Cell Biology
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Cell Biology is a foundational course that explores the structure, function, and processes of cells, which are the basic units of life. The course covers key topics such as cell theory, membrane structure and transport, organelle function, cell communication, energy transformation, and the cell cycle. Students will examine microscopy techniques, macromolecular organization, and the molecular mechanisms underlying cellular activities. Emphasis is placed on understanding how cells interact with their environment, and how these interactions are vital to the growth, development, and maintenance of living organisms.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Cell Biology 8th Edition by Harvey Lodish
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Chemical Foundations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution of 8 M urea is sometimes used in the isolation of protein molecules.When the solution is prepared by dissolving urea in water at room temperature,it becomes cold.How should the G for this process change if you tried to dissolve urea in the cold room,rather than at room temperature?
Answer: Urea will be less soluble at cold temperatures than at room temperature because the decrease in temperature will decrease the term T S,increasing the value of G,because G = H T S.The values of H and S are relatively independent of temperature.
Q2) Which of the following is a noncovalent interaction?
A)hydrophobic effect
B)ionic interactions
C)van der Waals interactions
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q3) How do cells maintain a relatively constant pH despite the fact that many metabolic processes produce acids?
Answer: All cells contain buffers such as phosphate ions that can absorb or release protons or hydroxyl ions to stabilize pH changes near neutral pH.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Genetic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Northern blotting is a technique used to detect which one of the following in cells and tissues?
A)DNA.
B)RNA.
C)protein.
D)carbohydrate.
Answer: B
Q2) Describe the properties and utility of temperature-sensitive mutations.
Answer: A temperature-sensitive mutation is a mutation that expresses a wild-type phenotype at one temperature and a mutant phenotype at another temperature.For example,the protein may exist in a wild-type conformation at a permissive temperature of 23°C;however,at a nonpermissive temperature of 36°C,the protein undergoes a conformational change to a mutant form.Temperature-sensitive or conditional mutations are especially useful for isolation of mutations in essential genes.In this case,cells with the mutation can be propagated normally at the permissive temperature,and the effect of the mutation can be studied at the nonpermissive temperature.
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is Western blotting? How can this technique be used to detect proteins?
Answer: Western blotting or immunoblotting is a method for identifying proteins separated on a gel using a specific antibody.The proteins are first separated by molecular weight using polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis and then transferred from the gel to a membrane.The membrane is incubated with a primary antibody specific for the desired protein.After unbound antibody is washed away,the presence of the bound primary antibody is detected using a secondary enzyme-linked antibody.The presence of the antibody-enzyme complex can then be detected using a chromogenic substrate.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of a zinc-finger motif?
A)zinc ion
B)proline residue
C)cysteine residue
D)histidine residue
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Culturing and Visualizing Cells
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Q1) How does the wavelength of the light used to illuminate a specimen affect the ability to resolve objects within the specimen?
Q2) In your cell biology laboratory class,you are given a sample of blood.Which of the following results are NOT possible from your analysis of this blood using flow cytometry?
A)isolation of the largest and most dense cells from the smaller blood cells
B)measurement of the amount of DNA in white blood cells
C)relative quantitation of the sizes and shapes of the cells in the blood sample
D)after the addition of fluorescent antibodies specific to T cells,the analysis of T cell abundance and size relative to other cells in the sample
Q3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum can be separated from smooth endoplasmic reticulum by differential centrifugation.What is the basis for this fractionation?
Q4) Separation of most blood cells is difficult,if not impossible,to achieve because they have similar properties and/or densities.What procedure is used to separate T-cells of the immune system from the many other different types of white blood cells or spleen cells? What feature of the T-cell facilitates the isolation protocol?
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6
Chapter 5: Fundamental Molecular Genetic Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The base in the wobble position of a codon
A)is the 5´ (first)base.
B)is the 3´ (third)base.
C)is the second base.
D)often contains adenine.
