Cell Biology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Cell Biology explores the fundamental concepts and principles underlying the structure, function, and organization of cells, the basic units of life. The course covers diverse topics such as cellular organelles, membranes, signaling pathways, cellular metabolism, cell cycle regulation, cell communication, and the mechanisms of cell division and death. Through the study of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, students gain an understanding of how cells contribute to the development, maintenance, and function of living organisms. Laboratory techniques and experimental methodologies used in cell biology research are also introduced, emphasizing the practical applications of cell biology in biotechnology, medicine, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 8th Edition by Neil A. Campbell
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms?
A)informatics
B)schematic biology
C)taxonomy
D)genomics
E)evolution
Answer: C
Q2) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as
A)technology.
B)deductive science.
C)inductive science.
D)anthropologic science.
E)pure science.
Answer: A
Q3) A theory in science is equivalent in scope to a well-structured hypothesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the elements below. Which of the atoms has the same valence as carbon ( \(\begin{array} { r } 12 \\
6
\end{array}\) C)?
A)?nitrogen
B)?flourine
C)¹?neon
D)¹²magnesium
E)¹?silicon
Answer: E
Q2) When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form A)equal numbers of isotopes. B)ions.
C)polar covalent bonds.
D)nonpolar covalent bonds.
E)ionic bonds.
Answer: D
Q3) Which drawing depicts an atom that is inert or chemically unreactive?
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Water and the Fitness of the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider two solutions: solution X has a pH of 4; solution Y has a pH of 7. From this information, we can reasonably conclude that
A)solution Y has no free hydrogen ions (H ).
B)the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 30 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y.
C)the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y is 1,000 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X.
D)the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 3 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y.
E)None of the other answer choices correctly describes these solutions.
Answer: E
Q2) The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are
A)ionic bonds.
B)hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
C)covalent bonds between atoms within water molecules.
D)polar covalent bonds.
E)nonpolar covalent bonds
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many structural isomers are possible for a substance having the molecular formula C H ?
A)1
B)2
C)4
D)3
E)11
Q2) Which molecule can function as a base?
Q3) Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
A)ketone and aldehyde
B)carbonyl and carboxyl
C)carboxyl and amino
D)phosphate and sulfhydryl
E)hydroxyl and aldehyde
Q4) Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group?
A)amino
B)carbonyl
C)carboxyl
D)sulfhydryl
E)aldehyde
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following molecules is a purine type of nitrogenous base?
A)2
B)3
C)5
D)12
E)13
Q2) Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
A)Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers.
B)Macromolecular synthesis occurs through the removal of water and digestion occurs through the addition of water.
C)Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
D)Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
E)A and B are correct.
Q3) Enzymes are A)carbohydrates.
B)lipids.
C)proteins.
D)nucleic acids.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that
A)plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animal cells.
B)plant cells have a much more highly convoluted (folded)plasma membrane than animal cells.
C)plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm.
D)animal cells are more spherical, while plant cells are elongated.
E)the basic functions of plant cells are very different from those of animal cells.
Q2) Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?
A)rough ER
B)lysosomes
C)plasmodesmata
D)Golgi vesicles
E)tight junctions
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8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff and hard. Similar stalks left in a salt solution become limp and soft. From this we can deduce that the cells of the celery stalks are
A)hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
B)hypertonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
C)hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
D)hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution.
E)isotonic with fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
Q2) In receptor-mediated endocytosis, receptor molecules initially project to the outside of the cell. Where do they end up after endocytosis?
A)on the outside of vesicles
B)on the inside surface of the cell membrane
C)on the inside surface of the vesicle
D)on the outer surface of the nucleus
E)on the ER
Q3) microfilament of the cytoskeleton
Q4) fiber of the extracellular matrix
Q5) cholesterol
Q6) glycolipid
Page 9
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe the transfer of free energy from catabolic pathways to anabolic pathways?
A)feedback regulation
B)bioenergetics
C)energy coupling
D)entropy
E)cooperativity
Q2) Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as __________ is to __________.
A)exergonic; spontaneous
B)exergonic; endergonic
C)free energy; entropy
D)work; energy
E)entropy; enthalpy
Q3) Which of the following best describes enthalpy (H)?
A)the total kinetic energy of a system
B)the heat content of a chemical system
C)the system's entropy
D)the cell's energy equilibrium
E)the condition of a cell that is not able to react
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the reducing agent in the following reaction?
