Cell Biology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Cell Biology is the study of the structure, function, and processes of cells, the fundamental units of life. This course explores the molecular and biochemical mechanisms that underlie cellular behavior, including membrane dynamics, organelle function, energy production, signal transduction, cell division, and cell communication. Students will examine both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, gaining insight into topics such as gene expression, protein synthesis, intracellular transport, and the regulation of developmental pathways. Laboratory techniques and recent advances in the field are also discussed, providing a comprehensive foundation for understanding how cellular processes contribute to the complexity of life.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology
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Q1) Which of the following would not be a nucleic acid form found in a viral genome?
A) dsDNA
B) ssDNA
C) dsRNA
D) ssRNA
E) an RNA:DNA hybrid
Answer: E
Q2) Plant viruses use which cellular structures to spread between host cells?
A) endosomes
B) plasmodesmata
C) plasma membranes
D) vesicles
E) receptors
Answer: B
Q3) The major advantage of a hemagglutination assay to measure the amount of virus particles in a solution is that it is very accurate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a regular icosahedron?
A) It has 12 vertices of 5-fold symmetry.
B) It has 20 triangular faces.
C) It has 20 sides with 3-fold symmetry.
D) It has 30 edges with 2-fold symmetry
E) It has 6 square faces.
Answer: E
Q2) A Type I membrane protein has which of the following structures?
A) Both the C-terminus and the N-terminus face the inside of the virion.
B) It passes through the viral envelope multiple times.
C) The N-terminus faces outside the virion and the C-terminus faces inside the virion.
D) The N-terminus faces inside the virion and the C-terminus faces outside the virion.
E) The protein lacks a transmembrane domain and is secreted from the infected cell.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses
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Q1) Mimivirus, which infects an amoeba, is the largest known dsDNA virus and has a genome larger than some free living bacteria and archae.Even though it encodes many of its own enzymes and even tRNAs, it still does not produce its own ribosomes.Describe the possible evolutionary origin of such a large and complex viruses.
Answer: Mimiviruses, along with poxviruses, are thought to have possibly once been independently replicating cells that lost the ability to make their own ribosomes and took on an intracellular parasitic life style.These viruses are capable of synthesizing and processing their mRNAs using mechanisms very similar to those used by the host cell.Another hypothesis is that they may have been precursors to the eukaryotic cell nucleus by at one point becoming incorporated into a prokaryotic cell.
Q2) The name of a virus family in the Latin classification system has which of the following endings?
A) -viridae
B) -virales
C) -virinae
D) -virus
E) -virusdae
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Virus Entry
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Q1) A soluble form of the CD4 protein was once investigated as a treatment for HIV infection.How would this protein work to block infection.
A) It would raise the pH of the endosome and prevent activation of the fusion protein.
B) It would bind to the cell membrane and prevent fusion of the HIV virion with the plasma membrane.
C) It would interact with the host cell receptor and prevent binding by the virion glycoproetin.
D) It would interact with the HIV envelope glycoprotein and block its interaction with the host cell receptor.
E) It would inhibit entry of the viral genome into the cell nucleus.
Q2) It would be correct to say that in a topological sense the nucleocapsid of an enveloped virion has never left the cytoplasm of a host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe what a fusion peptide is and how it is involved in mediating membrane fusion between the viral envelope and the cell membrane?
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Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages
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Q1) During the replication cycle of the ssRNA phage MS2, the lysis gene can not be translated in the absence of translation of the coat protein gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following structures found on E.coli cells is required for infection with a ssRNA phage?
A) Cell wall
B) Lipopolysaccharide
C) F-pili
D) Cell surface receptor
E) All of the above are required.
Q3) How is the structure of an RNA phage virion different from the structure of the virion of many dsDNA phages?
A) They have much shorter tails than the DNA phages.
B) The heads do not use icosahedral symmetry.
C) The icosahedral head has a very large triangulation number.
D) They are solely composed of a helical nucleocapsid.
E) They lack the tail structure used to inject the genome into the host cell.
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Chapter 6: Microviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes the first step in the replication cycle of the phage X174?