Q2) You have received a saliva sample from a group of veterinarians who think one of the dogs they are treating has rabies.Which of the following techniques would you use to determine not only if this sample contains viral particles,but how many viral particles are in the sample?
A)centrifugation
B)nucleic acid hybridization
C)plaque assay
D)all of the above
Q3) Which codon serves as the start codon in mRNA for translation?
A)AGU
B)AUG
C)UGA
D)UGG
Q4) What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
Q5) What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic bacteriophages?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bio-membrane Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are cholesterol and phospholipids transported between organelles?
Q2) All the following statements describe biomembranes except:
A)Different biomembranes may contain different proportions of the same phospholipids.
B)The two leaflets of a biomembrane may contain different phospholipids.
C)Some biomembranes have free edges.
D)Some phospholipids and cholesterol may cluster to form lipid rafts.
Q3) The enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis subject to feedback inhibition is
A)ABCB4.
B)desaturase.
C)fatty acid synthase.
D)HMG CoA reductase.
Q4) Which of the following classes of lipids is (are)present in biomembranes?
A)phosphoglycerides
B)sphingolipids
C)sterols
D)all of the above
Q5) When examined by fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP),certain integral membrane proteins are significantly less mobile than others.What accounts for this reduced mobility?
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Chapter 7: Genes Genomics and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood samples were retrieved from a crime scene,and three suspects were arrested on suspicion of committing the crime.Which of the following techniques could be used to identify the suspect(s)responsible for crime?
A)DNA fingerprinting
B)polymerase chain reaction
C)in situ hybridization
D)DNA fingerprinting and polymerase chain reaction
Q2) Which of the following mobile elements is a retrotransposon?
A)yeast Ty element
B)bacterial IS sequence
C)Drosophila P element
D)maize activator (Ac)element
Q3) All the following statements about complex transcription units are true except:
A)They can have multiple poly(A)sites.
B)They can generate multiple mRNAs.
C)They can generate multiple polypeptides.
D)They are common in bacteria.
Q4) Describe the proposed mechanism discussed in this chapter for the origin of gene families.
Q5) Describe how modification of histone tails can control chromatin condensation.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Transcriptional Control of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enhancers are considered transcription-control elements that regulate the expression of eukaryotic genes.Which one of the following is true regarding these elements?
A)They are only found upstream of the transcription start site.
B)They are never found more than one kilobase away of the transcription start site.
C)They are only found in introns.
D)They generally range in length from about 50-200 base pairs.
Q2) All the following elements can function as eukaryotic promoters except A)a TATA box.
B)an initiator element.
C)CpG islands.
D)an enhancer.
Q3) Describe how the electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)and the DNase I footprinting techniques are used to identify DNA-protein interactions.
Q4) Transcriptionally inactive genes
A)are always located within euchromatin.
B)are not located within nucleosomes.
C)often are methylated.
D)are not resistant to DNase I.
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Chapter 9: Post-Transcriptional Gene Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The consensus sequence for poly(A)addition is
A)the site of poly(A)tail addition.
B)AAUAAA.
C)downstream of the cleavage site.
D)none of the above
Q2) You are using a variety of techniques to study how the RISC complex differs between siRNAs and miRNAs and have found that what distinguishes an RISC complex containing an siRNA from one containing an miRNA is that:
A)the miRNA base-pairs perfectly with its target mRNA.
B)the siRNA base-pairs perfectly with its target mRNA.
C)the miRNA-RISC complex inhibits transcription.
D)the siRNA-RISC complex blocks translation.
Q3) Which of the following are NOT found within the nucleus?
A)Cajal bodies
B)histone locus bodies
C)nucleoli
D)P-bodies
Q4) What are the main features of splicing pre-tRNAs that distinguish it from splicing pre-mRNAs?
Q5) How is the 5´ cap added to nascent RNAs?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Transmembrane Transport of Ions and Small Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Classes of membrane transport proteins include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)ATP-powered pumps.
