Cell Biology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Cell Biology is a foundational course that explores the structure, function, and dynamics of cells the fundamental units of life. The course covers key topics such as cell membrane structure and transport, organelle function, energy production, cell communication, growth, division, and death. Students examine the molecular mechanisms that govern cell behavior, as well as how cells interact with their environment. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and discussions, learners develop a comprehensive understanding of cellular processes relevant to health, disease, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
A)The temperature decreased from 20°C to 15°C.
B)The plant's height is 25 centimetres (cm).
C)The fish swam in a zigzag motion.
D)The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks.
E)The contents of the stomach are mixed every 20 seconds.
Answer: C
Q2) After several weeks you notice that the plants in high light are larger (grew more)and there are more air bubbles in the tank than in the low light tank.Which of the following is the most logical conclusion?
A)More air in the tank has helped the plants to grow.
B)The difference in light must have an influence on growth.
C)You didn't do the study properly and put larger plants in one tank.
D)Something in the low light tank must be stopping growth.
E)You need to do more research to fully understand what could be happening.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the most electronegative atom?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Answer: D
Q2) What is the Lewis dot structure better at showing than the space filling model?
A)All electrons for a molecule.
B)The sharing of electrons within a molecule.
C)The molecule's shape.
D)The molecule's size.
E)The type of bond formed within the molecule.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7,it means that the A)concentration of H is twice (2X)what it was at pH 5.
B)concentration of H is one-half (1/2)what it was at pH 5.
C)concentration of OH is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5.
D)concentration of OH is one-hundredth (0.01X)what it was at pH 5.
E)concentration of H is 100 times greater and the concentration of OH is one-hundredth what they were at pH 5.
Answer: C
Q2) If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8,it means that the
A)concentration of H has decreased to one-tenth (1/10)what it was at pH 9.
B)concentration of H has increased tenfold (10X)compared to what it was at pH 9.
C)concentration of OH has increased tenfold (10X)compared to what it was at pH 9.
D)concentration of OH has decreased to one-tenth (1/10)what it was at pH 9.
E)concentration of H has increased tenfold (10X)and the concentration of OH has decreased to one-tenth (1/10)what they were at pH 9.
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecule(s)shown above is (are)ionized in aqueous solution at pH 7?
A)A
B)B and D
C)D and E
D)D
E)E
Q2) Which functional groups can act as acids?
A)amino and sulfhydryl
B)carbonyl and carboxyl
C)carboxyl and phosphate
D)hydroxyl and aldehyde
E)ketone and amino
Q3) Which molecule shown above has a carbonyl functional group in the form of an aldehyde?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins?
A)an amino group
B)a peptide bond
C)a disulfide bond
D)a pleated sheet
E)an helix
Q2) The molecular formula for glucose is C H O .What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?
A)C H O
B)C H O
C)C H O
D)C H O
E)C H O
Q3) The structure depicted in the above figure shows the
A)1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of starch.
B)1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of cellulose.
C)double-helical structure of a DNA molecule.
D) helix secondary structure of a polypeptide.
E) pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?
A)rough ER
B)lysosomes
C)plasmodesmata
D)Golgi vesicles
E)free cytoplasmic ribosomes
Q2) What are the two domains prokaryotes belong to?
A)Bacteria and Eukarya
B)Bacteria and Archaea
C)Archaea and Protista
D)Bacteria and Protista
E)Eukarya and Protista
Q3) Which organelle or structure is absent in plant cells?
A)mitochondria
B)Golgi vesicles
C)microtubules
D)centrosomes
E)peroxisomes
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be observed by live-cell fluorescence microscopy if the red fluorescent lipid dye-labelled HIV membrane fuses with the target cell plasma membrane?
A)A spot of red fluorescence will remain on the infected cell's plasma membrane, marking the site of membrane fusion and HIV entry.
B)The red fluorescent dye-labelled lipids will diffuse in the infected cell's plasma membrane and become difficult to detect.
C)A spot of red fluorescence will move into the infected cell's cytoplasm.
D)A spot of red fluorescence will remain outside the cell after delivering the viral capsid.
E)Fluorescence microscopy does not have enough resolution to visualize fluorescently labelled HIV virus particles.
Q2) Why are lipids and proteins free to move laterally in membranes?
A)The interior of the membrane is filled with liquid water.