A) Conversion of ssDNA into dsDNA.
B) Translation of the viral genome into protein.
C) Transcription of the viral DNA by the cellular RNA polymerase.
D) Transcription of the viral DNA by the viral RNA polymerase.
E) Integration of the viral DNA into the host chromosome.
Q2) Abundant synthesis of the E protein from the bacteriophage X174 would lead to premature lysis of the host cell.Which of the following mechanisms controls the synthesis of the E protein?
A) The mRNA is transcribed from a weak promoter.
B) The open reading frame has a weak ribosome binding site.
C) The secondary structure of the mRNA prevents translation of the E protein.
D) The repressor protein prevents transcription of the mRNA.
E) There is a strong transcriptional terminator upstream of the E gene.
Q3) Because gokushoviruses infect bacteria that can parasitize eukaryotic cells, they may have been the evolutionary source for eukaryotic viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Bacteriophage
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Q1) The promoters of the Class II and Class III genes in the bacteriophage T7 have the same -10 and -35 sequences as the promoters for host cell genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteriophage T7 expresses an exonuclease which degrades the host cell DNA in order to provide nucleotides for viral DNA replication.
A)True B)False
Q3) What would be observed in a cell infected with a T7 phage mutated in gene 3 (endonuclease gene).
A) No Class II mRNAs.
B) No Class III mRNAs.
C) Incomplete entry of the viral genome.
D) Concatamers of the viral genome.
E) Incomplete virus capsids.
Q4) The bacteriophage T7 is dependent on the host cell DNA polymerase for replication of the viral DNA.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the cII protein from phage?
A) It represses transcription from P<sub>R</sub>.
B) It activates transcription from P<sub>RM</sub>.
C) It activates transcription from P<sub>RE</sub>.
D) It inhibits cellular proteases that cleave the cI repressor.
E) It antiterminates transcription at t<sub>L</sub>1.
Q2) The R and S proteins from phage can form complexes called holin and spanin.Which of the following describes the process that these complexes participate in?
A) Assembly of the virion.
B) Replication of the viral genome.
C) Packaging of the viral genome into the head
D) Excision of the viral genome from the host chromosome.
E) Lysis of the host cell to release virions.
Q3) CRISPR elements are places in the bacterial chromosome where phage genomes integrate during lysogeny.
A)True
B)False
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10
Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics is common to many of the viruses that infect archaeal cells and distinguishes them from the phages that infect bacteria.
A) They release mature virions without lysing the host cell.
B) Their viral genomes are very high in AT basepairs.
C) Their viral genomes are linear.
D) Their viral genomes are composed of double-stranded RNA.
E) Their virions are composed of icosahedral capsids.
Q2) Which of the following is a description of an IS element?
A) A short transposable DNA sequence
B) A region of DNA where transcription begins
C) A telomeric-like sequence at the ends of the DNA
D) A region of the host chromosome where the viral DNA integrates
E) A region of DNA that acts as an origin or replication
Q3) Infection of the archaeal cell Acidianus with the virus ATV at the suboptimal temperature of 75 C leads to a productive lytic infection rather than lysogeny.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus
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Q1) In an infected plants, the cucumber mosaic virus replicase complex is associated with the membrane surrounding which of the following cellular organelles?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) Nucleus
C) Mitochondria
D) Central Vacuole
E) Chloroplast
Q2) Viruses that infect plants must contend with the thick cell wall, which is impedes movement of macromolecules between cells.Describe the mechanisms that cucumber mosaic virus uses to transverse this cell wall to both initiate an infection as well as spread through the plant.
Q3) Which of the following statements about satellite RNAs found in cucumber mosaic virus infections is FALSE?
A) They require a cucumber mosaic virus for replication.
B) They are packaged into cucumber mosaic virus capsids.
C) They are small linear RNA molecules.
D) They encode several functional proteins.
E) They can increase the symptoms produced by cucumber mosaic virus.