Pyruvate + NADH + H Lactate + NAD
A)oxygen
B)NADH
C)NAD
D)lactate
E)pyruvate
Q2) In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of
A)ATP, CO , and ethanol (ethyl alcohol).
B)ATP, CO , and lactate.
C)ATP, NADH, and pyruvate.
D)ATP, pyruvate, and oxygen.
E)ATP, pyruvate, and acetyl CoA.
Q3) These three steps result in the formation of
A)acetyl CoA, O , and ATP.
B)acetyl CoA, FADH , and CO .
C)acetyl CoA, FAD, H , and CO .
D)acetyl CoA, NADH, H , and CO .
E)acetyl CoA, NAD , ATP, and CO .
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
A)stroma of the chloroplast
B)thylakoid membrane
C)cytoplasm surrounding the chloroplast
D)chlorophyll molecule
E)outer membrane of the chloroplast
Q2) Which of the following statements is True concerning Figure 10.3?
A)It represents cell processes involved in C photosynthesis.
B)It represents the type of cell structures found in CAM plants.
C)It represents an adaptation that maximizes photorespiration.
D)It represents a C photosynthetic system.
E)It represents a relationship between plant cells that photosynthesize and those that cannot.
Q3) Why are C plants able to photosynthesize with no apparent photorespiration?
A)They do not participate in the Calvin cycle.
B)They use PEP carboxylase to initially fix CO .
C)They are adapted to cold, wet climates.
D)They conserve water more efficiently.
E)They exclude oxygen from their tissues.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) This method of affinity chromatography would be expected to collect which of the following?
A)molecules of the hormone
B)molecules of purified receptor
C)G proteins
D)assorted membrane proteins
E)hormone-receptor complexes
Q2) The main proteases involved in apoptosis are
A)ced-3 and ced-4.
B)inactive.
C)cytochromes.
D)caspases.
E)G proteins.
Q3) Binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in distribution of ions on opposite sides of the membrane?
A)receptor tyrosine kinase
B)G protein-coupled receptor
C)phosphorylated receptor tyrosine kinase dimer
D)ligand-gated ion channel
E)intracellular receptor
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells?
A)kinetochores
B)Golgi-derived vesicles
C)actin and myosin
D)centrioles and basal bodies
E)cyclin-dependent kinases
Q2) Fibroblasts have receptors for this substance on their plasma membranes:
A)PDGF
B)MPF
C)protein kinase
D)cyclin
E)Cdk
Q3) Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?
A)4
B)8
C)16
D)32
E)64
Q4) at prometaphase of mitosis
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G of the cell cycle?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)Either I or II
E)Either II or III
Q2) If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be
A)0.25x.
B)0.5x.
C)x.
D)2x.
E)4x.
Q3) In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in A)spores.
B)gametophytes.
C)zygotes.
D)sporophytes.
E)clones.
Q4) Identify the stage of meiosis shown.
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two True-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1,000 F offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers?
A)65
B)190
C)250
D)565
E)750
Q2) Skin color in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?
A)1
B)2
C)4
D)8 E)16
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following statements describes genomic imprinting?
A)It explains cases in which the gender of the parent from whom an allele is inherited affects the expression of that allele.
B)It is greatest in females because of the larger maternal contribution of cytoplasm.
C)It may explain the transmission of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
D)It involves an irreversible alteration in the DNA sequence of imprinted genes.
Q2) What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?
A)The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.
B)All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
C)The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
D)Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
E)Independent assortment is hindered.
Q3) How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs?
A)All
B)None
C)Half
D)One out of four
E)Three out of four
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of DNA polymerase III?
A)to unwind the DNA helix during replication
B)to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
C)to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand
D)to degrade damaged DNA molecules
E)to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old)after replication
Q2) In prophase I of meiosis in female Drosophila, studies have shown that there is phosphorylation of an amino acid in the tails of histones. A mutation in flies that interferes with this process results in sterility. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis?
A)These oocytes have no histones.
B)Any mutation during oogenesis results in sterility.
C)Phosphorylation of all proteins in the cell must result.
D)Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation.
E)Histone tails must be removed from the rest of the histones.