B)ion channels.
C)protein translocons.
D)transporters.
Q2) Which of the four classes of ATP-powered pumps share overall similarity: several subunits,the same general organization,and a similar function as H transporters?
A)ABC superfamily and P-class pumps
B)ABC superfamily and P-class pumps.
C)F-class pumps and P-class pumps
D)F-class pumps and V-class pumps
Q3) Amino acid entry into cells can occur via uniporters or symporters.If the rate of leucine entry into the cell increases when the pH decreases,this suggests:
A)leucine is being transported by a uniporter.
B)leucine is being actively pumped across the membrane against its concentration gradient.
C)leucine is being transported by a H symporter.
D)leucine is crossing the membrane via simple diffusion.
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Chapter 11: Cellular Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the absence of oxygen,NAD+ is recovered by _____,which leads to a net production of _____ ATP molecules for each glucose molecule broken down.
A)fermentation;two B)fermentation;four
C)aerobic respiration;two D)anabolism;four
Q2) What is the role of substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis?
Q3) Based on what you know about the action spectra of photosynthesis,irradiating a leaf with which of the following light types would result in the release of the greatest quantities of oxygen?
A)red and orange light
B)red and blue light
C)green and blue light
D)violet and yellow light
Q4) In chloroplasts,light absorption,electron transport,and ATP synthesis all occur:
A)in the stroma.
B)in the thylakoid lumen.
C)in or on the thylakoid membrane.
D)in or on the inner membrane.
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Chapter 12: Moving Proteins Into Membranes and Organelles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The topology of membrane proteins can often be predicted by computer programs that identify_____ topogenic segments.
A)glycosylation-specific
B)hydrophilic
C)hydrophobic
D)cleavable signal sequence
Q2) Tom/Tim and Toc/Tic protein complexes are involved in:
A)post-receptor recognition events in the cytosolic folding of proteins prior to import into mitochondria or chloroplasts.
B)pre-proteasomal steps in tagging aged proteins for degradation.
C)protein translocation into mitochondria and chloroplasts,respectively.
D)resetting biological clocks following rounds of intense protein synthesis.
Q3) Unassembled or misfolded proteins in the RER can be damaging to the physiology of a cell and therefore are transported to the cytosol where they are degraded.This transport process is referred to as:
A)polyubiquitination.
B)disulfide isomerization.
C)dislocation.
D)O-linked glycosylation.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Vesicular Traffic, Secretion, and Endocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In MDCK cells,which of the following is a sorting signal that allows proteins to be targeted to the apical membrane?
A)GPI
B)HA
C)KDEL
D)all of the above
Q2) In hepatocytes,the process by which apically destined proteins travel from the basolateral region across the cell before fusing with the apical membrane is called: A)exocytosis.
B)transcytosis.
C)endocytosis.
D)none of the above
Q3) How are soluble,luminal ER proteins that "leak" out of the ER retrieved to the ER?
Q4) What is the role of vesicles in the early stages of the secretory pathway such as ER to Golgi trafficking?
Q5) How are different coat proteins recruited to different sites within the cell?
Q6) How are clathrin-coated vesicles pinched off?
Q7) How are SNARE proteins thought to bring about specific membrane fusion?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction and G-Protein Coupled Receptors
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Q1) Pull-down assays using proteins that ONLY bind to the GTP-bound version of the small G-protein can be used to detect when small G proteins like Rac1 have been activated by various growth factors.You were given two lysates,one having been treated with platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)and the other not treated with PDGF.This method is similar to performing co-IPs,so based on that knowledge,which of the following steps is erroneous?
A)To assay for levels of active Rac1,PAK1-beads (the protein that only binds GTP-bound Rac1-conjugated to beads similar to Nickel beads)are added to each of the lysates described above and incubated on a rocking platform (on ice).
B)The tubes are vortexed well,loading buffer is added,and the samples are heated to aid in protein denaturation.