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Chapter 11: Picornaviruses
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Q1) The 5' end of the poliovirus genomic RNA contains all of the following EXCEPT
A) A 5' cap
B) An unusually long noncoding region
C) A pyrimidine-rich tract
D) A high degree of RNA secondary structure
E) Multiple AUG start codons
Q2) How does cleavage of the host cell protein eIF-4G give the virus a competitive advantage?
A) It releases translation factors that the virus needs.
B) It inhibits a cellular nuclease that would degrade the viral genome.
C) It prevents translation of host cell mRNAs but not viral genomes.
D) It inhibits host cell defense mechanisms.
E) It releases nucleotides to be used in viral genome replication.
Q3) Which of the following describes the source of the protease that cleaves the picornavirus polyprotein into individual functional proteins?
A) It is a cellular protease.
B) It is brought into the host cell with the virion.
C) It is part of the polyprotein.
D) It is one of the capsid proteins.
E) It is a complex of a viral and a cellular protein.
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Chapter 12: Flaviviruses
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Q1) Which of the following techniques was used to isolate the flavivirus Hepatitis C virus?
A) Molecular cloning of the viral cDNA
B) Purification of virus particles
C) Antibody staining with patient serum
D) Plaque assay
E) Southern blotting
Q2) In the mature flavivirus virion, the fusion peptide on the E protein is buried in the dimer interface.Which of the following conditions causes the fusion peptide to become exposed?
A) Uptake of the virion via receptor mediated endocytosis.
B) Interaction with the sialic acid residues on the surface of the cell.
C) Binding to the host cell receptor on the surface of the cell.
D) Drop in pH in the endosome.
E) Binding to the host cell membrane.
Q3) Since flaviviruses replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell, they do not need to encode a methyltransferase enzyme to produce the 5' cap on the viral genomic RNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Togaviruses
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Q1) How does a togavirus ensure that only full length genomes are packaged into the virions?
A) Only full length genomes will fit into the capsid.
B) Only full length genomes are produced near the site of assembly.
C) Only full length genomes can bind to the envelope glycoproteins.
D) Only full length genomes contain the packaging signal.
E) Only full length genomes can be processed by the viral nuclease.
Q2) An experiment was done in togaviruses where the nsP2 protein was mutated so that it can proteolytically cleave the P123 protein very quickly.Which of the following describes the results of this experiment?
A) Inability of the virus to produce negative-strand genomes.
B) Inability of the virus to produce positive-strange genomes.
C) Inability of the virus to produce subgenomic mRNAs.
D) Faster replication of the virus genome.
E) Production of higher levels of virus particles.
Q3) There are two proposed mechanisms for how togaviruses assemble their virions.Describe the two mechanisms and any available evidence that supports them.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Coronaviruses
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Q1) The membrane proteins of coronaviruses are glycosylated in which of the following cellular compartments?
A) Cytoplasm
B) Endosome
C) Lysosome
D) Smooth ER
E) Golgi apparatus
Q2) Which of the following is an enzymatic function found in the nonstructural proteins of a coronavirus?
A) Methyltransferase
B) Helicase
C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D) Ribonuclease
E) All of the above.
Q3) The subgenomic mRNAs in the coronaviruses are synthesized from subgenomic negative-strand templates.
A)True
B)False
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16
Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses
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Q1) Most of the genomes of the paramyxoviruses have been shown to have genomes lengths that are exact multiple of 8 nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How is the poly(A)tail added to the 3' ends of the mRNAs produced during infection with a paramyxovirus?
A) The viral polymerase stutters at a poly(U) sequence.
B) The cellular poly(A) polymerase adds it.
C) Paramyxovirus mRNAs do not have poly(A) tails.
D) The viral poly(A) polymerase adds it after the mRNA is released from the template.
E) The entire poly(A) tail is encoded in the genome.
Q3) Mutation of the RNA editing site in the genome of a paramyxovirus will have which of the following effects?
A) It eliminates the production of the P protein.
B) It eliminates the production of the V protein.
C) It causes the production of the P protein.
D) It causes the production of the V protein
E) It eliminates mRNA splicing.