Q3) A space probe returns with a culture of a microorganism found on a distant planet. Analysis shows that it is a carbon-based life-form that has DNA. You grow the cells in ¹ N medium for several generations and then transfer them to ¹ N medium. Which pattern in Figure 16.1 would you expect if the DNA was replicated in a conservative manner?
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule?
A)covalent bonding between sulfur atoms
B)ionic bonding between phosphates
C)hydrogen bonding between base pairs
D)van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms
E)peptide bonding between amino acids
Q2) As a ribosome translocates along an mRNA molecule by one codon, which of the following occurs?
A)The tRNA that was in the A site moves into the P site.
B)The tRNA that was in the P site moves into the A site.
C)The tRNA that was in the A site moves to the E site and is released.
D)The tRNA that was in the A site departs from the ribosome via a tunnel.
E)The polypeptide enters the E site.
Q3) Which of the following help(s)to stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation?
A)TATA box
B)spliceosomes
C)5' cap and poly (A)tail
D)introns
E)RNA polymerase
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when
A)there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.
B)the cyclic AMP levels are low.
C)there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.
D)the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.
E)the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.
Q2) The general process that leads to the differentiation of cells is called
A)determination.
B)specialization.
C)identification.
D)differentialization.
E)cellularization.
Q3) The MyoD protein
A)can promote muscle development in all cell types.
B)is a transcription factor that binds to and activates the transcription of muscle-related genes.
C)was used by researchers to convert differentiated muscle cells into liver cells.
D)magnifies the effects of other muscle proteins.
E)is a target for other proteins that bind to it.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The host range of a virus is determined by
A)the proteins on its surface and that of the host.
B)whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA.
C)the proteins in the host's cytoplasm.
D)the enzymes produced by the virus before it infects the cell.
E)the enzymes carried by the virus.
Q2) Based on the above table, which virus meets the requirements for a bacteriophage?
Q3) Which of the following terms describes bacteriophage DNA that has become integrated into the host cell chromosome?
A)intemperate bacteriophages
B)transposons
C)prophages
D)T-even phages
E)plasmids
Q4) Based on the above table, which virus meets the Baltimore requirements for a retrovirus?
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Chapter 20: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
A)adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
B)using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
C)adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
D)forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching
E)reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds
Q2) To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with which of the following methods?
A)the shotgun approach
B)electroporation followed by recombination
C)introducing a plasmid into the cell
D)infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid
E)transcription and translation
Q3) Dideoxyribonucleotide chain-termination is a method of
A)cloning DNA.
B)sequencing DNA.
C)digesting DNA.
D)synthesizing DNA.
E)separating DNA fragments.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) When does exon shuffling occur?
A)during splicing of DNA
B)during mitotic recombination
C)as an alternative splicing pattern in post-transcriptional processing
D)as an alternative cleavage or modification post-translationally
E)as the result of faulty DNA repair
Q2) Although quite different in structure, plants and animals share some basic similarities in their development, such as
A)the importance of cell and tissue movements.
B)the importance of selective cell enlargement.
C)the importance of homeobox-containing homeotic genes.
D)a common evolutionary origin of the complete developmental program.
E)a cascade of transcription factors that regulate gene expression on a finer and finer scale.
Q3) Multigene families are
A)groups of enhancers that control transcription.
B)usually clustered at the telomeres.
C)equivalent to the operons of prokaryotes.
D)sets of genes that are coordinately controlled.
E)identical or similar genes that have evolved by gene duplication.
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Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Who would have proposed that the boundaries between each stratum mark the occurrence of different localized floods?
A)Lyell
B)Cuvier
C)Hutton
D)Darwin
E)Lamarck
Q2) Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would best help distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent evolution?
A)The two species live at great distance from each other.
B)The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical.
C)The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size.
D)Both species are well adapted to their particular environments.
E)Both species reproduce sexually.
Q3) Which stratum should contain the greatest proportion of extinct organisms?
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) What is True of the trait whose frequency distribution in a large population appears above? It has probably undergone
A)directional selection.
B)stabilizing selection.
C)disruptive selection.
D)sexual selection.
E)random selection.
Q2) Within the body of an HIV-infected individual who is being treated with a single NA, and whose HIV particles are currently vulnerable to this NA, which of these situations can increase the virus' relative fitness?