C)The samples are loaded and analyzed by SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis,then the proteins are transferred to a membrane.
D)The membrane (a.k.a.blot)will be probed with the anti-Rac antibody.
Q2) What experimental approach was used to identify functional domains of G protein-coupled receptors?
Q3) Describe the differences between an agonist and an antagonist.
Q4) How does the body respond to decreases in blood glucose levels below about 5 mM?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Signaling Pathways That Control Gene Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Latent TGF is converted to mature TGF by:
A)dephosphorylation.
B)phosphorylation.
C)proteolysis.
D)translocation.
E)none of the above
Q2) A loss-of-function mutation in which of the following would inhibit TGF signaling?
A)I-Smad
B)R-Smad
C)Ski
D)SnoN
E)all of the above
Q3) A gain-of-function mutation in which of the following would promote malignancy in cells whose proliferation is inhibited by TGF ?
A)co-Smad
B)I-Smad
C)R-Smad
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Cell Organization and Movement I: Microfilaments
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Q1) The plasma membrane of eukaryotic cells is supported by:
A)actin filaments.
B)microtubules.
C)lamins.
D)intermediate filaments.
Q2) Membrane extension during cell locomotion is driven by:
A)myosin II.
B)actin depolymerization.
C)contraction.
D)actin polymerization.
Q3) Multinucleated cells may result from a defect in:
A)myosin V.
B)myosin I.
C)stress fiber formation.
D)myosin II.
Q4) What actin-binding protein mediates gel-sol transitions,and how is this protein's activity regulated?
Q5) How do actin filaments appear when viewed by negative stain electron microscopy?
Q6) What is the function of thymosin ?
Q7) How are actin-binding proteins involved in gel-sol transitions? Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cell Organization and Movement II:
Microtubules and Intermediate Filaments
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Q1) A microtubule protofilament is formed by the:
A)lateral association of only -tubulin subunits.
B)head-to-tail association of only -tubulin subunits.
C)lateral association of tubulin dimers.
D)head-to-tail association of tubulin dimers.
Q2) What are the effects of colchicine and taxol on cells?
Q3) For kinesin motors,the direction of movement along a microtubule is specified by the motor's:
A)motor (head)domain.
B)neck region.
C)stalk domain.
D)tail domain.
Q4) In cells,the -tubulin ring complex is found:
A)in the hollow core of the microtubule.
B)at the microtubule ( )end.
C)at the microtubule (+)end.
D)along the outer wall of the microtubule.
Q5) What effect will addition of AMP-PNP have on axonal transport?
Q6) In most cells,where do all microtubules originate?
Q7) What function do kinetochore-bound motor proteins perform during anaphase A? Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 18: Regulating the Eukaryotic Cell Cycle
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Q1) Chk1is activated by:
A)ATR.
B)Mad1.
C)p53.
D)Mad1 and p53.
Q2) What is a cdc mutant? What protein is encoded by cdc2 in fission yeast?
Q3) How does the presence of unreplicated DNA prevent entry into mitosis?
Q4) What is the difference between a kinetochore and a centromere?
Q5) Site-directed mutagenesis of Tyr-15 to Phe in cdc2:
A)results in the wee phenotype.
B)results in a phenotype similar to that caused by mutation in cdc25.
C)increases the possible number of phosphate groups on Cdc2.
D)prevents binding of Cdc13.
Q6) DNA replication at each origin occurs only once during the cell cycle because of:
A)specificity of the origin-recognition complex (ORC).
B)S phase Cdk phosphorylating MCM helicase.
C)MCM helicase loading by M phase cyclins.
D)G1 cyclin/cdk activation of E2F.
Q7) Compare cohesin function during mitosis and meiosis.
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Chapter 19: Integrating Cells Into Tissues
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Q1) The collagen triple-helix domain is NOT:
A)rich in glycine.
B)an helix.
C)rich in proline.
D)rich in hydroxyproline.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding matrix metalloproteases?