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Chapter 16: Filovirouses
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Q1) In wildtype Ebola virus infections, only 20% of the envelope glycoprotein contains the transmembrane domain.Which of the following mechanisms controls the production of this membrane form of the protein?
A) Alternative mRNA splicing
B) RNA editing
C) Ribosomal frameshifting
D) Reading through a stop codon
E) Proteolytic cleavage
Q2) Marburg virus is named after which of the following?
A) A river in Africa.
B) A country in Africa.
C) A town in Africa.
D) A town in Germany.
E) A country in Europe.
Q3) There is a concern that filoviruses could be used as agents of germ warfare.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the system that has allowed scientists to produce infectious filoviruses using transfection of several plasmids into cells.
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Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is a type of human illness NOT caused by a member of the bunyavirus family?
A) fever
B) encephalitis
C) hemorrhagic fever
D) fatal respiratory syndrome
E) arthritis
Q2) Bunyavirus mRNAs are translated while they are still being transcribed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Viruses, such as bunyaviruses, that use ambisense coding, do which of the following to produce their mRNAs?
A) They translate the positive end of the viral segment first.
B) They translated the negative end of the viral segment first.
C) They copy the positive end of the viral segment into mRNA first.
D) They copy the negative end of the viral segment into mRNA first.
E) They translate the entire ambisense viral segment into protein first.
Q4) Explain how genetic drift and shift can lead to the emergence of new strains of bunyavirus that are pathogenic in humans.
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Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses
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Q1) What function does the neuraminidase protein of influenza virus carry out?
A) It binds to sialic acid and helps the virus enter the host cell.
B) It helps release virions from virus producing cells.
C) It is involved in the glycosylation process of the NA protein.
D) It cleaves the HA protein into two functional domains.
E) It helps the virus evade the immune system.
Q2) During an influenza virus infection, the spliced mRNAs are produced in higher abundance than the unspliced mRNAs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Influenza produces 11 different proteins from 8 genome segments.How many of these proteins are packaged into the viral particle?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
E) 11
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Reoviruses
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Q1) Reoviruses cause cell-cycle arrest in infected cells.At what point in the cell cycle do these viruses halt the cell cycle?
A) Between mitosis and G1.
B) Between G1 and S.
C) Between S and G2
D) Between G2 and mitosis.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a host cell protein that can be used as a receptor by a reovirus?
A) Cathepsin
B) Sialic Acid
C) JAM-A
D) Integrin
E) None of the above.
Q3) The human pathogenic virus, rotavirus, is a member of the reovirus family and causes severe diarrhea in children.Describe the adaptations that rotavirus virions have which allow them to survive the human gastrointestinal tract.
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Chapter 20: Parvoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the NS1 protein from minute virus of mice, an autonomous parvovirus?
A) Stimulates transcription from its own p4 promoter.
B) Stimulates transcription from the p38 promoter.
C) Unwinds DNA hairpins during genome replication.
D) Nicks viral DNA during genome replication.
E) Regulates splicing of the viral mRNAs.
Q2) Which of the following viral proteins is responsible for the integration of the genome of the parvovirus adeno-associate virus into the host chromosome?
A) Rep40
B) Rep78
C) VP1
D) VP2
E) integrase
Q3) The parvovirus genome must first be converted to double-stranded DNA before it can be transcribed into mRNAs.
A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses
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Q1) Under which of the following conditions do polyomaviruses cause tumors in their hosts?
A) Injection of high titers in young animals.
B) Injection of high titers in older animals.
C) Exposure to the virus via an aerosol.
D) Exposure to particularly tumorigenic strains of the virus.
Q2) The enhancer sequence on the SV40 chromosome is located on the opposite side of the genome from the intergenic region.
A)True
B)False
Q3) SV40 will only transform cells which are nonpermissive for productive viral infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following describes a function of the large T antigen from SV40?
A) Binds to early promoters and inhibits transcription of early mRNAs.
B) Induces new transcription factors that leads to late gene transcription.
C) Binds to the viral origin of replication and separates the DNA strands.
D) Binds to the cellular p53 protein, which prevents apoptosis.
