that is recognized by the cell.
Q3) Which of these recombination events can successfully insert a gene containg fragment through non-homologous recombination? (Select all that apply)
A)Double crossover between two circular molecules
B)Single crossover between two circular molecules
C)Double crossover between circular and linear molecules
D)Transposon activity
E)Transformation
Q4) Mutations in a cell can occur in the absence of selective pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Techniques that have been used to analyse mRNA expression in cells include: (Select all that apply)
A)Southern blot analysis
B)Northern blot analysis
C)Western blot analysis
D)DNA microarray analysis
E)NMR
Q2) Why is it difficult to define "species" accurately when considering bacterial life forms? (Select all that apply)
A)genome sizes vary considerable
B)novel genes are found in some species members
C)bacteria do not reproduce sexually
D)mutation is ongoing and complicates sequence comparisons
E)all are correct choices
Q3) What can you infer from reading the description of 454 pyrosequencing?
A)sheared DNA initially generated very short DNA fragments
B)sheared DNA initially generated very long DNA fragments
C)dilution of DNA to be sequenced presented initial challenges
D)PCR optimization was challenging in developing this techniique
E)None is a plausible inference
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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71 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antisense RNA control of gene expression can be accomplished by:
A)sRNAs
B)siRNAs
C)miRNA
D)asRNA
E)all are correct
Q2) How is quorum sensing,a type of cell to cell communication,mediated?
A)By direct cell contact.
B)By transfer of genetic information.
C)By chemical signaling.
D)By two-component regulation.
E)By an induction mechanism.
Q3) What is an effector molecule?
A)A protein that binds to an operator region of a gene.
B)An activator protein for gene expression.
C)A small RNA molecule that inhibits translation of mRNA.
D)A small molecule that binds to an enzyme to regulate its activity.
E)A small molecule that binds to the operator region of a gene.
Q4) The regulated movement of a microbe towards or away from a chemical is called
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In creating Roundup- ready transgenic plants,the petunia EPSP gene product provided:
A)gene sequences to assist in homologous recombination events
B)a leader sequence likely to facilitate organellar transport of the desired gene product
C)genetic material to be inserted into the Ti plasmid
D)the first transgenic crop plant DNA donor
E)none is a correct choice
Q2) Which of these amino acids are commonly used as supplements in animal feed to promote growth?
A)glycine and glutamate
B)methionine and lysine
C)proline and valine
D)tryptophan and tyrosine
E)aspartate and histidine
Q3) The bacterium Bacillus megaterium naturally accumulates the storage granule poly- -hydroxybutyrate.This storage product is used to make _________.
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14
Chapter 13: Metabolism
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is the most widely used form of energy in cell processes?
A)glucose
B)NADH
C)pyruvate
D)ATP
E)citrate
Q2) The biochemical reaction,PEP + ADP Pyruvate + ATP,is an example of which of these?
A)An oxidation/reduction reaction.
B)Oxidative phosphorylation.
C)Substrate-level phosphorylation.
D)An aldolase catalyzed reaction.
E)An electron transport reaction.
Q3) A net gain of four ATP are produced during glycolysis from the conversion of glucose to pyruvate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The reduction of nitrate to a gaseous form of nitrogen,such as dinitrogen,is called
Q5) The photosynthetic membranes in cyanobacteria are called __________ membranes.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these bacteria has the most adverse influence on global warming?
A)Denitrifier species
B)Annamox species
C)Brocadia
D)Candidatus
E)Jettenia
Q2) Why is the process of denitrification detrimental to the soil?
A)It leads to acidification of the soil.
B)It leads to loss of utilizable nitrogen from the soil.
C)It leads to loss of oxygen in the soil.
D)It leads to loss of organic matter from the soil.
E)It leads to the production of toxic nitrogen intermediates.
Q3) In methane-producing environments large polymers are broken down by a consortium of microbes.This consortium includes:
A)obligate aerobic bacteria and methanogens.
