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Cell Biology is the study of the fundamental structural and functional units of life: the cell. This course explores the diverse types of cells prokaryotic and eukaryotic in terms of their organization, components, and biological processes. Topics include the structure and function of cellular organelles, the dynamics of membranes, cell signaling, cell division, and cellular energetics. Students will also examine how cells interact with each other and their environment, as well as the molecular mechanisms that drive cellular behavior and development. Emphasis is placed on experimental techniques and modern discoveries in the field, providing a foundation for advanced studies in molecular biology, genetics, physiology, and related biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Cellular and Molecular Immunology 8th Edition by Abul K. Abbas
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214 Verified Questions
214 Flashcards
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Q1) This molecule becomes an active transcription factor on dephosphorylation.
A)CD3
B)Lck
C)Zap-70
D)LAT
E)Ras
F)PLC
G)PIP2
H)PIP3
I)IP3
J)DAG
K)Calcineurin
L)NFAT
M)Jun
N)Fos
O)NF- B
Answer: L
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Q1) The most abundant Ig isotype in the blood
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Answer: D
Q2) The isotype found predominantly in mucosal secretions
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Answer: A
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Q1) A helper T cell response to a protein antigen requires the participation of antigen-presenting cells that express which of the following types of molecules?
A) Class II MHC and costimulators
B) Class I MHC and CD4
C) Class II MHC and CD8
D) CD4 and costimulators
E) Class II MHC and CD4
Answer: A
Q2) Required for proteolytic generation of class I MHC-binding peptides
A)T cell receptor on CD4 T cells
B)Endosomes
C)Endoplasmic reticulum
D)MHC class II compartment/class II vesicle (MIIC/CIIV)
E)Class II-associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP)
F)LMP-2 and LMP-7
G)Acidic proteases
H)T cell receptor on CD8 T cells
I)HLA-DM
Answer: F
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Q1) z protein
Q2) VLA-4
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q3) Complementarity-determining regions
Q4) Immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM)
Q5) E-selectin
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q6) Antigen-binding region
Q7) Variable Ig domain
Q8) Constant Ig domain
Q9) CD3 protein Page 6
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Q1) A protein that is the cell surface receptor for Epstein-Barr virus
A)Ig
B)Ig
C)C3b
D)C3d
E)CR2
F)CD19
G)CD81
H)Fyn
I)Syk
Q2) Phagocytosis
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
E)IgA
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Q1) Mediates homing of a subset of T cells into the intestinal mucosa
A)P-selectin
B)L-selectin
C)CCR8
D)Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
E)VCAM-1
F)LFA-1
G)CCR5
H)CCR4
I)a4b7
J)Cutaneous lymphocyte antigen (CLA)
K)Mip1-a
L)VLA-4
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Q1) Broad-spectrum antibiotic present in the skin and in neutrophil granules; its synthesis is increased in response to inflammatory cytokines
A)Defensin
B)Opsonin
C)Natural antibody
D)Adjuvant
E)Complement
F)Inflammation
G)C-reactive protein
H)Mannose-binding lectin
I)Reactive oxygen intermediate
J)Inducible nitric oxide synthase
Q2) The signaling pathways triggered by Toll-like receptors typically result in activation of which of the following pairs of transcription factors?
A) NFAT and T-bet
B) AP-1 and GATA-3
C) Fos and STAT-6
D) NFkB and AP-1
E) Lck and Jun
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Q1) Defect in phagocyte microbicidal activity as a result of defective production of reactive oxygen intermediates, most commonly from a mutation in the gene encoding cytochrome b558
A)X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B)X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
C)X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
D)Bare lymphocyte syndrome
E)Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
F)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-1 (LAD-1)
G)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-2 (LAD-2)
Q2) All of the following may result in an acquired immunodeficiency EXCEPT:
A) Malnutrition
B) Treatment with corticosteroids
C) Disseminated cancer
D) Inherited defect in B cell maturation
E) Infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
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Q1) Stimulates growth and activation of eosinophils
A)Interferon-g
B)Interleukin (IL)-4
C)IL-5
D)Transforming growth factor-b
E)Lymphotoxin
Q2) Important mediator of inflammatory component of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
A)CXCL8 (IL-8)
B)CXCL10 (IP-10)
C)CCL19 (ELC)
D)CCL11 (Eotaxin)
E)CCR5
F)CXCR1
G)CX3CL1 (Fractalkine)
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Hypersensitivity and Autoimmunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with increased relative risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus?
A) Female gender
B) Deficiency in complement protein C2
C) African-American ethnicity
D) Presence of HLA-DR3
E) Defect in B cell maturation
Q2) In which of the following disorders is the underlying pathogenic mechanism NOT due to antibody-mediated damage to cells or tissues?
A) Pernicious anemia
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Pemphigus vulgaris
D) Acute rheumatic fever
E) Hyperacute allograft rejection
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Q1) Which of the following cell types is required for all humoral immune responses?