1) mutations resulting in RTs with decreased rates of nucleotide mismatch
2) mutations resulting in RTs with increased rates of nucleotide mismatch
3) mutations resulting in RTs that have proofreading capability
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)1 and 3
E)2 and 3
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The data in the graphs above indicate that
A)a hybrid zone was established after the completion of the bridge.
B)no interspersal of the two types of squirrel occurred after the completion of the bridge.
C)gene flow occurred from one type of squirrel into the gene pool of the other type of squirrel.
D)2-way migration of squirrels occurred across the bridge, but without hybridization.
E)some northern squirrels migrated south, but no southern squirrels migrated north across the bridge.
Q2) One species mates at the season when daylight is increasing from 13 hours to 13 hours, 15 minutes; another species mates at the season when daylight is increasing from 14 hours to 14 hours, 15 minutes.
A)behavioral
B)gametic
C)habitat
D)temporal
E)mechanical
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Earth's current magnetic field is the same as it had been when which sea-floor areas solidified?
I. area B
II. area C
III. area D
IV. area E
A)I only
B)II only
C)I and II
D)I and III
E)II and IV
Q2) Which of the following has not yet been synthesized in laboratory experiments studying the origin of life?
A)liposomes
B)liposomes with selectively permeable membranes
C)oligopeptides and other oligomers
D)protobionts that use DNA to program protein synthesis
E)amino acids
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Concerning growth in genome size over evolutionary time, which of these does not belong with the others?
A)orthologous genes
B)gene duplications
C)paralogous genes
D)gene families
Q2) When it acts upon a gene, which of these processes consequently makes that gene an accurate molecular clock?
A)transcription
B)directional natural selection
C)mutation
D)proofreading
E)reverse transcription
Q3) A common ancestor for both species C and E could be at position number
A)1.
B)2.
C)3.
D)4.
E)5.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) What is occurring at Time C that is decreasing the DNA content?
A)crossing-over
B)cytokinesis
C)meiosis
D)degradation of DNA that was not retained in the recipient's chromosome
E)reversal of the direction of conjugation
Q2) During which two times can the recipient accurately be described as "recombinant" due to the sequence of events portrayed in Figure 27.2?
A)during Times C and D
B)during Times A and C
C)during Times B and C
D)during Times A and B
E)during Times B and D
Q3) a prokaryote that obtains both energy and carbon as it decomposes dead organisms
A)1 only
B)4 only
C)1 and 3
D)2 and 4
E)1, 3, and 4
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) A P. bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is "aposymbiotic." If aposymbiotic cells have population growth rates the same as those of healthy, zoochlorella-containing P. bursaria in well-lit environments with plenty of prey items, then such an observation would be consistent with which type of relationship?
A)parasitic
B)commensalistic
C)toxic
D)predator-prey
E)mutualistic
Q2) Which of the following correctly pairs a protist with one of its characteristics?
A)diplomonads : micronuclei involved in conjugation
B)ciliates : pseudopods
C)apicomplexans : parasitic
D)gymnamoebas : calcium carbonate test
E)foraminiferans : abundant in soils
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) In which of the following taxa does the mature sporophyte depend completely on the gametophyte for nutrition?
A)fern
B)bryophyte
C)horsetail (Equisetum)
D)A and C
E)A, B, and C
Q2) Beginning with the germination of a moss spore, what is the sequence of structures that develop after germination?
1) embryo
2) gametes
3) sporophyte
4) protonema
5) gametophore
A)4 1 3 5 2
B)4 3 5 2 1
C)4 5 2 1 3
D)3 4 5 2 1
E)3 1 4 5 2
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) microspores of pollen cones
A)male gametophyte
B)female gametophyte
C)male sporophyte
D)female sporophyte
Q2) Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except A)seeds.
B)pollen.
C)vascular tissue.
D)ovaries.
E)ovules.
Q3) A botanist was visiting a tropical region for the purpose of discovering plants with medicinal properties. All of the following might be ways of identifying potentially useful plants except
A)observing which plants sick animals seek out.
B)observing which plants are the most used food plants.
C)observing which plants animals do not eat.
D)collecting plants and subjecting them to chemical analysis.
E)asking local people which plants they use as medicine.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following is characterized by the lack of an observed sexual phase in its members' life cycle?
A)Glomeromycota
B)Basidiomycota
C)Chytridiomycota
D)Deuteromycota
E)Zygomycota
Q2) Fossil fungi date back to the origin and early evolution of plants. What combination of environmental and morphological change is similar in the evolution of both fungi and plants?