B)Lipids and proteins repulse each other in the membrane.
C)Hydrophilic portions of the lipids are in the interior of the membrane.
D)There are only weak hydrophobic interactions in the interior of the membrane.
E)Molecules such as cellulose can pull them in various directions.
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9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The active site of an enzyme is the region that
A)binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme.
B)is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.
C)binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme.
D)is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.
Q2) When glucose monomers are joined together by glycosidic linkages to form a cellulose polymer,the changes in free energy,total energy,and entropy are as follows
A)+ G, + H, + S.
B)+ G, + H, - S.
C)+ G, - H, - S.
D)- G, + H, + S.
E)- G, - H, - S.
Q3) Which of the following best describes enthalpy (H)?
A)the total kinetic energy of a system
B)the heat content of a chemical system
C)the system's entropy
D)the cell's energy equilibrium
E)the condition of a cell that is not able to react
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10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does glycolysis take place in eukaryotic cells?
A)mitochondrial matrix
B)mitochondrial outer membrane
C)mitochondrial inner membrane
D)mitochondrial intermembrane space
E)cytosol
Q2) What would the veterinarian suggest to help this dog?
A)Increase his carbohydrate intake to provide more substrate for glycolysis.
B)Change his diet, reducing carbohydrates and increasing protein and fats.
C)Keep him sedentary, not allowing him to exercise much.
D)Try a different source of carbohydrates in his diet.
E)Take energy pills.
Q3) Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation?
A)the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
B)the citric acid cycle
C)oxidative phosphorylation
D)glycolysis
E)chemiosmosis
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?
A)The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, , and NADP to the light reactions.
B)The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle, and the cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions.
C)The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO to produce sugars, and the Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP.
D)The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for electron flow, and the Calvin cycle provides the light reactions with water to split.
E)There is no relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle.
Q2) When do plants split water providing a source of electrons and protons?
A)only in the light
B)only in the dark
C)in both the light and dark
D)only if oxygen is present
E)in both the light and dark, but only if oxygen is present
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of aldosterone action?
A)protein phosphorylation
B)cell-surface receptor binding
C)internal receptor binding
D)second messenger activation
E)ion flow across the plasma membrane
Q2) Which of the following is true of steroid receptors?
A)The receptor molecules are themselves lipids or glycolipids.
B)The receptor may be inside the cell or nucleus of a target cell.
C)The unbound steroid receptors are quickly recycled by lysosomes.
D)Steroid receptors are plasma membrane bound.
E)Steroid receptors are active until steroid binds.
Q3) What might be one approach to design a drug to maintain low blood sugar levels?
A)activate epinephrine receptors
B)increase cAMP production in liver cells
C)block G protein activity in liver cells
D)increase phosphorylase activity
E)increase membrane fluidity
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?
A)to increase their potential energy
B)to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking
C)to allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope
D)to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached
E)to provide for the structure of the centromere
Q2) Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
A)They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
B)When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
C)They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
D)When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle, and they are not subject to cell cycle controls.
E)When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle; they are not subject to cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when grown in culture.
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14
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autosomes are chromosomes,which are
A)involved in sexual identity.
B)capable of reproducing themselves.
C)involved in the autoimmune responses.
D)all chromosomes, except sex chromosomes.
E)the only chromosomes that are inherited.
Q2) When an individual chromosome carries DNA from two different parents,it is said to be
A)fertilized.
B)a mutation.
C)a karyotype.
D)synapsed.
E)recombinant.
Q3) In meiosis,when are homologous chromosomes are separated?
A)anaphase II
B)prophase I
C)mitosis
D)anaphase I
E)prophase II
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dwarf,red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers.What are the genotype and phenotype of the F individuals?
A)ttRr-dwarf and pink
B)ttrr-dwarf and white
C)TtRr-tall and red
D)TtRr-tall and pink
E)TTRR-tall and red
Q2) The frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high,presumably because this reduces the frequency of malaria.Such a relationship is related to which of the following?
A)Mendel's law of independent assortment
B)Mendel's law of segregation
C)Darwin's explanation of natural selection
D)Darwin's observations of competition
E)the malarial parasite changing the allele
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical distances on a chromosome for which of the following reasons?
A)The frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome.
B)The relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in every individual.
C)Physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle.
D)The gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual.