B)polymer hydrolyzing microbes,fermenters,and methanogens.
C)aerobic polymer hydrolyzing microbes and fermenters.
D)primary aerobic respiratory microbes and methanogens.
E)sulfate-reducing microbes and methanogens.
Q4) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gel constituents are essential in ensuring partial DNA strand separation in the DGGE technique? (Select all that apply)
A)Urea gradient
B)Temperature gradient
C)GC-rich primer clamp
D)Polyacrylamide
E)Applied voltage
Q2) What is the deepest that viable microorganisms have been found in the Earth's crust?
A)100 meters
B)500 meters
C)1000 meters
D)1500 meters
E)3000 meters
Q3) A soil with 50% clay,20% silt and 10% sand is classified texturally as:
A)loam
B)sandy loam
C)clay
D)silty clay loam
E)sandy clay loam
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) The activated sludge method of wastewater treatment uses
A)a microbial biofilm for organic carbon reduction.
B)an inoculum from the previous activated sludge treatment.
C)chemolithotrophic bacteria for carbon reduction.
D)special chemicals for the removal of organic pollutants.
E)large screens to filter out particulate matter.
Q2) One of the main reasons for wastewater treatment is to reduce the BOD. A)True
B)False
Q3) The addition of salt to certain food for preservation has been used for hundreds of years.Salt helps to preserve food by lowering the water activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The bacterium that gives Swiss cheese its characteristic flavor and holes is in the genus ____________.
Q5) Vinegar is made by bacteria from one of two genera,either Gluconobacter or ________________.
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18
Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to make sufficient ATP for symbiotic nitrogen fixation,the plant supplies the symbionts with ____________ for energy production.
A)NADH
B)glucose
C)C3 acids
D)fatty acids
E)C4-dicarboxylic acids
Q2) Which of these is TRUE of ruminants?
A)They possess a single stomach chamber and long cecum.
B)They are considered to be hindgut fermenters.
C)They are inefficient in the digestion of plant material.
D)They obtain nutrients from digestion carried out by rumen microorganisms.
E)They often consume their own feces.
Q3) The correct order of structures ingested grass will pass through in a cecal fermenter is:
A)reticulum,omasum,abomasom,rumen
B)reticulum,rumen,omasum,colon
C)stomach,small intestine,cecum,colon
D)stomach,small intestine,colon,cecum
E)abomasom,colon,rumen,cecum
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is true of an attenuated strain of a pathogenic microbe infecting a susceptible healthy host?
A)The microbe will NOT replicate in the host.
B)The microbe will replicate in the host but not cause disease.
C)The microbe will replicate in the host and cause disease.
D)The microbe will replicate in the host and ultimately kill the host.
E)The microbe will NOT replicate in the host but will cause disease.
Q2) Term for a clustering of virulence genes on the chromosome of a pathogenic microbe.
A)transposon
B)pathogenicity island
C)operon
D)promoter
E)enhancer region
Q3) Term for pathogen properties that aid it in causing disease.
A)virulence factors
B)pathogenics
C)proteases
D)enhancers
E)promoters
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the complement molecules?
A)They are a large group of serum proteins.
B)They are a type of antibody.
C)They are mainly produced by macrophages.
D)They are mainly produced by lymphocytes.
E)They are considered to be a PAMP.
Q2) Lysosomal fusion with a phagosome ensures digestion of susceptible microbes through: (Select all that apply)
A)Release of proteases
B)Acidification of the environment
C)Release of hydrogen peroxide
D)Release of deoxyribonucleases
E)Production of nitrous oxide
Q3) Natural Killer cells immune effects are mediated via:
A)MHC II level detection
B)Lysozyme release
C)Creation of phagolysosomes
D)Granzyme release
E)C3a detection
21
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct activation sequence for CD4 cells?