A)presence of "coal forests" and change in mode of nutrition
B)periods of drought and presence of filamentous body shape
C)predominance in swamps and presence of cellulose in cell walls
D)colonization of land and loss of flagellated cells
E)continental drift and mode of spore dispersal
Q3) Assume now that all four locations are 0.5 m above the surface. On a breezy day with prevailing wings blowing from left to right, where should one expect to find the highest concentration of free basidiospores in an air sample?
Q4) What is the most probable location of the oldest portion of this mycelium?
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animal Diversity
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Q1) If an undisturbed embryo is allowed to develop further, then one should expect that A)the first opening of the gastrula will ultimately serve as the mouth.
B)upon metamorphosis, the resulting trochophore larva will gain a backbone.
C)upon gastrulation, a solid ball of cells will be produced.
D)both A and B
E)both B and C
Q2) During metamorphosis, echinoderms undergo a transformation from motile larvae to a sedentary (or sometimes sessile)existence as adults. What differentiates echinoderm adults, but not their larvae? Adults should
A)be diploblastic.
B)have radial symmetry, or something close to it.
C)lack mesodermally derived tissues.
D)A and B only
E)A, B, and C
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Chapter 33: Invertebrates
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Q1) Of the annelid classes below, which have parapodia?
A)Oligochaeta
B)Polychaeta
C)Hirudinea (leeches)
D)all three of these
E)two of these
Q2) The clownfish and parrotfish died on the same day. Autopsies revealed the presence of many small, flat worms using tiny suckers to attach to the fish gills. Most likely, these worms were members of which phylum, and which class?
A)Annelida, Hirudinea
B)Annelida, Polychaetae
C)Platyhelminthes, Cestoda
D)Platyhelminthes, Monogenea
E)Platyhelminthes, Turbellaria
Q3) Which of the following have distinct central disks and long, flexible arms?
A)class Crinoidea (sea lilies and feather stars)
B)class Asteroidea (sea stars)
C)class Ophiuroidea (brittle stars)
D)class Echinoidea (sea urchins and sand dollars)
E)class Holothuroidea (sea cucumbers)
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Chapter 34: Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following are considered hominoids?
A)lorises
B)lemurs
C)monkeys
D)orangutans
E)tarsiers
Q2) Mammals and living birds share all of the following characteristics except A)endothermy.
B)descent from a common amniotic ancestor.
C)a dorsal, hollow nerve cord.
D)an archosaur common ancestor.
E)an amniotic egg.
Q3) Why is the amniotic egg considered an important evolutionary breakthrough?
A)It has a shell that increases gas exchange.
B)It allows incubation of eggs in a terrestrial environment.
C)It prolongs embryonic development.
D)It provides insulation to conserve heat.
E)It permits internal fertilization to be replaced by external fertilization.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Which cells are no longer capable of carrying out the process of DNA transcription?
A)xylem
B)sieve tube elements
C)companion cells
D)A and B only
E)A, B and C
Q2) What tissue makes up most of the wood of a tree?
A)primary xylem
B)secondary xylem
C)secondary phloem
D)mesophyll cells
E)vascular cambium
Q3) Before differentiation can begin during the processes of plant cell and tissue culture, parenchyma cells from the source tissue must
A)differentiate into procambium.
B)undergo dedifferentiation.
C)increase the number of chromosomes in their nuclei.
D)enzymatically digest their primary cell walls.
E)establish a new polarity in their cytoplasm.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Ignoring all other factors, what kind of day would result in the fastest delivery of water and minerals to the leaves of a tree?
A)cool, dry day
B)warm, dry day
C)warm, humid day
D)cool, humid day
E)very hot, dry, windy day
Q2) What is the main force by which most of the water within xylem vessels moves toward the top of a tree?
A)active transport of ions into the stele
B)atmospheric pressure on roots
C)evaporation of water through stoma
D)the force of root pressure
E)osmosis in the root
Q3) All of the following has an effect on water potential (¬)in plants except
A)physical pressure.
B)water-attracting matrices.
C)dissolved solutes.
D)osmosis.
E)DNA structure.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Among important crop plants, nitrogen-fixing root nodules are most commonly an attribute of A)corn.
B)legumes.
C)wheat.