E)Linkage map distances are identical between males and females.
Q2) Of the following human aneuploidies,which is the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual?
A)47, +21
B)47, XXY
C)47, XXX
D)47, XYY
E)45, X
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) One major difference in prokaryote replication versus eukaryote replication is
A)prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not.
B)prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.
C)the rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
D)prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not.
E)prokaryotes have telomeres, and eukaryotes do not.
Q2) Which of the enzymes removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments?
A)helicase
B)topoisomerase
C)DNA ligase
D)DNA polymerase I
E)DNA polymerase III
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18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tRNA shown in the figure has its 3' end projecting beyond its 5' end.What will occur at this 3' end?
A)The codon and anticodon complement one another.
B)The amino acid binds covalently.
C)The excess nucleotides (ACCA)will be cleaved off at the ribosome.
D)The small and large subunits of the ribosome will attach to it.
E)The 5' cap of the mRNA will become covalently bound.
Q2) The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon.This results in
A)a base-pair substitution.
B)a nucleotide mismatch.
C)a frameshift mutation.
D)a polypeptide missing an amino acid.
E)a nonsense mutation.
Q3) How does termination of translation take place?
A)The end of the mRNA molecule is reached.
B)A stop codon is reached.
C)The 3' cap is reached.
D)The poly-A tail is reached.
E)When the ribosome senses an intron
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) In eukaryotes,general transcription factors
A)are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes.
B)bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box.
C)inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing.
D)usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors.
E)bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription.
Q2) If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon,then
A)the amino acid inactivates the repressor.
B)the enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes.
C)the repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid.
D)the amino acid acts as a corepressor.
E)the amino acid turns on transcription of the operon.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the poliovirus would first interact with host cell ribosomes to mediate translation?
A)the poly-A tail
B)the leader sequence
C)the VPg protein
D)the AUG in the leader sequence
E)the AUG at the start of the coding sequence
Q2) When is the virus genome and viral proteins assembled into virions?
A)During the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle in all known host organisms.
B)During the lysogenic cycle only.
C)During the lytic cycle only.
D)During the lytic cycle in eukaryotes and the lysogenic cycle only in prokaryotes.
E)During the lytic cycle in prokaryotes and the lysogenic cycle in eukaryoties.
Q3) What are prions?
A)mobile segments of DNA
B)tiny molecules of RNA that infect plants
C)viral DNA that has had to attach itself to the host genome
D)misfolded versions of normal brain protein
E)viruses that invade bacteria
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Page 21
Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modern forensic investigation uses ________ to identify criminals.
A)cloning
B)RT-PCR
C)restriction fragment length polymorphism
D)single nucleotide polymorphism
E)short tandem repeats
Q2) Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR?
1)The primers hybridize to the target DNA.
2)The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double-stranded target DNA.
3)Fresh DNA polymerase is added.
4)DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA.
A)2, 1, 4
B)1, 3, 2, 4
C)3, 4, 1, 2
D)3, 4, 2
E)2, 3, 4
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) A DNA microarray is a tool that owes its existence to earlier genomics investigations.What essential contribution of genomics makes microarrays possible?
A)recently improved RNA sequencing technologies
B)continuously improving methods of gene cloning
C)more efficient techniques for cDNA synthesis
D)knowledge of which DNA sequences to synthesize for the array
E)list of most common repetitive DNA sequences
Q2) Which of the following variations in human DNA sequences involves duplication of relatively long stretches of chromosomes,often including the duplication of protein-coding genes?
A)copy number variants
B)single nucleotide polymorphisms
C)short tandem repeats
D)transposable elements
E)exon shuffling
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23
Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) The upper forelimbs of humans and bats have fairly similar skeletal structures,whereas the corresponding bones in whales have very different shapes and proportions.However,genetic data suggest that all three kinds of organisms diverged from a common ancestor at about the same time.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these data?
A)Humans and bats evolved by natural selection, and whales evolved by Lamarckian mechanisms.
B)Forelimb evolution was adaptive in people and bats, but not in whales.
C)Natural selection in an aquatic environment resulted in significant changes to whale forelimb anatomy.
D)Genes mutate faster in whales than in humans or bats.
E)Whales are not properly classified as mammals.
Q2) A high degree of endemism is most likely in environments that are
A)easily reached and heterogeneous.