E) All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is thought to be the reservoir for human papilomaviruses?
A) Cottontail rabbits
B) Surfaces contaminated with papillomaviruses.
C) Human male genital tract.
D) Human female genital tract
E) Both male and female genital tracts.
Q2) The cultured human cell line HeLa expresses the E6 and E7 proteins of human papillomavirus.What would happen to these cells if the expression of these proteins was shut off?
A) They would continue to grow at their usual pace
B) They would continue to grow, just more slowly.
C) They enter the G phase of the cell cycle.
D) They go into apoptosis and die.
E) They become even more tumorigenic.
Q3) The Pap test, named after George Papanicolaou, screens for the presence of cancer cells in the cervix.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Adenoviruses
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Q1) What is the structure of the ends of the adenovirus genome when it is released from the virion into the nucleus?
A) There are no ends - the viral genome is a closed circle.
B) There is a single 5' phosphate.
C) There is a triphosphate at the 5' end.
D) The terminal protein is covalently bound to the 5' end.
E) The ends are paired to each other in a panhandle formation.
Q2) When rodent cells are infected with adenovirus, they produce virions and are killed by the virus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are five families of mature transcripts produced from the major late gene of adenovirus.Which of the following is the MAJOR determinant for which family is produced from the primary transcript?
A) The location of the polyadenylation site.
B) The location of the 5' splice site.
C) The location of the 3' splice site.
D) The location of the transcription start site.
E) The location of the start codon.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Herpesviruses
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Q1) Describe what happens during a primary infection with herpes simplex virus I (HSVI), how the virus enters into latency, and then how the virus can be reactivated back to a lytic infection.Your answer should focus on the cell types affected by each stage of the infection.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics of the virion of herpesviruses is atypical of most enveloped viruses?
A) There is an amorphous protein layer between the capsid and envelope.
B) The capsid is composed of both a major and a minor protein.
C) The envelope contains multiple glycoproteins.
D) The capsid has icosahedral structure.
E) The DNA is packaged through a portal protein.
Q3) Which of the following is a disease NOT caused by a member of the herpesvirus family?
A) Cold sores.
B) Chickenpox
C) Common cold.
D) Encephalitis.
E) Hepatitis.
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Chapter 25: Baculoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following groups of organisms is the primary host for baculoviruses?
A) mammals
B) insects
C) plants
D) bacteria
E) worms
Q2) Which of the following is an unusual feature of baculovirus infections?
A) They produce two distinct types of virions.
B) The virion has two separate envelopes.
C) The virion contains a tegument layer.
D) They package more than one copy of the genome into a nucleocapsid.
E) They replicate their DNA genome in the cytoplasm.
Q3) Polyhedrin proteins from different baculoviruses have unique and different amino acid sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You want to express large amounts of a foreign protein in insect cells.Describe how you would prepare a recombinant baculovirus that would be able to do this.Assume that you have the DNA encoding the foreign gene.
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Chapter 26: Poxviruses
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Q1) Because poxviruses replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm of the host cell, they must encode which of the following enzymes?
A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
C) mRNA processing enzymes.
D) Enzymes to produce deoxoynucleotides.
E) All of the above are encoded.
Q2) One of the strategies used by poxviruses to inhibit host defenses involves the synthesis of a viral serpin.What is the function of the serpin?
A) It inhibits components of the complement system.
B) It prevent the presentation of peptides on MHC-I.
C) It is a soluble receptor for the tumor necrosis factor.
D) It binds to the PKR kinase and inhibits its activity.
E) It inhibits a serine protease that activates interleukin-1b.
Q3) Intermediate and late gene transcription of poxviruses does NOT require any host cell proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus
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Q1) Which of the following may explain why mimiviruses encode a high number of DNA repair enzymes?
A) Their host produces a large number of nucleases.
B) The method used to replicate the viral genome introduces many mutations.
C) During long periods between infections, they are exposed to UV light.
D) During entry, the genome would be exposed to oxidizing conditions.
E) Both "c" and "d" are correct.