A)Stimulation of B-cells for antibody production,response to MHC II-peptide complexes
B)response to MHC II-peptide complexes,differentiation into TH and memory cells
C)The cytotoxic killing of infected cells,production of Interleukin-2
D)response to MHC II-peptide complexes,production of Interleukin-2
E)Stimulation of dendritic cells,response to MHC II-peptide complexes
Q2) A direct ELISA test would be suitable for: (Select all that apply)
A)assessing pesticide levels in lake water
B)identifying recent streptococcal in a patient's bloodstream by IgM detection
C)detecting anti-Hepatitis B IgG in donated blood
D)quantifying nitroglycerine levels in soil samples taken from a munitions dump
E)all samples are suitable for analysis with the test
Q3) Activated B cells will each produce: (Select all that apply)
A)Antibodies with a unique Kappa chain
B)Antibodies with a unique Lambda chain
C)Antibodies with a unique D region in the light chain
D)Antibodies with a unique C region
E)Antibodies with identical variable region amino acid sequences
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Chapter 21: Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms of
Bacterial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which component of lipopolysaccharide is responsible for inducing a strong inflammatory response?
A)phospholipid
B)lipid A
C)core polysaccharide
D)O-antigen
E)teichoic acid
Q2) Pathogenicity islands are blocks of genes on the bacterial chromosome that most likely arose from this process.
A)spontaneous mutation
B)horizontal gene transfer
C)vertical gene transfer
D)chemically induced mutagenesis
E)mutation via gamma radiation
Q3) What is the primary effect of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)on the host?
A)Attacks cells of the immune system.
B)Triggers an intense inflammatory response.
C)Acts as a neurotoxin.
D)Causes diarrhea.
E)Lyses epithelial cells.
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myc gene was identified in: (Select all that apply)
A)Avian leukosis virus
B)Rous sarcoma virus
C)Avian myelocytoma virus
D)Cis-acting retrovirus
E)Transducing retrovirus
Q2) A vertically transmitted endogenous retrovirus is:
A)Mouse mammary tumor virus
B)Rhinovirus
C)Avian influenza virus
D)Ebola virus
E)None of the choices is correct
Q3) Evolution of viruses by reassortment causes dramatic changes to the virus.This is referred to as __________ __________.
Q4) What produces the sneezing associated with a rhinovirus infection?
A)A toxin produced by the virus.
B)The destruction of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.
C)The host inflammatory response.
D)A secondary respiratory infection.
E)Macrophage activation.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is Trypanosoma brucei gambiense,transmitted to humans?
A)By a water-borne route.
B)By an aerosol route.
C)Through the bite of a tsetse fly.
D)By direct contact.
E)Through sexual contact.
Q2) Factors which have likely affected the decimation of amphibian species in recent years include:
A)Exposure to novel fungal pathogens
B)Stress because of climate change
C)Overhunting by pet store staff
D)Distribution of frogs to new geographic areas
E)Bacteria such as J.lividum
Q3) Which of these may result in Candida albicans causing disease in immunocompetent people?
A)A change in the microflora because of antibiotic therapy.
B)A change in the antigenicity of the fungus.
C)The production of a potent exotoxin by the fungus.
D)Consumption of contaminated water containing the fungus.
E)Sexual transmission of the fungus.
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The original polio vaccine developed by Jonas Salk in 1952 was a(an)
A)subunit vaccine.
B)acellular vaccine.
C)killed virus vaccine.
D)attenuated virus vaccine.
E)conjugate vaccine.
Q2) The best way to prevent a cholera epidemic is:
A)prophylactic use of antibiotics.
B)frequent hand washing.
C)proper drinking water treatment.
D)quarantine of infected individuals.
E)vaccination.
Q3) Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs listed below does not target protein synthesis?
A)aminoglycosides
B)macrolides
C)tetracylcines
D)rifamycins
E)chloramphenicols
Q4) The smallpox Vaccinia virus was a(n)________________ vaccine.
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