A) Natural killer cells
B) Dendritic cells
C) Cytolytic T lymphocytes
D) B lymphocytes
E) Helper T lymphocytes
Q2) Which of the following infectious diseases was prevented by the first successful vaccination?
A) Polio
B) Tuberculosis
C) Smallpox
D) Tetanus
E) Rubella
Q3) The principal function of the immune system is:
A) Defense against cancer
B) Repair of injured tissues
C) Defense against microbial infections
D) Prevention of inflammatory diseases
E) Protection against environmental toxins
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Q1) Human MHC haplotype
A)HLA- 1
, -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q2) Peptide-binding groove
Q3) CD8-binding site
Q4) Polymorphic region
Q5) Mouse major histocompatibility complex
A)HLA- 1
, -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q6) 2-Microglobulin

Page 15
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Q1) This complement fragment is a chemoattractant for neutrophils.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q2) Produced by C3 convertases, this opsonin promotes phagocytosis of microbes.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q3) Generated by factor I-mediated proteolysis, this complement fragment binds to complement receptor 2 (CR2) on B cells and enhances B cell activation.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
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Q1) Cyclooxygenase-pathway product of arachidonic acid metabolism that causes vascular dilatation, smooth muscle contraction, and neutrophil chemotaxis
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
Q2) Membrane phospholipid derivative that causes bronchoconstriction, retraction of endothelial cells, and relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
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Q1) The expression of this molecule is induced on endothelial cells in inflamed tissues, and it mediates rolling of T cells along the endothelial surface.
A)Peripheral lymph node addressin
B)Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1)
C)Very late activation antigen-4 (VLA-4)
D)E-selectin
E)P-selectin ligand
F)CCR7
G)CXCR5
H)MadCAM-1
I)Vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1)
Q2) In naive T cell recirculation, entry of the cells into peripheral lymph nodes occurs through which specialized vessel?
A) Efferent lymphatic
B) Thoracic duct
C) Central artery
D) High endothelial venule
E) Sinusoid
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Q1) Tolerance-sensitive stage of B cell maturation
A)Immature (IgM<sup>+</sup>IgD<sup>-</sup>)
B)Thymic cortex
C)Bone marrow
D)Antigen recognition without T cell help
E)Receptor editing
F)Activation-induced cell death
G)Regulatory T cell-mediated suppression
H)Antigen recognition with costimulation
I)Double positive (CD4<sup>+</sup>CD8<sup>+</sup>)
J)Anergy
K)Thymic medulla
Q2) Failure of self-tolerance is the cause of which one of the following types of diseases?
A) Allograft rejection
B) Autoimmunity
C) Atopy
D) Anergy
E) Acne
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Q1) A type of gene segment involved in somatic recombination events in Ig heavy chain and light chain as well as TCR a and b chain gene loci
Q2) Encodes the isotype of antibodies made by naive B cells
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a property of the V(D)J recombinase?
A) Recognizes specific DNA sequences flanking gene segments in the antigen receptor gene loci
B) Introduces double-stranded nicks in the DNA between recombination signal sequences and the adjacent V, D, or J coding sequences
C) Promotes joining V-to-J, D-to-J, and V-to-D
D) Repairs double-stranded DNA breaks
E) Splices out intronic sequences from primary RNA transcripts
Q4) A segment that encodes Ig-like domains that form part of the antigen-binding region of an Ig molecule
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a required step in B and T lymphocyte maturation?
A) Proliferative expansion of precursor cells
B) Cell surface expression of complete antigen receptor complexes
C) Positive selection
D) Activation of precursors by foreign antigens
E) Pre-antigen receptor expression
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Q1) A common strategy by which microbes survive their host's immune responses involves changing the structures of the molecules they produce so that they are no longer recognized by the host's immune system. This strategy, called antigenic variation, is most likely to allow evasion of which type of immune recognition?
A) Toll-like receptor-dependent recognition of microbes by cells of the innate immune system
B) Mannose receptor-dependent recognition of microbes by cells of the innate immune system
C) Antibody recognition of microbial cell surface molecules
D) Natural killer cell inhibitory receptor recognition of class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on infected cells
E) T cell receptor recognition of microbial cell wall lipid antigens
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Q1) Blocks calcineurin-dependent activation of NFAT
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Mycophenolate mofetil
D)Rapamycin
E)Anti-CD40L antibody
F)Anti-IL-2R antibody
G)CTLA4-Ig
H)OKT3
I)Corticosteroids
Q2) Inhibits macrophage cytokine secretion
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Mycophenolate mofetil
D)Rapamycin
E)Anti-CD40L antibody
F)Anti-IL-2R antibody
G)CTLA4-Ig
H)OKT3
I)Corticosteroids
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Q1) Ras
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
Q2) E6 antigen
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
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