Cell Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Cell Biology explores the fundamental unit of life the cell delving into its structure, function, and dynamic processes that sustain all living organisms. This course covers the organization of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, membranes, organelles, and the molecular mechanisms underlying cellular activities such as division, communication, energy transformation, and transport. Emphasis is placed on understanding how cells interact with their environment, respond to external signals, and regulate growth and development. With a blend of theoretical concepts and practical approaches, students gain insights into cellular techniques and their applications in biomedical research, disease understanding, and biotechnological innovations.
Recommended Textbook
Larsens Human Embryology 5th Edition by Gary C. Schoenwolf
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21 Chapters
248 Verified Questions
248 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetus is examined in utero by ultrasound,and a defect of its ventral body wall is noted.The location of the defect corresponds to which surface of the adult?
A) Superior
B) Anterior
C) Medial
D) Posterior
E) Lateral
F) Inferior
Answer: B
Q2) The period of the fetus occurs during which weeks postfertilization?
A) 1-4
B) 1-8
C) 1-12
D) 5-38
E) 9-38
F) 13-38
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Gametogenesis, Fertilization, and First Week
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Sample Questions
Q1) The birth control pill acts by blocking which process?
A) Fertilization
B) Ovulation
C) Cleavage
D) Capacitation
E) Implantation
Answer: B
Q2) A 36-year-old woman is unable to conceive a child because both her oviducts were severely scarred by pelvic inflammatory disease resulting from gonorrhea.Which type of assisted reproductive technology could be used to help her conceive?
A) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
B) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
C) In vitro fertilization (IVF) and embryo transfer
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Second Week: Becoming Bilaminar and Fully Implanting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher inactivates the Sox17 gene in an animal model.As a result of this,one of the primary germ layers fails to form.What germ layer is most likely to be affected?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Extraembryonic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
Answer: E
Q2) A 45-year-old woman who tests positive on a home pregnancy test is later diagnosed with a complete hydatidiform mole.What is unusual about the chromosomes of complete moles?
A) All chromosomes are derived from the mother.
B) All chromosomes are derived from the father.
C) Roughly two-thirds of the chromosomes are derived from the mother.
D) 23 chromosomes are present.
E) 69 chromosomes are present.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Third Week: Becoming Trilaminar and Establishing Body Axes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher knocks out the Tbx6 gene in a mouse.Which tissue will not form in the early embryo?
A) Neural plate
B) Notochord
C) Lateral plate mesoderm
D) Endoderm
E) Somites
Q2) A boy is admitted to the hospital for an emergency appendectomy.During surgery it is noted that the inflamed appendix is located on the left side,rather than the right side,and that the patient has situs inversus viscerum totalis.Mutations in which gene are known to cause this condition in animal models?
A) Pitx2
B) Bmp4
C) Hoxd13
D) Chordin
E) Tbx3
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Chapter 5: Fourth Week: Forming the Embryo
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher ablates (removes)the neural folds of an animal embryo prior to formation of neural crest cells.What structure might not develop depending on the exact level removed?
A) Notochord
B) Somite
C) Body wall
D) Parasympathetic ganglia
E) Primitive streak
Q2) The inner tube of the tube-within-a-tube body plan gives rise to which structure?
A) Heart tube
B) Neural tube
C) Otocyst
D) Gut tube
E) Somitocele
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Chapter 6: Principles and Mechanisms of Morphogenesis and Dysmorphogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations in which gene or its regulatory region when mutated in human embryos can cause either holoprosencephaly and preaxial polydactyly?
A) FGF10
B) HOXD13
C) WNT11
D) INTEGRINBETA4
E) SHH
Q2) Quail-chick transplantation chimeras are useful for conducting what type of study?
A) Fate mapping
B) Gene overexpression
C) Gene knock outs
D) Forward genetic screens
E) Reverse genetic screens
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8
Chapter 7: Fetal Development and the Fetus As a Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman in the third trimester of pregnancy is sent for an ultrasound because her uterus is abnormally large.A diagnosis of polyhydramnios is made.What could be the cause of this condition?
A) Fetal spina bifida
B) Fetal cleft palate
C) Fetal anencephaly
D) Posterior urethral valves
E) Renal agenesis
Q2) On a routine visit,your patient,who has just completed the fifth month (gestational age)of her pregnancy,asks: how big is my child? What is the correct answer to her question?
A) About 5.5 cm or 2 inches crown-rump length
B) About 12 cm or 4.5 inches crown-rump length
C) About 30 cm or 12 inches crown-rump length
D) About 42.5 cm or 16.5 inches crown-rump length
E) About 51 cm or 20 inches crown-rump length
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9
Chapter 8: Development of the Skin and Its Derivatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of hair cell growth is the resting phase?