B)isolated and heterogeneous.
C)isolated and homogeneous.
D)isolated and extremely cold.
E)easily reached and homogeneous.
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) HIV has nine genes in its RNA genome.Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules,and each molecule contains all nine genes.If,for some reason,the two RNA molecules within a single HIV particle do not have identical sequences,then which of these terms can be applied due to the existence of the nonidentical regions?
A)homozygous
B)gene variability
C)nucleotide variability
D)average heterozygosity
E)All but one of the responses are correct.
Q2) The recessive allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU)is harmful,except when an infant's diet lacks the amino acid phenylalanine.What maintains the presence of this harmful allele in a population's gene pool?
A)heterozygote advantage
B)stabilizing selection
C)diploidy
D)balancing selection
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The biological species concept emphasized the absence of gene flow.Which alternative species concept(s)is(are)applicable to explaining the hybridization between grizzly and polar bears?
A)the morphological species concept, since it puts emphasis on similarities between the two species
B)the ecological species concept, as it addresses organisms' adaptations to changing environmental conditions
C)the allopatric species concept, since it emphasizes geographical barriers
D)A, B, and C
E)all except C
Q2) When studying hybridization over time,researchers have found that
A)when reinforcement occurs, the production of hybrid individuals continues because hybridization is favoured or reinforced.
B)when stability occurs, barriers to reproduction are strong, and hybrid numbers decline.
C)hybridization between polar bears and grizzly bears is one of reinforcement.
D)when fusion occurs, there is a weakening of reproductive barriers, gene flow continues, and the two hybridizing species become increasingly more alike.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) If one organ is an exaptation of another organ,then what must be true of these two organs?
A)They are both vestigial organs.
B)They are both homologous organs.
C)They are undergoing convergent evolution.
D)They are found together in the same hybrid species.
E)They have the same function.
Q2) What is thought to be the correct sequence of these events,from earliest to most recent,in the evolution of life on Earth?
1)origin of mitochondria
2)origin of multicellular eukaryotes
3)origin of chloroplasts
4)origin of cyanobacteria
5)origin of fungal-plant symbioses
A)4, 3, 2, 1, 5
B)4, 1, 2, 3, 5
C)4, 1, 3, 2, 5
D)4, 3, 1, 5, 2
E)4, 3, 1, 2, 5
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Taxonomically,what should be done with the birds?
A)The traditional stance is correct. Such dramatic morphological change as undergone by birds merits that the birds be placed in their own order, separate from the reptiles.
B)The birds should be reclassified, and their new taxon should be the subclass Aves. Genetic similarity trumps morphological dissimilarity.
C)The rest of the reptiles should be reclassified as a subclass within the class Aves.
D)Science is consensual. Taxonomy is a science. Variant classification schemes involving the birds should be tolerated until consensus is reached.
Q2) The most important feature that permits a gene to act as a molecular clock is
A)having a large number of base pairs.
B)having a larger proportion of exonic DNA than of intronic DNA.
C)having a reliable average rate of mutation.
D)its recent origin by a gene-duplication event.
E)its being acted upon by natural selection.
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28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Mycoplasmas are bacteria that lack cell walls.On the basis of this structural feature,which statement concerning mycoplasmas should be true?
A)They are gram-negative.
B)They are subject to lysis in hypotonic conditions.
C)They lack a cell membrane as well.
D)They should contain less cellulose than do bacteria that possess cell walls.
E)They possess typical prokaryotic flagella.
Q2) Match the numbered terms to the description that follows.Choose all appropriate terms.
1)autotroph
2)heterotroph
3)phototroph
4)chemotroph
Description: an organism that obtains both carbon and energy by ingesting prey
A)1 only
B)4 only
C)1 and 3
D)2 and 4
E)1, 3, and 4
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29
Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) P.chromatophora secretes around itself a test,or case,of plates made of silica.Which of the following is another rhizarian that would be in competition with P.chromatophora for the silica needed to make these plates,assuming limited quantities of silica in the environment?
A)radiolarians
B)foraminiferans
C)all other amoeboid cells
D)all other rhizaria
E)diatoms
Q2) Why do photosynthetic protists play a critical role in aquatic ecosystems?
A)Photosynthetic protists and prokaryotes are the major producers that form the critical base of food webs.