D)members of the potato family.
E)cabbage and other members of the brassica family.
Q2) Reddish-purple coloring of leaves, especially along the margins of young leaves, is a typical symptom of deficiency of which element?
A)C
B)M++
C)N
D)P
E)K+
Q3) What soil(s)is(are)the most fertile?
A)humus only
B)loam only
C)silt only
D)clay only
E)both humus and loam
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Q1) The embryo of a grass seed is enclosed by two protective sheaths, a(n)__________, which covers the young shoot, and a(n)__________, which covers the young root.
A)cotyledon; radicle
B)hypocotyls; epicotyl
C)coleoptile; coleorhiza
D)scutellum; coleoptile
E)epicotyl; radicle
Q2) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A)The number of cells within the embryo sac (B)The number of nuclei within the embryo sac
A)Item (A)is greater than item (B).
B)Item (A)is less than item (B).
C)Item (A)is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B).
D)Item (A)may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B).
Q3) Which cell(s)guide(s)the pollen tube to the egg cell?
Q4) Draw and label the parts of a flower.
Q5) Which cell(s)become(s)the triploid endosperm?
Q6) Which cell(s), after fertilization, give(s)rise to the embryo plant?
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Q1) Both red and blue light are involved in
A)stem elongation.
B)photoperiodism.
C)positive phototropism.
D)tracking seasons.
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a typical component of a signal transduction pathway?
A)production of more signal
B)production of second messengers such as cGMP
C)expression of specific proteins
D)activation of protein kinases
E)phosphorylation of transcription factors
Q3) Which plant hormones might be used to enhance stem elongation and fruit growth?
A)brassinosteroids and oligosaccharides
B)auxins and gibberellins
C)abscisic acid and phytochrome
D)ethylene and cytokinins
E)phytochrome and flowering hormone
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant internal environment is termed
A)balanced equilibrium.
B)physiological chance.
C)homeostasis.
D)static equilibrium.
E)estivation.
Q2) All skeletal muscle fibers are both
A)smooth and involuntary.
B)smooth and unbranched.
C)striated and voluntary.
D)smooth and voluntary.
E)striated and branched.
Q3) As body size increases among birds,
A)the body's surface area-to-volume ratio increases.
B)the body temperature increases.
C)the basal metabolic rate (BMR)decreases.
D)the standard metabolic rate (SMR)decreases.
E)the rate of energy use per cell decreases.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) When more energy sources are needed than are generated by diet, in which order does the animal draw on stored sources?
A)fat, glycogen, protein
B)glycogen, protein, fat
C)liver glycogen, muscle glycogen, fat
D)muscle glycogen, fat, liver glycogen
E)fat, protein, glycogen
Q2) Obesity in humans is most likely to contribute to which of the following?
A)type I diabetes and prostate cancer
B)type I diabetes and breast cancer
C)type II diabetes and muscle atrophy
D)type II diabetes and cardiovascular disease
E)type II diabetes and decreased insulin production
Q3) What is the substrate of salivary amylase?
A)protein
B)starch
C)sucrose
D)glucose
E)maltose
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply?
A)the lungs of a vertebrate
B)the gills of a fish
C)the tracheal system of an insect
D)the skin of an earthworm
E)the parapodia of a polychaete worm
Q2) At an atmospheric pressure of 870 mm Hg, what is the contribution of oxygen?
A)100 mm Hg
B)127 mm Hg
C)151 mm Hg
D)182 mm Hg
E)219 mm Hg
Q3) Which sequence of blood flow can be observed in either a reptile or a mammal?
A)left ventricle aorta lungs systemic circulation
B)right ventricle pulmonary vein pulmocutaneous circulation
C)pulmonary vein left atrium ventricle pulmonary circuit
D)vena cava right atrium ventricle pulmonary circuit
E)right atrium pulmonary artery left atrium ventricle
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following is a pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells?
A)B cell contact antigen helper T cell is activated clonal selection occurs
B)body cell becomes infected with a virus new viral proteins appear class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface
C)self-tolerance of immune cells B cells contact antigen cytokines released
D)complement is secreted B cell contacts antigen helper T cell activated cytokines released
E)cytotoxic T cells class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed cytokines released cell lysis
Q2) Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against the virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds?
A)The immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens.
B)The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.