A) Anagen
B) Catagen
C) Exogen
D) Telogen
Q2) During development,the keratinocytes of the various skin layers express different keratins and other intracellular proteins involved in the maturation of the skin.Transglutaminase 1 is one such protein.What is the human syndrome that can be caused by mutations in Transglutaminase 1?
A) Dowling-Meara EBS
B) Junctional epidermolysis bullosa
C) Bullous congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma
D) Lamellar ichthyosis
E) Incontinentia pigmenti
F) Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
Q3) Sweat glands use which mechanism of secretion?
A) Apocrine
B) Eccrine
C) Holocrine
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Development of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Duchenne muscular dystrophy,a debilitating X-linked muscular disease,is due to mutations in which gene?
A) PABPN1, Polyadenylate-binding protein, nuclear 1
B) Dystrophin
C) MYOR
D) MYOD
E) MYOSIN
Q2) When Runx2 (or Cbfa1)is genetically inactivated in mice,which cell lineage does not form?
A) Striated muscles
B) Chondrocytes
C) Osteoblasts
D) Osteoclasts
Q3) Butterfly vertebrae are characteristic of which syndrome?
A) Alagille syndrome
B) Spondylocostal dysostosis
C) Klippel-Feil anomaly
D) VATER/VACTERL
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Chapter 10: Development of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher treats an early neural-tube-stage embryo with a 1-hour pulse of colchicine,which arrests proliferating cells in metaphase.Where will the arrested cells be found?
A) Throughout the marginal layer of the neural tube
B) Throughout the mantle layer of the neural tube
C) Throughout the ventricular layer of the neural tube
D) Only in the floor plate of the neural tube
E) Only in the roof plate of the neural tube
Q2) A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with cerebellar heterotopia.What developmental process likely went awry,accounting for heterotopia?
A) Cell proliferation
B) Cell death
C) Axonal pathfinding
D) Cell migration
E) Cell differentiation
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Chapter 11: Development of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hereditary peripheral neuropathies,such as Charcot-Marie-Tooth hereditary neuropathy,involve nerve demyelination.What cell type myelinates peripheral nerves during development?
A) Schwann cells
B) Oligodendrocytes
C) Astrocytes
D) Chromaffin cells
E) Endothelial cells
Q2) A child is diagnosed with congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis.The receptor for which growth factor is mutated in this condition?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) Transforming growth factor beta
C) Scatter factor
D) Fibroblast growth factor
E) Nerve growth factor
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13
Chapter 12: Development of the Respiratory System and Body Cavities
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature baby is not producing sufficient surfactant.What is known to stimulate surfactant synthesis prior to birth?
A) Testosterone
B) Estrogen
C) Progesterone
D) Thyroxine
E) FSH and LH
Q2) A baby with a severe diaphragmatic hernia with herniation of visceral into the pleural cavity also has other anomalies of the respiratory system.What anomaly is likely to be present?
A) Pulmonary agenesis
B) Pulmonary hypoplasia
C) Pulmonary hyperplasia
D) Tracheoesophageal fistula
E) Hyaline membrane disease
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Chapter 13: Development of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the heart is derived from the left sinus horn?
A) Sinus venarum
B) Superior vena cava
C) Coronary sinus
D) Interatrial septum
E) Crista terminalis
Q2) Heart chamber specification is dependent on the loss,gain,or limited expression of several transcription factors.What pattern of expression supports specification and formation of the right ventricle?
A) Loss of expression of Tbx5 within the primary heart field
B) Loss of expression of Irx4 within the cranial portion of the primary heart field
C) Restricted expression of RALDH-2 to the cranial portion of primary heart field
D) Continued expression of Isl1 and Tbx1 within the secondary heart field
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15
Chapter 14: Development of the Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) What embryonic structure(s)form the right subclavian artery?
A) Aortic arch 3 and dorsal aorta
B) Only the seventh intersegmental artery
C) Aortic arch 6 and dorsal aorta
D) Aortic arch 4, dorsal aorta, and seventh intersegmental artery
E) Aortic arch 3 and the seventh intersegmental artery
Q2) In the embryo,blood is channeled from the left umbilical vein into the right hepatocardiac channel.What is the name of the remnant of this left-to-right channel?
A) Ligamentum teres
B) Ligamentum venosum
C) Ligamentum arteriosum
D) Supracardinal vein
E) Oblique vein
Q3) A newborn exhibits severe cyanotic symptoms in the abdomen,pelvis,and lower limbs but not in head and neck or upper limbs.What is the most likely explanation?
A) This child has a preductal coarctation of the aorta.
B) This child has a postductal coarctation of the aorta.