B)Photosynthetic dinoflagellates are in a mutualistic symbiotic association with coral, and coral reefs are one of the most diverse and productive biomes on earth.
C)They outcompete the non-photosynthetic parasitic protists.
D)They form colonies that cover the water's surface, which allows anaerobic organisms to thrive.
E)A and B
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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93 Verified Questions
93 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structural integrity of bacteria is to peptidoglycan as the structural integrity of plant spores is to
A)lignin.
B)cellulose.
C)secondary compounds.
D)sporopollenin.
Q2) If humans had been present to build log structures during the Carboniferous period (they weren't),which plant types would have been suitable sources of logs?
A)whisk ferns and epiphytes
B)horsetails and bryophytes
C)lycophytes and bryophytes
D)ferns, horsetails, and lycophytes
E)charophytes, bryophytes, and gymnosperms
Q3) The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably ________.
A)kelp (brown alga)that formed large beds near the shorelines
B)green algae
C)photosynthesizing prokaryotes (cyanobacteria)
D)liverworts and mosses
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true concerning flowering plants?
A)The flower includes sporophyte tissue.
B)The gametophyte generation is dominant.
C)The gametophyte generation is what we see when looking at a large plant.
D)The sporophyte generation is not photosynthetic.
E)The sporophyte generation consists of relatively few cells within the flower.
Q2) The shell of an animal egg is what type of angiosperm analogue?
A)endosperm
B)pollen tube and sperm nuclei
C)carpels
D)fruit
E)integuments
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?
A)complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent
B)double internal fertilization
C)free-living gametophytes
D)carpels that contain microsporangia
E)ovules that are not contained within ovaries
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the sporangia of the bread mould Rhizopus?
A)asexual structures that produce haploid spores
B)asexual structures that produce diploid spores
C)sexual structures that produce haploid spores
D)sexual structures that produce diploid spores
Q2) Which of these paired fungal structures are structurally and functionally most alike?
A)conidia and basidiocarps
B)sporangia and hyphae
C)soredia and gills
D)haustoria and arbuscules
E)zoospores and mycelia
Q3) Which feature seen in chytrids supports the hypothesis that they diverged earliest in fungal evolution?
A)the absence of chitin within the cell wall
B)coenocytic hyphae
C)flagellated spores
D)formation of resistant zygosporangia
E)parasitic lifestyle
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phylogeny has been created by emphasizing the structural simplicity of placozoans?
A)I
B)II
C)III
Q2) At which developmental stage should one be able to first distinguish a diploblastic embryo from a triploblastic embryo?
A)fertilization
B)cleavage
C)gastrulation
D)coelom formation
E)metamorphosis
Q3) If Tp sperm are observed by future researchers,how many chromosomes should be found in a Tp sperm nucleus?
A)2
B)3
C)6
D)12
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34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection with which parasite might cause excessive elasticity in human skeletal muscles?
A)trichinella worms
B)tapeworms
C)copepods
D)blood flukes
E)rotifers
Q2) Nematode worms and annelid worms share which of the following features?
A)use of fluid in the body cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton
B)ecdysis
C)presence of a circulatory system
D)presence of segmentation
E)absence of species with parasitic lifestyles
Q3) One should expect to find cilia associated with the feeding apparatus of A)annelids.
B)coral animals.
C)tapeworms.
D)sponges.
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35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chordate pharyngeal slits appear to have functioned first as
A)the digestive system's opening.
B)suspension-feeding devices.
C)components of the jaw.
D)gill slits for respiration.
E)portions of the inner ear.
Q2) Whose DNA would have had the most sequence homologies with amphibian DNA?
A)5
B)6
C)7
D)8
E)9
Q3) What group of mammals have (a)embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples,(b)young that feed on milk,and (c)a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta?
A)Eutheria
B)Marsupiala
C)Monotremata
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before differentiation can begin during the processes of plant cell and tissue culture,parenchyma cells from the source tissue must
A)differentiate into procambium.
B)undergo dedifferentiation.
C)increase the number of chromosomes in their nuclei.
D)enzymatically digest their primary cell walls.
E)establish a new polarity in their cytoplasm.
Q2) Plants are capable of indeterminate growth because they contain
A)supporting sclerenchyma cells.
B)undifferentiated epidermal, ground, and vascular tissue.
C)stem cells that are constantly dividing.