C)Cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
D)There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) Which group possess excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules?
A)earthworms
B)flatworms
C)insects
D)jellyfish
E)sea stars
Q2) Which of the following is True of ammonia?
A)It is soluble in water.
B)It can be stored as a precipitate.
C)It has low toxicity relative to urea.
D)It is metabolically more expensive to synthesize than urea.
E)It is the major nitrogenous waste excreted by insects.
Q3) African lungfish, which are often found in small stagnant pools of fresh water, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this adaptation?
A)Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia.
B)Small stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia.
C)The highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable to potential competitors.
D)Urea forms an insoluble precipitate.
E)Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) Which combination of gland and hormone would be linked to winter hibernation and spring reproduction in bears?
A)pineal gland, melatonin
B)hypothalamus gland, melatonin
C)anterior pituitary gland, gonadotropin-releasing hormone
D)pineal gland, estrogen
E)posterior pituitary gland, thyroid-stimulating hormone
Q2) An example of antagonistic hormones controlling homeostasis is
A)thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance.
B)insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism.
C)progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation.
D)epinephrine and norepinephrine in fight-or-flight responses.
E)oxytocin and prolactin in milk production.
Q3) The results most likely occurred because progesterone exerts an effect on the A)general health of the rat.
B)size of the fetus.
C)maintenance of the uterus.
D)gestation period of rats.
E)number of eggs fertilized.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Organisms with a reproductive pattern that produce shelled amniotic eggs generally A)end up having a higher embryo mortality rate than do organisms with unprotected embryos.
B)invest most of their reproductive energy in the embryonic and early postnatal development of their offspring.
C)invest more energy in parenting than do placental animals.
D)produce more gametes than do those animals with external fertilization and development.
E)lower their embryo mortality rate to less than one in a thousand.
Q2) Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by
A)increasing the body temperature.
B)providing access to water for external fertilization.
C)increasing ambient temperature to that which is comfortable for sex.
D)direct effects on gonadal structures.
E)direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) Thalidomide, now banned for use as a sedative in pregnancy, was used in the early 1960s by many women in their first trimester of pregnancy. Some of these women gave birth to children with arm and leg deformities, suggesting that the drug most likely influenced
A)early cleavage divisions.
B)determination of the polarity of the zygote.
C)differentiation of bone tissue.
D)morphogenesis.
E)organogenesis.
Q2) The yolk of the frog egg
A)prevents gastrulation.
B)is concentrated at the animal pole.
C)is homogeneously arranged in the egg.
D)impedes the formation of a primitive streak.
E)supports the higher rate of cleavage at the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole.
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The botulinum toxin reduces the synaptic release of A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)endorphin.
D)nitric oxide.
E)GABA.
Q2) Assume that excessive consumption of ethanol increases the influx of negative chloride ions into "common sense" neurons whose action potentials are needed for you to act appropriately and not harm yourself or others. Thus, any resulting poor decisions associated with ethanol ingestion are likely due to
A)increased membrane depolarization of "common sense" neurons.
B)decreased membrane depolarization of "common sense" neurons.
C)more action potentials in your "common sense" neurons.
D)more EPSPs in your "common sense" neurons.
E)fewer IPSPs in your "common sense" neurons.
Q3) The minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label
Q4) The neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label
Q5) The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Bipolar disorder differs from schizophrenia in that
A)schizophrenia results in hallucinations.
B)schizophrenia results in both manic and depressive states.
C)schizophrenia results in decreased dopamine.
D)bipolar disorder involves both genes and environment.
E)bipolar disorder increases biogenic amines.
Q2) Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the A)brainstem.
B)medulla.
C)hypothalamus.
D)hippocampus.
E)cranial nerves.
Q3) Which of the following is a discovery that suggests that neural stem cells might someday be used to treat brain disease?
A)the discovery that each disease affects specialized cells
B)the discovery that each disease affects different neurotransmitters
C)the discovery that brain cells are capable of cell division
D)the discovery of the function of specific groups of glia
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) Which of the following is the correct sequence that occurs during the excitation and contraction of a muscle cell?
1) Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites.
2) Calcium is released and binds to the troponin complex.
3) Transverse tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4) The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules using energy from ATP.
5) An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane.