C) This child has a patent ductus arteriosus.
D) This child has transposition of the great vessels.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Development of the Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on hospital records,a 3-day-old newborn has not had a bowel movement.Upon re-examination,you notice the baby's abdomen appears bloated and the infant is beginning to run a fever.Soon after feeding,the baby also exhibits severe vomiting and can't keep anything down.As a physician,you request abdominal x-rays,and you find that the jejunum is drastically dilated,with the remainder of the lower small large intestines appearing smaller in diameter than expected.What is the likely cause?
A) An umbilical hernia
B) Pyloric atresia
C) Meckel's diverticulum
D) Hirschsprung's disease
E) An annular pancreas
Q2) What forms the definitive anorectal canal?
A) It is completely derived from the distal hindgut.
B) Two thirds of the anorectal canal is derived from the hindgut, and one third is from the anal pit.
C) It is completely derived from the anal pit.
D) It is entirely derived from the cloacal membrane.
E) It is entirely derived from the urogenital sinus.
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Chapter 16: Development of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young mother brings her 5-year-old girl who is still in diapers to the pediatrician's office.The mother complains that the infant is constantly wetting her diapers even though the girl is potty-trained.Upon examination,you notice what appears to be urine coming from the vagina through a small orifice located in the upper vaginal wall.What is your initial diagnosis?
A) Rectovaginal fistula
B) Ectopic ureter
C) Rectovesicular fistula
D) Rectourethral fistula
E) Unicornate uterus
Q2) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for glomerulopathy associated with Denys-Drash syndrome?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
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Chapter 17: Development of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for persistent müllerian syndrome?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q2) What gene is thought to be a direct downstream target of SRY expression?
A) SOX9
B) WF1
C) AMH
D) DESERT HEDGEHOG
E) WNT4
Q3) What effect would a loss of Shh expression within the urethral plate have on genital development?
A) Development of enlarged genital tubercle
B) Hypospadia
C) An increase in Hoxa13 and Hoxd3 expression in the genital tubercle
D) An increase in Fgf8 expression in the urethral plate
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Chapter 18: Development of the Pharyngeal Apparatus and Face
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Q1) The mesoderm forms which derivative of the pharyngeal apparatus?
A) Aortic arch muscle coats
B) Cartilaginous bars
C) Cranial nerves
D) Muscle plates
Q2) Derivatives of the second pharyngeal arches are innervated by which nerves?
A) Cervical spinal nerves
B) Facial nerves
C) Glossopharyngeal nerves
D) Trigeminal nerves
E) Vagus nerves
Q3) The third aortic arches lie between which pharyngeal grooves/clefts?
A) First and second
B) Second and third
C) Third and fourth
D) Fourth and sixth
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Chapter 19: Development of the Ears
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which signaling pathway controls the orientation and arrangement of the stereocilia on the inner hair cells?
A) Wnt canonical
B) Planar polarity
C) Fgf
D) Bmp
E) Hedgehog
Q2) Researchers have genetically inactivated transcription factors that are expressed in the developing ear of mice.This has shown that various transcription factors are necessary for the development of different regions of the inner ear.Pax2 function is required for development of which region of the inner ear?
A) Lateral canal
B) Anterior and posterior canals
C) Cochlea
D) Utricle
E) Endolymphatic duct and sac
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Chapter 20: Development of the Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most frequent genetic syndrome that affects the retina?
A) Osteoporosis-pseudoglioma syndrome
B) Leber congenital amaurosis syndrome
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Familial exudative vitreoretinopathy
E) Norrie disease
Q2) Researchers have shown that the various regions of the developing eye are specified by different transcription factors whose expression is induced by the adjacent tissues.Which region of the eye requires the transcription factor Chx10?
A) Optic stalk
B) Neural retina
C) Pigmented retina
D) Lens
E) Cornea
Q3) Coloboma results from failure of which development event?
A) Eye induction
B) Differentiation of the photoreceptors
C) Regression of the hyaloid artery
D) Closure of the optic fissure
E) Formation of the eyelids
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Chapter 21: Development of the Limbs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term arachnodactyly specifically refers to which defect?
A) Absence of the entire limb
B) Absence of part of the stylopod
C) Presence of extra digits
D) Fusion of digits
E) Absence of one or more digits
F) Elongation of the digits
Q2) Which growth factor is expressed by the dorsal limb ectoderm and is essential for patterning the dorsal-ventral axis?
A) Wnt3a
B) Wnt7a
C) Shh
D) Wnt5a
E) Fgf8
Q3) Nail-patella syndrome is caused by mutations in which gene?
A) WNT7a
B) ENGRAILED-1
C) FGF8
D) NOGGIN
E) LMX1B
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