D)undifferentiated tissues called meristems.
E)well-developed xylem and phloem.
Q3) The driving force that pushes the root tip through the soil is primarily
A)continuous cell division in the root cap at the tip of the root.
B)continuous cell division just behind the root cap in the centre of the apical meristem.
C)elongation of cells behind the root apical meristem.
D)the elongation of root hairs.
E)continuous cell division of root cap cells.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contribute to the surface area available for water absorption from the soil by a plant root system?
I.root hairs
II.endodermis
III.mycorrhizae
IV.fibrous arrangement of the roots
A)II and III
B)I, III, and IV
C)I, II, and IV
D)I, II, III, and IV
Q2) All of the following are plant adaptations to life on land except A)tracheids and vessels.
B)root hairs.
C)cuticle.
D)the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis. E)collenchyma.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an African violet has chlorosis,which of the following elements might be a useful addition to the soil?
A)chlorine
B)molybdenum
C)copper
D)iodine
E)magnesium
Q2) The enzyme complex nitrogenase catalyzes the reaction that reduces atmospheric nitrogen to
A)N .
B)NH .
C)NO .
D)NO .
E)NO .
Q3) Most of the dry mass of a plant is the result of uptake of
A)water and minerals through root hairs.
B)water and minerals through mycorrhizae.
C)carbon dioxide through stoma.
D)carbon dioxide and oxygen through stomata in leaves.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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107 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A flowering plant with a deleterious mutation in microsporogenesis would most likely
A)fail to produce sepals.
B)fail to produce petals.
C)fail to produce anthers.
D)fail to produce pollen.
E)fail to produce ovules.
Q2) All of the following floral parts are involved in pollination or fertilization except the A)stamen.
B)carpel.
C)petals.
D)sepals.
E)receptacle.
Q3) Carpellate flowers
A)are perfect.
B)are complete.
C)produce pollen.
D)are found only on dioecious plants.
E)develop into fruits.
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plant hormones
A)in plant cells naturally exist in very large amounts.
B)change their shape in response to stimulus.
C)are unable to move from one cell to another.
D)affect only cells with the appropriate receptor.
Q2) The synthesis of which of the following hormones would be a logical first choice in an attempt to produce normal growth in mutant dwarf plants?
A)indoleacetic acid
B)cytokinin
C)gibberellin
D)abscisic acid
E)ethylene
Q3) If the range of a species of plants expands to a higher latitude,which of the following processes is the most likely to be modified by natural selection?
A)circadian rhythm
B)photoperiodic response
C)phototropic response
D)biological clock
E)thigmomorphogenesis
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight,and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures.When they move into the shade and rest,which animal will cool down faster?
A)The elephant will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.
B)The elephant will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio.
C)The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.
D)They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount.
E)They will cool at the same rate because they have the same adaptive structures.
Q2) An overheated and sick dog in a hot environment will have an impaired thermoregulatory response when its
A)evaporative heat loss increases.
B)metabolic heat production decreases.
C)body temperature increases to match the environmental temperature.
D)blood vessels near its skin increase vasoconstriction.
E)behavioural response takes it to a cooler location.
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42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assumptions can you make about the animal's diet?
A)The animal was a carnivorous bulk feeder that rarely ate vegetation.
B)The animal was a carnivorous filter feeder that rarely ate vegetation.
C)The animal was an herbivorous bulk feeder that rarely ate meat.
D)The animal was an herbivorous filter feeder that rarely ate meat.
E)The animal was a carnivorous substrate feeder that often ate vegetation.
Q2) The cecum is small because
A)there is little room in the abdominal cavity.
B)it secretes very few enzymes.
C)it digests only alcohol.
D)animal cells are not surrounded by a wall.
E)it is responsible for water uptake.
Q3) When the digestion and absorption of organic molecules results in more energy-rich molecules than are immediately required by an animal,the excess is
A)eliminated in the feces.
B)stored as starch in the liver.
C)stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles.
D)oxidized and converted to ATP.
E)hydrolyzed and converted to ADP.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a prolonged dive,mammals such as the Weddell seal do all of the following except
A)derive ATP from fermentation.
B)route blood to major organs.
C)decrease O consumption rate.
D)increase blood supply to muscles.
E)decrease heart rate.