Q2) Which of the following represents the group of organisms infected by phycodnaviruses?
A) Insects.
B) Plants.
C) Prokaryotic cyanobacteria.
D) Eukaryotic algae.
E) Amoeba.
Q3) The famous white cliffs of Dover were formed by shells of a marine organism killed by coccolithoviruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how the viruses that infect the marine coccolithophore Emiliania huxleyi can change local weather patterns.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Retroviruses
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Q1) The reverse transcriptase enzyme of retroviruses includes between 1 and 10 mistakes when it copies the viral genome into DNA.Which of the following explains why?
A) It lacks the 3'-to-5' exonuclease activity found in the cellular DNA polymerase.
B) It lacks the 5'-to-3' exonuclease activity found in the cellular DNA polymerase.
C) It doesn't bind to the cellular proteins involved in proofreading.
D) The virus doesn't produce the proteins involved in proofreading.
E) The production of RNA is inherently more mistake prone than the production of DNA.
Q2) Which of the following primarily determines the species and type of cell infected by a specific retrovirus?
A) The tRNAs found in the cytoplasm.
B) The host cell receptor found on the cell.
C) The types of transcription factors in the nucleus.
D) The level of deoxynucleotide triphosphates in the cytoplasm of the cell.
E) All of the above.
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Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency
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Q1) Which of the following viruses was thought to have been transmitted to humans and became the source of the HIV-1 pandemic?
A) Sooty-mangaby SIV
B) Chimpanzee SIV
C) African Green monkey SIV
D) Equine infectious anemia virus
E) Feline immunodeficiency virus
Q2) Which of the following proteins from HIV are synthesized first in an infected cell?
A) Vpr and Vpu
B) Gag and Pol
C) Rev
D) Tat
Q3) HIV-1 is a member of which of the following subgroups of retroviruses?
A) Acute transforming retroviruses
B) Nontransforming retroviruses
C) Alpharetroviruses
D) Lentiviruses
E) Spumaviruses
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Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses
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Q1) The X protein from hepatitis B virus is thought to activate gene transcription because it is found in the nucleus of infected cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A new method of preventing transmission of hepatitis B virus, called immunoprophylaxis, is described by which of the following statements?
A) Stimulation of the production of anti-hepatitis B antibody production using a vaccine.
B) Use of anti-hepatitis antibodies to bind to virus present in blood donations.
C) Injection of cytotoxic T cells into a chronically infected patient.
D) Injection of anti-hepatitis B antibodies into newborns.
E) Stimulation of immune response against hepatitis B using interferon.
Q3) Hepatitis B replication is completely limited to hepatocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast the genome replication cycles of retroviruses and hepadnaviruses, like hepatitis B virus.
Q5) Describe the methods used to both prevent and treat hepatitis B virus (HBV)infections.
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Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus
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Q1) How is the 3' end of the hepatitis delta virus mRNA formed?
A) It is cleaved by the viral ribozyme activity.
B) It is cleaved and polyadenylated by cellular enzymes.
C) It folds into a distinct stem-loop structure.
D) The polymerase stutters at a poly(U) region in the genome.
E) The delta antigen is covalently attached to the 3' end.
Q2) Hepatitis delta virus is transmitted through the same pathways as hepatitis B virus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms is used to produce the two different forms of the delta antigen from the hepatitis delta virus?
A) RNA editing by the insertion of an extra base into the mRNA.
B) RNA editing by deamination of a specific base in the genome.
C) Alternative mRNA splicing.
D) Translational readthrough of a stop codon.
E) Ribosomal frameshifting.
Q4) Describe how the ribozyme activity found in the plant virioids and hepatitis delta virus can be used as therapeutic agents to treat infections with other viruses.
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Chapter 32: Prions
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Q1) The high proportion of people who are heterozygous at codon 129 of the prion protein gene suggests that ancient humans may have participated in ritualistic cannibalism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the nucleation-polymerization model for the propagation of the PrP form of the prion protein.How does this differ from the alternative model?
Q3) What is the nature of the infectious agent that causes the human disease kuru?
A) A positive-strand RNA virus.