A)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B)2, 1, 3, 5, 4
C)2, 3, 4, 1, 5
D)5, 3, 1, 2, 4
E)5, 3, 2, 1, 4
Q2) Which section consists of both actin and myosin filaments?
Q3) Which section consists only of myosin filaments?
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Q1) A guinea pig loves the lettuce kept in the refrigerator and squeals each time the refrigerator door opens. What term best applies to this behavior?
A)sign stimulus
B)habituation
C)imprinting
D)classical conditioning
E)operant conditioning
Q2) Feeding behavior with a high energy intake-to-expenditure ratio is called
A)herbivory.
B)autotrophy.
C)heterotrophy.
D)search scavenging.
E)optimal foraging.
Q3) Which of the following does not have a coefficient of relatedness of 0.5?
A)a father to his daughter
B)a mother to her son
C)an uncle to his nephew
D)a brother to his brother
E)a sister to her brother
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Page 53
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes?
A)savanna
B)temperate broadleaf forest
C)temperate grassland
D)tropical rain forest
E)coniferous forest
Q2) Landscape ecology is best described as the study of
A)the flow of energy and materials between the biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem.
B)how the structure and function of species enable them to meet the challenges of their environment.
C)what factors affect the structure and size of a population over time.
D)the interactions between the different species that inhabit and ecosystem.
E)the factors controlling the exchanges of energy, materials, and organisms among ecosystem patches.
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54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Q1) Most ecologists believe that the average global carrying capacity for the human population is between
A)5 and 6 billion.
B)6 and 8 billion.
C)10 and 15 billion.
D)15 and 20 billion.
E)20 and 25 billion.
Q2) Field observation suggests that populations of a particular species of herbivorous mammal undergo cyclic fluctuations in density at three- to five-year intervals. Which of the following represent (a)plausible explanation(s)of these cycles?
A)Periodic crowding affects the endocrine system, resulting in increased aggressiveness.
B)Increases in population density lead to increased rates of predation.
C)Increases in rates of herbivory lead to changes in the nutritive value of plants used as food.
D)Increases in population density lead to more proximal infestations of parasites to host animals.
E)All of the above are plausible explanations of population cycling.
Q3) Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following studies would shed light on the mechanism of spread of H5N1 from Asia?
A)Perform cloacal or saliva smears of migrating waterfowl to monitor whether any infected birds show up in Alaska.
B)Test fecal samples for H5N1 in Asian waterfowl that live near domestic poultry farms.
C)Test domestic chickens and ducks worldwide after they have been slaughtered for human consumption for the presence of H5N1.
D)Locate and destroy birds infected with H5N1 in Asian open-air poultry markets.
E)Keep domestic and wild fowl from interacting with each other to minimize the probability that wild fowl could get infected and migrate out of Asia.
Q2) A community's actual evapotranspiration is a reflection of
A)solar radiation, temperature, and water availability.
B)the number of plants and how much moisture they lose.
C)the depth of the water table.
D)energy availability.
E)plant biomass and plant water content.
Q3) Which island would likely have the lowest immigration rate?
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which species is most likely an omnivore?
Q2) Aquatic ecosystems that are most readily damaged by acid are those that lack an important buffer that dissolves into the runoff after a precipitation event. What is this buffer?
A)calcium
B)carbonic acid
C)nitrate
D)bicarbonate
E)sulfate
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling?
A)The phosphorus cycle involves the recycling of atmospheric phosphorus.
B)The phosphorus cycle is a cycle that involves the weathering of rocks.
C)The carbon cycle is a localized cycle that primarily involves the burning of fossil fuels.
D)The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of CO2 for the past million years.
E)The nitrogen cycle involves movement of diatomic nitrogen between the biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem.
Q4) Which species is autotrophic?
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology
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Q1) The greatest cause of the biodiversity crisis that includes all of the others is
A)pollution.
B)global warming.
C)habitat destruction.
D)introduced species.
E)overpopulation of humans.
Q2) Which of the following would be research in which a conservation biologist would be involved?
A)reestablishing whooping cranes in their former breeding grounds in North Dakota
B)studying species diversity and interaction in the Florida Everglades, past and present
C)population ecology of grizzly bears in Yellowstone National Park
D)the effects of hunting on white-tailed deer in Vermont
E)the effect of protection programs on the recovery of the North Atlantic cod fishery
Q3) Which of these represents the best quail habitat in terms of fragmentation and edge?
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