Q2) Flying insects do all of the following except
A)increase metabolism as much as 200-fold during flight.
B)switch from diffusion of tracheal gases to active transport during flight.
C)utilize high numbers of mitochondria in flight muscles.
D)produce water molecules from oxygen in mitochondria.
E)generate carbon dioxide from catabolism of fuel molecules.
Q3) The set of blood vessels with the slowest velocity of blood flow is
A)the arteries.
B)the arterioles.
C)the metarterioles.
D)the capillaries.
E)the veins.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammatory responses typically include
A)clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection.
B)increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area.
C)reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.
D)release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area.
E)inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow.
Q2) What can naturally acquired passive immunity result from?
A)injection of vaccine
B)ingestion of interferon
C)placental transfer of antibodies
D)absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes
E)lysis of bacteria in the stomach
Q3) An individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin would likely benefit from
A)vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin.
B)injection of antibodies to the toxin.
C)injection of interleukin-1.
D)injection of interleukin-2.
E)injection of interferon.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a laboratory experiment with three groups of students,one group drinks pure water,a second group drinks an equal amount of beer,and a third group drinks an equal amount of concentrated salt solution,all during the same time period.Their urine production is monitored for several hours.Which groups are expected to have the greatest and least amounts of urine,respectively?
A)Beer drinkers have the most; salt solution drinkers have the least.
B)Salt solution drinkers have the most; water drinkers have the least.
C)Water drinkers have the most; beer drinkers have the least.
D)Beer drinkers have the most; water drinkers have the least.
E)There will be no significant difference between these groups.
Q2) The osmolarity of human urine
A)can be four times as great as normal osmolarity of human plasma.
B)is always exactly equal to plasma osmolarity.
C)is always less than plasma osmolarity.
D)is always greater than plasma osmolarity.
E)is determined primarily by the concentration of glucose.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What property of steroid hormones allows them to cross the phospholipid bilayer?
A)Steroid hormones are lipid soluble and easily cross the phospholipid bilayer.
B)Steroid hormones can act in very small concentrations and very few molecules of steroids need to cross the lipid bilayer.
C)Steroid hormones act on cells close to where they were produced and very few molecules are required to travel such a short distance to cross the lipid bilayer.
D)Steroid hormones act on the same cells in which they are produced and, therefore, are within the cell they are acting upon.
E)Cells have protein carriers for steroids in their plasma membranes so the steroid can be transported to the cytoplasm.
Q2) Endocrine glands that are sources of steroid hormones
A)secrete the steroids through ducts into the blood.
B)store those hormones in membrane-bound vesicles.
C)have a very short latency between steroid synthesis and steroid release.
D)are all controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
E)operate independently of other hormonal cuing systems.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamic hormone that stimulates hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary gland is
A)LH.
B)FSH.
C)inhibin.
D)GnRH.
E)estradiol.
Q2) What makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their parents?
A)genetic recombination during meiosis
B)genetic recombination during mitosis
C)crossing over during mitosis
D)mutation immediately after fusion of egg and sperm
E)Sexual reproduction does not produce offspring that are genetically different from their parents.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an egg cell treated with EDTA,a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions
A)the acrosomal reaction would be blocked.
B)the fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked.
C)the fast block to polyspermy would not occur.
D)the fertilization envelope would not form.
E)the zygote would not contain maternal and paternal chromosomes.
Q2) This condition affects development in which axis?
A)proximal-distal
B)left-right
C)anterior-posterior
D)dorsal-ventral
E)transverse
Q3) Fertilization normally
A)reinstates diploidy.
B)follows gastrulation.
C)is required for parthenogenesis.
D)merges two diploid cells into one haploid cell.
E)precedes ovulation.
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49
Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon pricking your finger with a pin,which of the following variables change during the conduction of the produced action potential?
A)magnitude
B)frequency
C)duration
D)amplitude
E)threshold
Q2) What would probably happen if a long neuron had one continuous myelin sheath down the length of the axon with no nodes of Ranvier?
A)The action potential would be propagated nearly instantaneously to the synapse.
B)There would be no action potential generated at the axon hillock.
C)The signal would fade because it is not renewed by the opening of more sodium channels.
D)The action potential would be slower than normal for that length of axon.
E)The action potential would be more negative than normal.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a simple synapse,where are neurotransmitter chemicals received?