B) A small RNA molecule similar to a viroid.
C) Kuru is only seen as an inherited genetic disease.
D) A single species of protein called a prion.
E) A small DNA molecule that does not code for a protein.
Q4) The prion hypothesis has been deemed too controversial to be eligible for a Nobel Prize.
A)True B)False
Q5) Describe how the prion hypothesis explains how there can be both an acquired and a genetic form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
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Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus
Infection
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Q1) The presence of double-stranded DNA in the cytoplasm is recognized by cellular receptors and initiates antiviral defenses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a transcription factor that regulates cellular antiviral defenses?
A) TB\( \kappa \)-1
B) IRF-3
C) IRF-7
D) NF-\( \kappa \)B
E) All of the above are transcription factors.
Q3) Which of the following can induce the extrinsic apoptosis pathway?
A) Direct damage to cellular DNA.
B) Binding of TNF to the a cell surface receptor.
C) Increased activity of the p53 protein.
D) Release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria.
E) Activation of the cytoplasmic caspase enzymes.
Q4) Why is double-stranded RNA such a potent inducer of a cell's antiviral defenses?
Describe one antiviral defense system that requires double-stranded RNA in order to be activated.
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Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to Virus Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a component of the adaptive immune response system?
A) B lymphocytes
B) Helper T lymphocytes
C) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D) Complement system
E) Antibodies
Q2) Myxoma virus, a rabbit poxvirus, produces a viroceptor that is a homologue of the interferon-g receptor.What purpose does this serve the virus?
A) It sequesters the interferon-g.
B) It stimulates the host cells to divide.
C) It enhances the release of virus particles from the infected cell.
D) It increases virus replication.
E) It prevents the MHC-I protein from displaying viral peptides.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an activity associated with interferon g?
A) Induces the expression of MHC class II proteins.
B) Enhances the processing of viral proteins into peptides.
C) Induces the differentiation of natural killer cells.
D) Stimulates development of Th1 cells.
E) Stimulates activation of macrophages.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines
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Q1) Only live wild-type or attenuated vaccines can be delivered orally or nasally.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the differences between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccines.Why have most wealthy countries switched from using the Sabin vaccine to using the older Salk vaccine?
Q3) The current vaccines that are marketed for human papillomavirus and hepatitis B are examples of what type of vaccine?
A) Subunit vaccine
B) Chimeric virus
C) Whole inactivated vaccine
D) Live attenuated vaccine
E) Multivalent peptide vaccine
Q4) For which of the following viruses is a vaccine NOT being currently developed?
A) Human rhinovirus.
B) Hepatitis C virus.
C) Dengue virus.
D) Respiratory syncytial virus.
E) Human immunodeficiency virus
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Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes from herpes simplex virus is required to activate the antiviral drug acyclovir?
A) Ribonucleotide reductase.
B) Thymidine kinase.
C) DNA polymerase.
D) Nucleoside diphosphate kinase.
E) Guanine kinase.
Q2) Drugs that can treat viral infections were discovered about the same time as antibiotics, which are used to treat bacterial infections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The FDA approved the drug raltegravir in 2007 to treat infection with HIV.Which of the HIV enzymes does raltegravir inhibit?
A) DNA polymerase
B) gp120
C) Reverse transcriptase
D) Integrase
E) Protease
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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors
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Q1) Describe two advantages that the third generation adenoviral vectors have over the original first-generation vectors.Explain the methods used to produce a recombinant adenovirus using these third generation vectors.
Q2) Which of the following viruses has been used to produce the best characterized and mostly commonly used virus vectors?
A) Lentivirus
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Adeno-associated virus
D) Adenovirus
E) Retrovirus
Q3) Zinc finger nucleases could be used to solve one major disadvantage of using retrovirus vectors in gene therapy treatments.Which of the following disadvantages could they solve?
A) The low levels of transgene expression.
B) The stimulation of the immune system by the virus vector.
C) The random integration into the host genome.
D) The ability to only insert small transgenes in the vector.
E) The toxicity of the viral proteins to the transduced cell.
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