A)Their activity depends on zinc ions.
B)They are responsible for cleaving -catenin from E-cadherin.
C)They are inhibited by TIMPs.
D)Some of the members are called gelatinases.
Q3) Heparan sulfate,an example of a(n)_____________,aids in the activation of
A)GAG;FGFR
B)proteoglycan;FGF
C)multi-adhesive protein;FGFR
D)integrin;cell motility
Q4) What are the cytoskeletal proteins associated with hemidesmosomes?
Q5) Describe the importance of extravasation and how leukocytes use this mechanism to fight infection/inflammation.
Page 23
Q6) How are multiple forms of fibronectin generated?
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Chapter 30: Cell Birth, Lineage, and Death
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Q1) Dolly,the famous sheep,was cloned using:
A)induced pluripotent stem cells.
B)homologous recombination.
C)somatic cell nuclear transfer.
D)Cre recombinase.
Q2) Which of the following provides evidence for the role of Paneth cells in supporting the intestinal stem cell niche?
A)Mutant mice with reduced numbers of Paneth cells have fewer intestinal stem cells.
B)Co-culture of Paneth cells with intestinal stem cells leads to formation of villus-like structures.
C)Paneth cells produce Wnt.
D)all of the above
Q3) In cells that have been signaled to die via TNF-a receptor signaling but lack caspase-8 activity:
A)apoptosis occurs via the other caspases.
B)necroptosis occurs downstream of RIP protein activation of MLKL.
C)the cell remains alive and viable.
D)none of the above
Q4) Describe gamete fusion that occurs during mammalian fertilization.
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Chapter 21: Nerve Cells
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Q1) Which of the following proteins is NOT part of a four-helix complex that mediates fusion of synaptic vesicles with the plasma membrane?
A)NSF
B)SNAP-25
C)syntaxin
D)VAMP
Q2) Reception of taste causes:
A)an action potential that travels along the axon of a taste cell.
B)release of neurotransmitters that are detected by adjacent neurons.
C)an increase in cGMP that inactivates ligand gated Na /Ca ² channels.
D)activation of TRPV1,which is a ligand gated Na /Ca ² channel.
Q3) Which cells produce myelin sheaths?
A)Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes
B)astrocytes
C)afferent neurons
D)interneurons
Q4) How are neurotransmitters packaged at synaptic endings for quantal release?
Q5) Explain how the expression of the H /acetylcholine antiporter and the choline acetyltransferase enzyme are coordinated.
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Chapter 22: Immunology
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Q1) Which cell type is responsible for providing an innate immune response to viruses?
A)macrophages
B)natural killer cells
C)dendritic cells
D)epithelial cells
Q2) Which class of immunoglobulins is made first?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q3) When tissue damage occurs,what attracts neutrophils to the site of damage?
Q4) Which immunoglobulin is secreted as a pentamer?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q5) Fluid and immune system cells can escape from blood vessels to provide nutrients and defensive proteins to tissues.How are the cells and fluid replaced to maintain homeostasis in the bloodstream?
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Chapter 23: Cancer
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Q1) Src is a:
A)growth factor.
B)kinase.
C)phosphatase.
D)transcription factor.
Q2) Explain how the chemotherapeutic drug Gleevec works in the treatment of myelogenous leukemia.
Q3) What is the multi-hit model of cancer? What data support this model?
Q4) Direct-acting carcinogens are those that:
A)chemically react with nitrogen and phosphorous atoms in DNA.
B)work in conjunction with cytochrome P-450 in the endoplasmic reticulum.
C)are mainly reactive electrophiles.
D)all of the above
Q5) Which of the following interventions would NOT be likely to prevent tumor cells from metastasizing?
A)inhibitors of adhesion molecules
B)inhibitors of enzymes that degrade the basement membrane
C)inhibitors of cell motility
D)inhibitors of EGF
Q6) Describe gain-of-function and loss-of-function mutations with respect to cancer.
Page 27
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