A)the postsynaptic membrane
B)the presynaptic membrane
C)axon hillock
D)cell body
E)myelin shealth
Q2) Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner.This could be described as a state with
A)increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.
B)decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.
C)decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.
D)increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.
E)increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, decreased activity in the parasympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the enteric nervous system.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myosin filaments without actin overlap are in which section of the figure?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Sensory transduction of light/dark information in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by
A)ganglion cells.
B)amacrine cells.
C)bipolar cells.
D)horizontal cells.
E)rods and cones.
Q3) Most of the chemosensory neurons arising in the nasal cavity have axonal projections that terminate in the
A)gustatory complex.
B)anterior hypothalamus.
C)olfactory bulb.
D)occipital lobe.
E)posterior pituitary gland.
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) A guinea pig loves the lettuce kept in the refrigerator and squeals each time the refrigerator door opens.What term best applies to this behaviour?
A)sign stimulus
B)cognition
C)imprinting
D)classical conditioning
E)operant conditioning
Q2) The central concept of sociobiology is that
A)human behaviour is rigidly predetermined.
B)the behaviour of an individual cannot be modified.
C)human behaviour consists mainly of fixed action patterns.
D)most aspects of our social behaviour have an evolutionary basis.
E)the social behaviour of humans is homologous to the social behaviour of other social animals.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following choices includes all of the others in creating global terrestrial climates?
A)differential heating of Earth's surface
B)ocean currents
C)global wind patterns
D)evaporation of water from ocean surfaces
E)Earth's rotation on its axis
Q2) The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by
A)whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores.
B)their tolerance to shade.
C)their seed dispersal rate.
D)their size.
E)their growth rate.
Q3) Which climograph shows the climate for location 2?
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Population ecologists are primarily interested in
A)studying interactions among populations of organisms that inhabit the same area.
B)understanding how biotic and abiotic factors influence the density, distribution, size, and age structure of populations.
C)how humans affect the size of wild populations of organisms.
D)how populations evolve as natural selection acts on heritable variations among individuals and changes in gene frequency.
E)the overall vitality of a population of organisms.
Q2) In which of the following situations would you expect to find the largest number of K-selected individuals?
A)a recently abandoned agricultural field in Ohio
B)the sand dune communities of south Lake Michigan
C)the flora and fauna of a coral reef in the Caribbean
D)South Florida after a hurricane
E)a newly emergent volcanic island
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What interactions exist between a "carrier crab" and "sea urchin hitch-hiker"?
A)+/+
B)+/o
C)+/-
D)o/o
E)-/-
Q2) A community's actual evapotranspiration is a reflection of
A)solar radiation, temperature, and water availability.
B)the number of plants and how much moisture they lose.
C)the depth of the water table.
D)wind speed and the frequency of wind gusts.
E)plant biomass and plant water content.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?
A)an insect that resembles a twig
B)a butterfly that resembles a leaf
C)a nonvenomous snake that looks like a venomous snake
D)a fawn with fur colouring that camouflages it in the forest environment
E)a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In ecosystems,why is the term cycling used to describe material transfer,whereas the term flow is used for energy exchange?
A)Materials are repeatedly used, but energy flows through and out of ecosystems.
B)Both material and energy are recycled and are then transferred to other ecosystems as in a flow.
C)Materials are cycled into ecosystems from other ecosystems, but energy constantly flows within the ecosystem.
D)Both material and energy flow in a never-ending stream within an ecosystem.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Which of the following properly links the nutrient to its reservoir?
A)nitrogen-ionic nitrogen in the soil
B)water-atmospheric water vapour
C)carbon-dissolved CO in aquatic ecosystems
D)phosphorous-sedimentary rocks
E)All of the options are correct.
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19812
Sample Questions
Q1) The greatest cause of the biodiversity crisis,the one which includes all of the others,is
A)pollution.
B)global warming.
C)habitat destruction.
D)introduced species.
E)human overpopulation.
Q2) This causes extremely high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds.
A)depletion of ozone layer
B)acid precipitation
C)biological magnification
D)greenhouse effect
E)eutrophication
Q3) Of the following ecosystem types,which have been impacted the most by humans?
A)wetland and riparian
B)open and benthic ocean
C)desert and high alpine
D)taiga and second-growth forests
E)tundra and arctic
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